Neurophysiology Flashcards
Regarding the neuronal resting membrane potential, which of the following is true?
Select one:
1. Hyperpolarise with moving out of chloride.
2. Depolarise with rapid moving out of sodium.
3. Repolarise with moving out of potassium
4. Repolarise with rapid cellular entry of sodium.
5. Depolarise with rapid cellular entry of potassium.
Repolarise with moving out of potassium
An action potential is initiated in the axon hillock when the synaptic signals received by the dendrites and
soma are sufficient to raise the intracellular potential from -70 mV to the threshold potential of - 55mV.
When this potential is reached, the Na+ channels present in the axon initial segment will open. This Na+
influx causes a rapid reversal of the membrane potential from -90 to +40 mV. When the membrane potential reaches +40mV, the Na+ channels close and the voltage-gated K+ channels open. K+ ions move out of the axon, and ‘repolarizes’ the membrane.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Kleine-Levin syndrome?
Select one:
1. Episodic nature
2. Hypersomnia
3. Male predominance
4. Hypertension
5. Hyperphagia
Hypertension
Kleine-Levin syndrome affects males predominantly, the sufferers are usually under the age of 25, patient
sleeps for 20 hours or more per day during an episode and it can last for several days. Hypersomnia and
Hyperphagia are the important characteristic features.
Which type of EEG trace is expected when eyes are closed during relaxation?
Select one:
1. Gamma
2. Beta
3. Theta
4. Alpha
5. Delta
Alpha
Alpha waves are predominant when eyes are closed, but the patient is not sleeping.
Which of the following associated with neuroendocrine changes during sleep is correct?
elect one:
1. Testosterone decreases when sleep starts
2. GH decreases when sleeping
3. Cortisol shoots up in slow wave sleep
4. During REM sleep melatonin decreases
5. Prolactin decreases in early morning sleep
During REM sleep melatonin decreases
Melatonin regulates circadian rhythms. It has both synchronizing and phase-shifting properties in the
regulation of biological rhythms. It reduces during REM sleep.
A 34-year-old patient who is taking sulpride undergoes EEG investigation for detecting drug-related EEG
changes. What would you expect to see?
Select one:
1. decrease in delta activity
2. new onset spike and waves
3. decrease in alpha activity
4. slowing of beta activity
5. decrease in theta activity
Slowing of beta activity
Slowing of beta activity with an increase in alpha, theta and delta activity is seen with antipsychotics.
1-2 Hz shaped wave pattern is seen in
Select one:
1. Hepatic encephalopathy
2. Huntington’s disease
3. Alzheimer’s disease
4. CJD
5. Multi-infarct dementia
CJD
The classic EEG finding in CJD is generalized 1-2 Hz bi- or triphasic sharp- and slow-wave complexes.
These may not appear until very late in the clinical course, if at all, and may require repeated testing. The
earliest EEG finding is more often rhythmic generalized slowing.
Which of the following disorders is characterised by a predominant presence of triphasic waves in EEG?
Select one:
1. Head injury
2. Depressive pseudodemntia
3. Herpes simplex encephalitis
4. Dementia of Alzheimer’s type
5. Hepatic encephalopathy
Hepatic encephalopathy
Triphasic waves (1.5 to 3.0 per second high-voltage slow-waves) are a distinctive but nonspecific
electroencephalographic (EEG) pattern originally described in a stuporous patient as ‘blunted spike and
wave.’ Since their findings were limited to patients with hepatic failure, triphasic wave encephalopathy
(TWE) became synonymous with hepatic encephalopathy. Since then, TWE has been associated with a wide range of toxic, metabolic, and structural abnormalities
Which of the following statement concerning REM sleep is INCORRECT?
Select one:
1. EEG shows activity similar to awake state
2. Rapid eye movements are noted
3. Cardiac activity is similar to awake state
4. Muscle tone is similar to awake state
5. Penile erection occurs
Muscle tone is similar to awake state
Criteria for REM sleep includes not only rapid eye movement, but also low muscle tone and an EEG pattern that is for most part similar to awake stage or stage 1 sleep but with intermittent appearance of rapid, low voltage EEG (saw tooth pattern) .
REM rebound on cessation is seen with the use of which of the following?
Select one:
1. Zolpidem
2. Modafinil
3. SSRIs
4. Methylphenidate
5. Inhalants
Methylphenidate
Stimulants reduce the total sleep time by decreasing both REM sleep and Slow Wave Sleep. On cessation
of stimulants (except modafinil), REM rebound occurs.
REM sleep includes which of the following physiological features?
Select one:
1. Abolition of tendon reflexes
2. Increased parasympathetic activity
3. Reduced heart rate
4. Increased recall of dream if awoken
5. Reduced cerebral blood flow
Increased recall of dream if awoken
Features of REM sleep:
1. Increased recall of dream if awoken
2. Increased sympathetic activity
3.Increased heart rate, systolic blood pressure, respiratory rate, cerebral blood flow
4. Penile erection or vaginal blood flow
5. Increased protein synthesis
6. Occasional myoclonic jerks
7. Maximal loss of muscle tone
8. Transient runs of conjugate ocular movements.
Features of non-REM sleep
1. Reduced recall of dreaming if awoken
2. Increased Parasympathetic activity
3. Decreased heart rate, systolic blood pressure, respiratory rate, cerebral blood flow
4. abolition of tendon reflexes
5. An upward ocular deviation with few or no movements.
Which one of the following is characteristic of REM sleep?
Select one:
1. Atonia
2. Reduced recall of dreaming if awoken
3. Decreased heart rate
4. Abolition of tendon reflexes
5. Upward ocular deviation with few or no movements
Atonia
Features of REM sleep include Increased recall of dream if awoken, Increased sympathetic activity,
Increased heart rate, systolic blood pressure, respiratory rate & cerebral blood flow, Penile erection or vaginal blood flow, Increased protein synthesis, Occasional myoclonic jerks, Maximal loss of muscle tone and transient runs of conjugate ocular movements. Nightmares occur in REM sleep - hence they are well recollected
Which of the following is an innovative treatment with some beneficial effect in dystonia?
Select one:
1. Vagal nerve stimulation
2. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS)
3. Leucotomy
4. Behavioural reversal therapy
5. Nerve ablation
Transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS)
Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) is being increasingly explored as a therapeutic tool for
depression, schizophrenia and movement disorders associated with deficient inhibition throughout the
central nervous system. There is some evidence for its use in dystonia as well though the evidence is very
preliminary compared to the convincing evidence in the treatment of depression and hallucinations.
The brain region that acts as monitor of circadian rhythm is
Select one:
1. Hippocampus
2. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
3. Locus ceruleus
4. Nucleus accumbens
5. Dorsal medial thalamus
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
The master clock of the brain is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) located in the anterior hypothalamus -
this orchestrates circadian rhythms and is synchronized by signals from the retina.
Which of the following brain regions when stimulated via magnetic pulse reduces depression?
Select one:
1. Right temporal
2. Left prefrontal
3. Right occipital
4. Left temporal
5. Right parietal
Left prefrontal
Magnetic stimulation may have therapeutic effects in affective disorders similar to ECT. Few studies have
reported a beneficial effect of left prefrontal rTMS in severe depression.
Which one of the following statements is true about normal EEG?
Select one:
1. The normal dominant alpha rhythm is usually achieved by 8-10 years old
2. Closing the eyes usually abolishes the dominant alpha rhythm.
3. Ongoing delta activity when awake is almost always abnormal in the adult
4. Beta activity is almost always abnormal in the adult
5. The dominant alpha rhythm is seen in the Fronto-temporal region.
Ongoing delta activity when awake is almost always abnormal in the adult
The normal dominant alpha rhythm is usually achieved by 12-14 years old. The dominant alpha rhythm is
seen posteriorly in the occipito-parietal region. Opening the eyes, concentrating, arousal states and anxiety usually abolishes the dominant alpha rhythm. Ongoing delta activity is almost always abnormal in the adult
Some Beta activity is seen in most adults, predominantly pre-central. Small amounts of theta activity are normal in adults.
Which of the following is a posterior pituitary hormone?
Select one:
1. Melatonin
2. Gonadotrophin
3. Prolactin
4. Testosterone
5. Oxytocin
Oxytocin
Vasopressin (ADH - antidiuretic hormone) and oxytocin are peptides differing from each other in only two
amino acids in their sequences. Both are synthesized in the supraoptic nuclei and paraventricular nuclei of
the hypothalamus. (posterior pituitary hormones)
An EEG showing high amplitude repetitive bilaterally synchronous symmetrical polyphasic sharp wave and
slow wave complexes, which occur every 4-15 seconds are characteristic of
Select one:
1. Neurosyphilis
2. Creutzfeldt Jacob disease
3. Herpes simplex encephalitis
4. Sub acute sclerosing pan encephalitis
5. Absence seizures
Sub acute sclerosing pan encephalitis
CJD-Periodic stereotyped discharges in the EEG at a rate of about 1 per second Herpes simplex
encephalitis-episodic discharges recurring every 1-3 seconds with variable focal waves over the temporal
areas. Neurosyphilis- non-specific increase in slow waves occurring diffusely over the scalp. Absence
seizures-multiple spike and slow wave complexes, Regular 3 Hz Complexes.
K complexes during sleep EEG are seen during
Select one:
1. Stage 3 sleep
2. Stage 4 sleep
3. Stage 2 sleep
4. Stage 1 sleep
5. REM sleep
Stage 2 sleep
The K-Complex is a phasic transient EEG activity that occurs around once every 2-3 minutes during stage 2
non-REM sleep. In REM sleep, the K-Complex cannot be elicited even by an external stimulus.
Mrs. X is a patient with bipolar affective disorder with secondary amenorrhea. The investigation to be done
is
Select one:
1. Serum testosterone levels
2. FSH and LH levels
3. Thyroid levels
4. Pregnancy test
5. Serum prolactin levels
Pregnancy test
The most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea is pregnancy. Also, anticonvulsants used in bipolar
disorder can reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives
What percentage of epileptic patients will have normal EEG between attacks?
Select one:
1. 70-90%
2. 1-2%
3. 10-15%
4. 30-50%
5. 5-10%
30-50%
The value of the EEG is that it can suggest an abnormal function in the presence of normal structure. 10-
15% of normal individuals show some abnormality of the EEG. 30-50% of epileptic patients will have normal
EEG between attacks.