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Neurophys- all together Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of LMNs?

A

Neurons that connect the CNS with effector organs, including muscles and glands.

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2
Q

What is the definition of UMNs?

A

Neurons that participate in initiation/regulation of voluntary movement and are located ENTIRELY within the CNS.

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3
Q

What are the functions of LMNs?

A
  • They are the final pathway for all motor activity of the NS, responsible for reflexes and carrying info.
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4
Q

What are the functions of UMNs?

A

REGULATION
- Initiation of voluntary activity of motor system
- Maintenance of muscle tone in postural muscles
- Control of muscular activity associated with visceral functions, such as respiration, urination and cardiovascular functions.

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5
Q

Are ascending pathways sensory or motor?

A

Sensory

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6
Q

Are descending pathways sensory or motor?

A

Motor

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7
Q

Where are the cell bodies of LMNs?

A

Either in the grey matter of the ventral horn or the brainstem for cranial nerve nuclei

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8
Q

Where are the cell bodies of UMNs?

A

In the CNS!

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9
Q

What are the 6 major regions of the CNS?

A

SC, medulla, pons, midbrain, diencephalon and telencephalon.

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10
Q

What is sometimes named as the seventh brain region?

A

The cerebellum

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11
Q

What brain regions make up the brainstem?

A

Medulla, pons and midbrain

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12
Q

What brains regions make up the forebrain?

A

Diencephalon and telecephalon

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13
Q

What is the normal function of the cerebral cortex?

A

Conscious thought

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14
Q

What occurs with cerebral cortes dysfunction?

A

Unconsciousness, depression and seizures

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15
Q

What is the normal function of the motor cortex?

A

Planning and initiation of movement

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16
Q

What occurs with dysfunction of motor cortex?

A

Paralysis

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17
Q

What is the normal function of thalamus?

A

Integration of neural pathways

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18
Q

What occurs with dysfunction of thalamus?

A

Behavioural changes, satiety/eating disorders, damage to motor/sensory tracts

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19
Q

What is the normal function of the hypothalamus?

A

Homeostasis, integration

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20
Q

What occurs with dysfunction of the hypothalamus?

A

Narcolepsy, endocrine/limbic dysfunction

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21
Q

What is the normal function of the limbic system?

A

Behaviour, emotions

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22
Q

What occurs with limbic system dysfunction?

A

Psychosis, addictive/repetitive behaviours, stress/anxiety

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23
Q

What is the normal function of the brainstem?

A

CN nuclei, ANS nuclei, reticular formation, axon tracts

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24
Q

What occurs with dysfunction of the brainstem?

A

Abnormal CN function, autonomic dysfunction, depression, abnormal motor function

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25
Q

What is the normal function of the cerebellum?

A

Coordination/correction of movements

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26
Q

What occurs with cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Hypermetria/dysmetria and ataxia

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27
Q

What is a myotome?

A

The muscle or muscle group innervated by one spinal nerve

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28
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

The area of skin innervated by one spinal nerve

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29
Q

Sensory neurons are located in —- along the spinal cord.

A

Dorsal root ganglia

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30
Q

The sensory portion of the PNS is classified on the basis of what?

A

The location of dendritic zones in the body, the origin of the impulse.

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31
Q

Where is the dentritic zone from somatic afferent system?

A

On or near the surface of the body- receive stimulation from the environment

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32
Q

Where is the dendritic zone for the visceral afferent system?

A

In the viscera of the body, stimulated by changes in the internal environment

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33
Q

Where is the dendritic zone for the proprioception afferent system?

A

Dendritic zones in this system respond to changes in position information from the limbs, body, head and neck.

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34
Q

The motor or efferent portion of the PNS is classified on the basis of what?

A

Where the LMN terminates

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35
Q

What nerves are included in the GSA system?

A

CNV and all spinal nerves

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36
Q

What nerves are included in the SSA system?

A

Vision: CNII
Hearing: CNVIII

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37
Q

What nerves are included in the GVA system?

A

CNVII, IX X–> head
CNX and splanchnic branches of spinal nerves –> body

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38
Q

What nerves are included in the SVA system?

A

Taste: CNVII, IX, X
Olfaction: CNI

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39
Q

What nerves are included in the GPA system?

A

All spinal nerves and CNV

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40
Q

What nerves are included in the SPA system?

A

Vestibular system: CNVIII

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41
Q

What nerves are included in the GSE system?

A

All nerves except CNI, II and VIII

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42
Q

What nerves are included in the GVE system?

A

All spinal nerves, CNIII (symp and parasymp innervation of the eye), CNVII, IX and X.

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43
Q

Somatic afferent system detects changes in external environment. (T/F?)

A

TRUE

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44
Q

Visceral afferent system detects changes in external environment. (T/F?)

A

FALSE- it detects changes in internal environment

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45
Q

Proprioception afferent system detects:

A

Changes in position info of the limbs, trunk and head and neck

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46
Q

The somatic efferent system innervates —–?

A

Skeletal muscle- coordinates voluntary movement

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47
Q

The visceral efferent system innervates———?

A

Cardiac and smooth muscles, blood vessels and glandular tissues- coordinates involuntary movement/regulation–> ANS.

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48
Q

Define a NT (4 points)

A
  • Must be present in the presynaptic neuron
  • Must be released in response to presynaptic depolarisation
  • Release is usually Ca 2+ dependent
  • Specific receptors must be present on post-synaptic cell
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49
Q

Mechanisms of post-synaptic excitation (cell is becoming more positive)

A
  • Opening of Na channels
  • Suppression of Cl and K channels
  • EPS receptors increase in number and localisation
  • Suppression of inhibitory receptors
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50
Q

Mechanisms of post-synaptic inhibition

A
  • Increased Cl conductance
  • Increased K conductance
  • IPS receptors increase in number and localisation
  • Inhibition of cellular metabolism (< metabotropic response)
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51
Q

What effect do Cl and K channels have on the potential of the cell?

A

Cl channels let Cl INTO the cell to keep it -ve, and K channels let K OUT to keep it -ve. The more of these channels are open the harder it will be for Na to create an AP. The more of these are closed the bigger the effect of Na

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52
Q

What is the NT ACh’s post-synaptic effect?

A

Excitatory

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53
Q

What are the precursors for ACh?

A

Choline and acetyl CoA

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54
Q

What is the removal mechanism for ACh?

A

AChEase (acetylcholinesterase)

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55
Q

Glutamate has an inhibitory post-synaptic effect. (T/F?)

A

FALSE- it is excitatory

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56
Q

What is the prescursor for glutamate?

A

Glutamine

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57
Q

What is the removal mechanism for glutamate?

A

Transporters

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58
Q

What is the most important excitatory NT in the brain?

A

Glutamate

59
Q

What are the most important inhibitory NTs in the brain?

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (cerebrum) and glycine (spinal cord)

60
Q

Gamma-amino butyric acid has an excitatory post-synaptic effect. (T/F?)

A

FALSE- it is inhibitory

61
Q

What is the precursor for GABA?

A

Glutamate

62
Q

What is the removal mechanism for GABA?

A

Transporters

63
Q

What is the post-synaptic effect of glycine?

A

It is inhibitory

64
Q

Serine is the precursor for glycine (T/F?)

A

TRUE

65
Q

What is the removal mechanism for glycine?

A

Transporters

66
Q

What chemicals does the term “catecholamines” include?

A

Ad, NAd and dopamine

67
Q

What post-synaptic effect do catecholamines have?

A

Excitatory

68
Q

Tyrosine is the precursor for catecholamines (T/F?)

A

TRUE

69
Q

What are the removal mechanisms for catecholamines?

A

Transporters, MAO, COMT

70
Q

What are MAO and COMT?

A

Enzymes involved in metabolising catecholamine neurotransmitters.

71
Q

What is the systematic name of serotonin? (Abbr. 5-HT)

A

5- hydroxytryptamine

72
Q

Serotonin has an excitatory post-synaptic effect (T/F?)

A

TRUE

73
Q

What is the precursor for serotonin?

A

Tryptophan

74
Q

What are the removal mechanisms for serotonin?

A

Transporters, MAO

75
Q

What does MAO stand for?

A

Monoamine oxidase

76
Q

The post-synaptic effect of histamine is inhibitory (T/F?)

A

FALSE- it is excitatory

77
Q

What is the pre-cursor for histamine?

A

Histidine

78
Q

What is the removal mechanism for histamine?

A

Transporters

79
Q

What is the post-synaptic effect of ATP?

A

Excitatory

80
Q

What is the precursor for ATP?

A

ADP

81
Q

What is the removal mechanism for ATP?

A

Hydrolysis to AMP and adenosine

82
Q

What type of neurotransmitter includes ACh, glutamate, GABA, glycine, catecholamines, serotonin, histamine and ATP?

A

Small molecular weight NTs

83
Q

What are the post-synaptic effects of neuropeptides?

A

Excitatory and inhibitory

84
Q

What are the precursors for neuropeptides?

A

AAs

85
Q

What is the removal mechanism for neuropeptides?

A

Proteases

86
Q

What is the post-synaptic effects of endocannabinoids?

A

Inhibits inhibition

87
Q

What are the precursors for endocannabinoids?

A

Membrane lipids

88
Q

What is the removal mechanism for endocannabinoids?

A

Hydrolysis

89
Q

What are the post-synaptic effects of NO?

A

Excitatory and inhibitory

90
Q

What is the precursor for NO?

A

Arginine

91
Q

What is the removal mechanism for NO?

A

Spontaneous oxidation

92
Q

Where are small molecule NTs synthesised?

A

In the nerve terminal

93
Q

Small molecule NTs mediate very slow synaptic action (T/F?)

A

FALSE- they mediate rapid synaptic action

94
Q

Where are neuropeptides synthesised?

A

In the cell body

95
Q

What is the speed of synaptic action of neuropeptides compared to the small molecule NTs?

A

Neuropeptides have slower ongoing synaptic function

96
Q

What is different about the degradation of small molecule NTs and neuropeptides once they a re released from the pre-synaptic membrane?

A

Small molecule NTs are broken down into their precursors which then diffuse back into the cell. Neuropeptides diffuse away from the terminal and are broken down by proteolytic enzymes.

97
Q

What happens when there is a low frequency of stimulation of the nerve?

A

There is a localised increase in Ca concentration, which results in the preferential release of small molecule NTs.

98
Q

What happens when there is a high frequency of stimulation of the nerve?

A

There is a more diffuse increase in Ca concentration, which results in the release of both types of NTs; small molecule NTs in small clear-core vesicles and neuropeptides in large dense core vesicles.

99
Q

What effect does histamine have on the body?

A

Histamine results in a strong vasodilation, which results in a decrease in BP.

100
Q

What is the difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors?

A

Ionotropic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, and work very rapidly, about 0.1ms.
Metabotropic channels are G protein-coupled receptors, and are slower, taking about 400ms (in the heart).

101
Q

All skeletal muscles are cholinergic in response and have direct cholinergic neurons innervating them. (T/F?)

A

TRUE

102
Q

Dopamine is capable of activating both G-protein coupled (metabotropic) and ionotropic receptors. (T/F?)

A

FALSE- Dopamine acts EXCLUSIVELY by activating G-protein coupled (metabotropic) receptors.

103
Q

What happens to excess dopamine?

A

It is deaminated by MAO in both the PRE and POST-synaptic membrane

104
Q

What type of receptor are ALL of the histamine receptors?

A

G-protein linked

105
Q

Of the three receptor types that are recognised for ATP, how many are G-protein linked?

A

Two- one is ionotropic

106
Q

Only one neuropeptide can be released from a single vesicle. (T/F?)

A

FALSE- more than one NP may be released from a single vesicle

107
Q

What makes a prepropeptide turn into a propeptide?

A

A prepropeptide has a signal sequence on the end, and once this is cleaved it becomes a propeptide.

108
Q

Propeptides can give rise to more than one peptide NT. (T/F?)

A

TRUE

109
Q

Nicotinic receptors are ionotropic ACh receptors (T/F?)

A

TRUE

110
Q

How many subtypes of muscarinic receptors (mAChR) are there?

A

5

111
Q

Where are the mAChR expressed?

A

the striatum and other forebrain regions.
These inhibit dopamine mediated motor effects

112
Q

Glutamate can cross the B/B barrier. (T/F?)

A

FALSE- it must synthesised locally from mitochondrial conversion alpha-ketoglutarate (which comes from the CAC)

113
Q

What does EAATs stand for?

A

Excitatory Amino Acid Transporters

114
Q

What is the function of EAATs and where are they located?

A

They are located on the membranes on both neurons and glial cells. They mediate delivery and uptake of glutamine from glial cells to neurons

115
Q

What is VGLUT and what is its function?

A

VGLUT is a vesicular glutamate transporter- which loads glutamate into neuronal vesicles

116
Q

The NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) is an ionotropic receptor at which glutamate is excitatory. (T/F?)

A

TRUE

117
Q

Where is GABA most common?

A

Local circuit interneurons and cerebellum

118
Q

GABA is removed from the synaptic cleft by specific transporters known as………?

A

GAT- GABA transporter

119
Q

GABA is loaded into neuronal vesicles by which transporter?

A

VIATT- Vesicular Inhibitory Amino Acid Transporter

120
Q

There are three types of GABA receptors, GABAa, GABAb and GABAc. Which two are ionotropic?

A

A and C

121
Q

Which G protein links the GABAb receptor?

A

GI/O

122
Q

The beta gamma subunit of the GABAb receptor blocks two Ca channels, and activates KIR3.1, which does what?

A

The opening of the KIR3.1 means K rushes in and brings the potential further away from the threshold. It causes hyperpolarisation of the post-synaptic membrane.

123
Q

The glycine receptor is a gated channel, gated by which ion?

A

Cl-

124
Q

NO is made by what enzyme?

A

NOS- NO synthase

125
Q

NO had a rapid offset. What happens to it?

A

It is quickly oxidised or bound to Hb

126
Q

How is NO modulated?

A

By regulating NOS function

127
Q

NOS has different isoforms. (T/F?)

A

TRUE

128
Q

NO is not limited to synapses, as it can diffuse between cells. (T/F?)

A

TRUE

129
Q

Where are ependymal cells located?

A

These coat choroid plexus and ventricles of the brain

130
Q

Schwann cells are capable of phagocytic activity. (T/F?)

A

TRUE

131
Q

What is the [glucose] and [protein] in CSF compared to plasma?

A

CSF has lower concentrations of both glucose and proteins. The protein concentration is generally very low, so if there are proteins present this generally indicates a problem.

132
Q

What are the [Na] and [Cl] in CSF compared to plasma?

A

CSF has higher concentrations of both Na and Cl.

133
Q

What are the [Ca] and [K] in CSF compared to plasma?

A

CSF has lower concentrations of both K and Ca compared to plasma.

134
Q

The spinal cord is shorter than the spinal canal. (T/F?)

A

TRUE- this means that the nerves have to travel a bit to find their foramina to exit.

135
Q

How are LMNs distributed to muscles?

A

Via peripheral (spinal) nerve

136
Q

Where are the cell bodies of LMNs located?

A

Grey matter of ventral horn

137
Q

The LMNs are thick and heavily myelinated. (T/F?)

A

TRUE

138
Q

Where are the cell bodies of neurons innervating axial musculature, such as postural trunk muscles, located compared to those innervating appendicular (limb) musculature?

A

Those innervating axial musculature are located medially within the ventral horn, whereas those innervating appendicular musculature are located progressively more laterally.

139
Q

What is the definition of pain?

A

An unpleasant sensory or emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage (or described in terms of such damage)

140
Q

What is the signal transduction pathway for sour taste?

A

Presence of H+ ions (acid)–> Modulates K+ channels–> modifies IC [K+]–> depolarisation–> influx of Ca2+–> NT release

141
Q

What is the signal transduction pathway for salty taste?

A

Presence of Na+ ions (salt)–> opening of Na+ channels –> influx of Na+–> depolarisation–> NT release

142
Q

What is the signal transduction pathway for sweet taste?

A

Binding of organic sugars to receptor (dimer of T1R1 and T1R3)–> activation of G-protein gustducin–> stimulates production of cGMP and cAMP–> phosphorylation of K+ channels–>K+ channels CLOSE–> < IC [K+] –> depolarisation –> Ca2+ influx –> NT release. OR the phospholipase Cbeta2 pathway –> Ca2+ release from ER

143
Q
A

Neurophys (6 decks)

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