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BRS > Neurology And Neuroscience > Flashcards

Neurology And Neuroscience Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most abundant cell type in the mammalian brain

A

Astrocytes

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2
Q

What are the branches of axons called

A

Collaterals

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3
Q

Name 5 cell types other than neurons found in the CNS/PNS

A
  • Schwann cells
  • oligodendrocytes
  • Ependyma
  • microglia
  • astrocytes
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4
Q

Functions of the cerebellum

A

Posture, balance, motor coordination

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5
Q

Name 3 types of multipolar neurones

A 
Pyramidal cells (pyramid shaped cell body)
Purkinje cells (GABA neurons found in cerebellum)
Golgi cells (GABA neurons found in cerebellum)
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6
Q

Describe a multipolar neuron

A

Multiple projections from cell body - one is an axon, the rest are dendrites

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7
Q

Describe a pseudo unipolar neuron

A

One axon projection which divides into 2

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8
Q

How can you distinguish axons from dendrites

A

Axons are myelinated

Dendrites are not myelinated

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9
Q

Function of dendrites

A

Receive signals from other neurons

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10
Q

Describe resting charge of neuronal cell

A

Negative charge inside compared to outside

Resting membrane potential of -70 mV

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11
Q

Why do people with multiple sclerosis get movement and visual problems

A

Multiple sclerosis results in the loss of the myelin from the axons of neurons
Visual problems: neurons in eye can’t transmit signals to brain fast enough
Movement problems: neurons in brain can’t transmit signals to muscles fast enough

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12
Q

What are the three types of synaptic organisation

A

Axodendritic synapse: between axon (presynaptic terminal) of one neuron and dendrites of another neuron
Axosomatic synapse: between axon (presynaptic terminal) of one neuron and soma (cell body) of another neuron
Axoaxonic synapse: between axon (presynaptic terminal) of one neuron and axon of another neuron

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13
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum, what is its location function and effect

A 
Location = surround myofibrils in sarcoplasm (inside of muscle membrane)
Function= stores Ca2+ and releases them when sarcolemma is depolarised 
Effect = myofibril and muscle contraction
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14
Q

What are T tubules

A

Continuous with the sarcoplasm and closely connected to sarcoplasmic reticulum and myofibrils.
When action potential depolarises sarcoplasm, it goes through T tubules to depolarise the myofibrils- causes muscle contraction

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15
Q

Describe sequence of events from action potential in pre synaptic terminal to muscle contraction

A

AP is propagated along membrane by Na+ and K+ voltage gated channels
When AP reaches the pre synaptic membrane, it causes Ca2+ channels to open and Ca2+ influx into the axon. This causes the vesicles contains Ach to fuse with the membrane and release the Ach into synapse
Ach diffuses across synapse and binds to nicotinic Ach receptors on skeletal muscle, causing influx of Na+ which depolarises the sarcolemma - called the End Plate Potential (EPP)
The AP then travels down T tubules which are continuous with the sarcolemma to the myofibrils which are covered by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
This causes Ca2+ ions to enter the cell thriugh L type calcium channels. They then bind to Ryanodine receotors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum
This causes release of Ca2+ by the sarcoplasmic reticulum which causes the muscle to contract - bind to Troponin C on actin filament, causing Tropomyosin to move and expose actin binding sites. Mysoin binds to actin, muscke fibres can shorten —> muscle contraction

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16
Q

What happens when only a small amount of Ach is released into neuromuscular junction

A

Get a miniature EPP and muscle movement instead of full contraction

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17
Q

What is Botulism

A

Botulinum toxin irreversibly disrupts stimulation-induced release from presynaptic terminal Ach - prevents vesicles fusing with presynaptic membrane

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18
Q

Name two autoimmune disorders of the neuromuscular junction

A

Myasthenia Gravis
Antibodies directed against nicotinic acetyl choline receptors causing them to degrade
Get fatigable muscle weakness (ie becomes worse with repetitive use) facial muscle weakness and droopy eyelids

Lambert-Eaton Myastenic syndrome (LEMS)
Antibodies directed against voltage gated calcium channels causing them to degrade
Get muscle weakness but not so much on the face

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19
Q

Which condition is described below
A 58 year old male presents with generalised fatigue and weakness. He has had
weight loss and difficulty raising his arms above his head. He has pelvic and
shoulder weakness and mild facial muscle weakness.

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenia syndrome

Similar presentation to myasthenia graves but mild facial muscle weakness suggests it’s LEMS

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20
Q

Main functions of parietal frontal temporal and occipital lobes

A

Frontal: executive actions - personality
Occipital: processing visual information
Temporal: contains important structures such as hippocampus (short term memory), amygdala (behaviour), Wernicke’s area (auditory perception and speech)
Parietal: somatic sensory cortex - processing tactile (touch) information

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21
Q

3 structures that make up brain stem in order going down

A

Midbrain Pons Medulla

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22
Q

Function of Astrocytes

A

Most common cells in mammalian brain
Structural role
Cell repair, neuronal maturation, neuronal plasticity, synapse formation

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23
Q

Function of oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells

A

Oligodendrocytes
- myelinate neurons of CNS
- one can myelinate many axons, there many projections from the cell body which can myelinate internodes of many neurons
Schwann cells
- myelinate neurons of PNS
- one can only myelinate one axon segment

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24
Q

Function of Microglia

A

Immune cells of CNS

similar to macrophages

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25
Q

Ependyma cells

A

Endothelial cells

Line fluid filled ventricles which regulate production and movement of cerebrospinal fluid

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26
Q

Flux meaning

A

Flux = The number of molecules
that cross a unit area per unit
of time (number of particles).
i.e. molecules.m-2.s-1

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27
Q

What is overshoot

A

Membrane potential becomes positive

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28
Q

Describe how the changes in membrane potential affect the ion channels

A

Depolarisation: ion channel opens and allows flow of ions through
Sustained depolarisation: ion channel is inactivated - no more ions can flow through
Hyper-polarisation/re polarisation: ion channel is closed

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29
Q

What is the refractory period

A

The period after the peak of the action potential is reached when the Na+ channels are inactivated and closed. During this period they cannot be reactivated and opened so the cell cannot be re stimulated

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30
Q

What is the relative refractory period

A

Some Na+ channels have recovered from activation and reopened
But a stronger than normal stimulus is required to trigger an action potential

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31
Q

Does the decay of an AP happen quicker in smaller or larger neurone and why

A

Happens more quickly in a smaller neurone as the smaller diameter means that it has more resistance
Happens even quicker if the neurone is uninsulated as it would have no insulation

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32
Q

What are the three main factors that influence the

movement of ions across the membrane?

A

Concentration of the ion on both sides of the membrane,
the charge on the ion and the voltage across the
membrane.
The membrane potential

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33
Q

Why is the K+ equilibrium potential negative (e.g. -70mV)
and the Na* equilibrium potential positive(e.g. +40mV)
when both are positive ions?

A

More K* inside the cell than outside so tend to flow out of
the cell, while more Na* outside the cell than in, therefore
tend to flow into the cell. A potential of -70mV is needed
to attract K* and stop net outward flow, while a positive
charge of +40mV is needed to repel Na* from entering the
cell.

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34
Q

What factors influence the speed of propagation of an action potential
along an axon?

A

Larger diameter axons have lower resistance, so ions move faster
conduction velocity is proportional to the square root of the axon
diameter.
There is a linear relationship between conduction velocity and myelin
thickness

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35
Q

What is passive propagation

A

There is a stimulus and further and further down the axon the voltage measured decreases - voltage decays away exponentially down the axon
(The speed of the decay depends on myelination and axon diameter)

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36
Q

Which types of compounds can opioid receptors respond to

A 
Exogenous compounds eg heroin/morphine
Endogenous compounds (produced by body) eg endorphins
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37
Q

What are 3 reasons people take heroine. For each effect name the part of the brain contains the opioid receptors that the heroine acts on

A

Analgesia (pain relief) - Peri-aqueductal region
Euphoria - Ventral tegmental region
Cough suppression - solitary nucleus

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38
Q

4 main protein targets for drugs

A

Enzymes
Ion channels
Transport proteins
Receptors

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39
Q

2 types of actions of drugs on a target

A

Enhance activation - stimulate an effect

Prevent activation - block an effect from being produced

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40
Q

Atorvastatin: what is its target type and what type of effect does it have in the target?

A

Target = enzyme
Action = prevents activation
(inhibits hmg coA reductase)
Lowers cholesterol

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41
Q

Amlodipine: what is its target type and what type of effect does it have in the target?

A

Target = ion channel
Action: prevents activation
(Blocks Ca2+ channels)
Treats high blood pressure and coronary heart disease

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42
Q

Salbutamol: what is its target type and what type of effect does it have in the target?

A

Target = receptor
Action = enhances activation
(Activates/Stimulates beta 2 receptors)
Is a short acting beta 2 adrenergic receptor agonist which causes relaxation of airway smooth muscle: treatment for asthma

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43
Q

Citalopram: what is its target type and what type of effect does it have in the target?

A

Target = transporter protein
Action = prevents activation
(Blocks serotonin re uptake protein)
Treats low mood and panic attacks

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44
Q

Noradrenaline, serotonin and dopamine all have similar structures so their receptors also have similar structures. However, why might selectivity be more important for drugs than for endogenous compounds?

A

Endogenous compounds like neurotransmitters (domaine, serotonin, noradrenaline) are released from pre synaptic terminal and travel across v short distance of the synapse to post synaptic terminal
So they are very specifically delivered to their drug target, making the selectivity and fact that they are similarly structured (so could theoretically bind to wrong target) less relevant or important.

Drugs are usually taken orally and travel in the blood I order to be distributed to the tissue where they produce the desired effect
But due to their method of administration and transmission they will come into contact with all tissue types

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45
Q

What is an adverse effect

A

Side effect with negative health consequences

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46
Q

How is drug safety linked to dose

A

-The safest drugs are the ones where there is a large difference in the dose required to produce a therapeutic effect and the dose required to produce an adverse effect
- as you start to increase the dose, the side effects usually increase as you lose selectivity.
Eg Pramipexole (dopamine agonist - mimics effects of dopamine)
As you increase the dose you can start to see noradrenaline and serotonin side effects too (as dopamine and therefore Pramipexole have similar structure to serotonin and noradrenaline) so bind to their receptors - if there’s enough Pramipexole, enough will bind to generate these side effects

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47
Q

2 types of side effects

A 
Off target side effects 
Eg Pramipexole (dopamine agonist) activating serotonin and noradrenaline receptors

Unwanted effects on the same target
Eg might want only the domaine effects in a certain part of the brain by taking Pramipexole, but will get effects in all parts of the body and brain that have the dopamine target as the Pramipexole will act in them all
Eg may only want the cough suppression from heroin but will get euphoria and analgesia too as heroin acts all the opioid receptors in all parts of the brain

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48
Q

What are the main 3 steps of signal transmission

A

Information reception
Information integration (cell body integrates all the different signals it receives from different neurons)
Information transmission - rapid transfer

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49
Q

3 main types of molecules which can be neurotransmitters

A

1) Amino acids
Eg glutamate, GABA, glycine

2) amines
Eg Noradrenaline
Dopamine

3) neuroproteins
Eg opioid peptides - endorphins, enkephalins

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50
Q

What is the main inhibitory and excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain

A 
Excitatory = glutamate 
Inhibitory = GABA
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51
Q

Is glycine an excitatory or inhibitor amino acid

A

Inhibitory

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52
Q

2 ways of inactivating transmitter after signal has been transmitted across synapse

A

1) enzymatic degradation within the synaptic cleft

2) re uptake of neurotransmitters back 8 to pre synaptic terminal and packaging into vesicles - reuse

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53
Q

Describe the process of neurotransmitter release

A

Membrane depolarisation
Ca2+ influx
Causes the docking (mediated by vesicular proteins) of vesicles
Followed by priming of vesicles
Followed by fusion of vesicles with membrane
Vesicles release neurotransmitters into synapse by exocytosis
(Process of fusion an exocytosis is mediated by vesicular proteins, proteins in cytoplasm, proteins on membrane)
(Electrochemical transduction is the process up to here from Ca2+ influx and lasts 200 us)
The vesicles are then budded (pinched off) and recycled/reused

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54
Q

What are SNARE proteins, give examples, and what is their role

A

They are vesicular proteins eg Synapsin, Synaptobrevin, SNAP 25
They are important in mediating process of exocytosis release of neurotransmitter

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55
Q

How does rapid release of neurotransmitters in response to Ca2+ influx happen

A

Vesicle docking, priming, fusion and neurotransmitter exocytosis are mediated by vesicular proteins, cytoplasm proteins and proteins on membrane

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56
Q

What are neurotoxins and give some examples of how they work

A

Toxins which interfere with synaptic vesicles and neurotransmitter release
Eg can break down vesicles whilst they’re still in presynaptic terminal
Eg can can cause excessive neurotransmitter release and subsequent depletion of neurotransmitters in pre synaptic nerve terminal
Eg can inhibit neurotransmitter release

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57
Q

Describe the actions of botulinum toxin as a neurotoxin

A

Made of 2 chains (bi-chained) and acts on cholinergic nerves
One chain binds to presynaptic membrane and one chain penetrates the membrane and cleaves the peptide bonds in the vesicular proteins which inactivates the vesicles - preventing docking, fusion and release of Ach
This causes flaccid paralysis (paralysis due to complete muscle relaxation)
In high conc, it can inhibit all cholinergic transmission and cause respiratory arrest

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58
Q

Describe the effects of Alpha Latrotoxin as a neurotoxin

A

From black widow spiders
Acts in cholinergic nerves
Stimulates massive release of Acetylcholine until the nerve is completely depleted of Ach
Causes muscular paralysis

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59
Q

Describe effects of Zn2+ endopeptidases

A

Inhibit neurotransmitter release
Eg Tetanus toxin produced by C tetani
Inhibits releases of 2 main inhibitory neurotransmitters in CNS: glycine and GABA
Causes spasms and paralysis

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60
Q

2 things that release of neurotransmitters is dependent on

A

ATP

Ca2+

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61
Q

What are Convulsions

A

When muscles contract and relax quickly causing uncontrollable shaking of the body - seizure activity

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62
Q

What is the telencephalon also known as

A

Cerebral hemisphere

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63
Q

Fucntion of the parietal lobe

A

Somatic sensory cortex responsible for processing tactile info

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64
Q

3 main structures of the brainstem in descending order

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla

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65
Q

Where is the brainstem and what is its overall function

A

Dorsal region of CNS

roles in motor coordination, balance and posture

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66
Q

What are the functions of oligodendrocytes and schwann cells and whats the difference between them

A

Bith are myelin producing cells
Oligodendrocytes work in CNS and each one is capable of myelinating a number of axons
Schwann cells work in PNS and each on meylinates only one axon segment

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67
Q

What is a microglial cell

A

Performs immune function in CNS

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68
Q

What is ependymal cell

A

Epithelial cells that line the fluid filled ventricles regulating the production and movement of csf

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69
Q

What are the relative conc of sodium potassium chloride and calcium ions extra cellular vs intracellular

A

Higher Na+/Cl-/Ca2+ extracellulary

Higher K+ intracellularly

70
Q

What is function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and what effect does it have

A

Ca2+ storage › Ca2+ release following sarcolemma depolarisation
Ca2+ > myofibril contraction & muscle contraction

71
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis and what does it cause?

A

Autoimmune disorder: antibodies directed against ACh receptor
Causes fatigable weakness (becomes more pronounced with repetitive use)

72
Q

What does the Goldman Hodgkin Katz equation calculate

A

The membrane potential of the cell if the following is known

  • concentration of ion in cell
  • concentration of ion outside of cell
  • permeability of membrane to that ion at any one point, to those concentrations
73
Q

What is an absolute refractory period

A

Period where inactivation gate of VGSC is closed and so a new action potential cannot be triggered

74
Q

What is the relative refractory period

A

Period of time where you need a stronger than normal stimulus to trigger another action potential
Due to hyperpolarisation, more of a depolarisation is required to reach threshold and then cause another action potential

75
Q

How is an action potential an example of positive feedback

A

Once the depolarisation occurs so that it is above the threshold potential, VGSC open
Increasing permeability which causes an influx of Na+
This causes more depolarisation repeating the cycle of opening VGSC to increase Na+

76
Q

What does the propagation distnace and velocity of the AP along the axon depend on

A

Myelin thickness - Linear relationship between conduction velocity and myelin thickness
Diameter of axon - Larger diameter, faster travelling of action potential due to less resistance (conduction velocity proportional to square root of axon diameter)

77
Q

What are the four main classes if proteins that drugs usually target

A

Receptors
Enzymes
Ion channels
Transport proteins

78
Q

How can you determine the most safe drug based on the dosage of the drug

A

The safest drugs are those where there is a large difference between the dose required to induce the desired effct and teh dise required to induce side effcts/adverse effects

79
Q

Which kind of effect increases as dosage of a drug increases

A

Off target effects

80
Q

As the dose increases , what is the effect on the selectivity of that drug

A

Decreases

81
Q

What class of protein does atorvostatin act on

A

Enzyme - HMG CoA reductase

82
Q

What class of protein does citalopram act on

A

Transport protein - serotonin re uptake protein

83
Q

What class of protein does salbutamol act on

A

Receptor - beta 2 adrenergic receptor in lung

84
Q

What class of protein does Amlodipine act on

A

Ion channel - calcium channel

85
Q

What is an adverse effect

A

A side effect has negative health consequences

86
Q

What is the best defintion of pharmacology

A

A chemical substance that interacts with a specific target within a biological system to produce a physiological effect

87
Q

List the 4 characteristics of synaptic transmission

A

Rapid timescale
Diversity
Plasticity
Learning and memory

88
Q

What are the 3 steps that occur when a dendrite of one neurone receives an electrical impulse from another neurone

A

Information RECEPTION at dendrites
Information INTEGRATION at the soma
Information’s RAPID TRANSFER (action potential) - impulse is passed along the axon towards the synaptic terminals

89
Q

Where is glycine most active and is it excitatory or inhibitory

A

Spinal chord and brainstem

Inhibitory

90
Q

What 2 things does neurotransmitter release require

A

Calcium influx

Rapid transdcution

91
Q

What type of proteins on the vesicle and presynaptic membrane enable fusion and exocytosis

A

Snare proteins (vesicular proteins)

92
Q

What are vesicular proteins targets for

A

Neurotoxins

93
Q

What do Zn2+ dependent endopeptidases do

A

Inhibits transmitter release

94
Q

What does tetanus toxin cause and what bacteria produces it

A

Causes spasms and paralysis as it inhibits GABA and glycine (both inhibitory in CNS)
Made by clostridium tetani

95
Q

What type of responses do ion channel linked receptors mediate

A

All fast excitatory and inhibitory transmission

96
Q

What type of responses do G protein coupled receptors mediate

A

Slower transmissions than ion channel linked receptors

97
Q

Give examples of responses where ion channel linked receptors are used

A

CNS - glutamate and gaba

NMJ - Ach at nicotinic receptors

98
Q

Give examples of responses where G protein coupled receptors are used

A

CNS
PNS
- Ach at muscarinic receptors, dopamine, noradrenaline, serotonin and neuropeptidez

99
Q

What does an EEG (electroencephalography) measure

A

Elcetrical activity in the brain

100
Q

What happpens when glutamate is in glial cells

A

Glutamate is enzymatically modified by glutamine synthetase to glutamine, which can then be pumped back to the pre synaptic terminal

101
Q

What can abnormal cell firing associated with excess glutamate lead to

A

Seizures

Spikes on EEG

102
Q

Which drugs facilitate GABA transmission

A 
Barbiturates 
Benzodiazepines 
Steroids
Convulsants 
Zn 2+ 
Ethanol

Acronym (BBC SEZn)

103
Q

What properties do drugs facilitating GABA transmission have

A

Antiepileptic
Anxiolytic
Sedative
Muscle relaxant

104
Q

What effect does the PNS and SNS have on the liver

A

PNS - increased bile release

SNS - increased glucose release

105
Q

Which of the PNS and SNS controls the majority of the blood vessels

A

SNS

106
Q

Where is the autonomic sensory (afferent) information relayed to

A

Hypothalamus

107
Q

If there is high blood pressure, how is this information relayed to the relevant visceral motors and which of the PNS and SNS are switched on

A

Visceral sensory ~ baroreceptors detect increase in pressure
Signal sent to the PNS to be sent to CNS
Signal sent from CNS to PNS to visceral motors
Parasympathetic nervous system switched on to reduce blood flow
Sympathetic nervous system switched off to prevent further increase in blood flow

108
Q

Where do the visceral motor nuclei originate

A

Hypothalamus

109
Q

What do autonomic neurons generally consist of

A

Two neurons - pre ganglionic and post ganglionic fibres

Ganglion - nerve cell cluster or group of nerve cell bodies

110
Q

In PNS/SNS is pre ganglionic nerve fibre shorter or longer than the post ganglionic fibres

A

PNS - longer

SNS - shorter

111
Q

What is the difference between somatic and visceral nerves

A

Somatic nerves - innvervate skeletal muscles

Visceral nerves - innervate trunk organs, vessels and glands

112
Q

What is disinhibition

A

Tissues are innovated by both arms of the autonomic nervous system (parasympathetic and sympathetic) but at any given time one arm is dominant

113
Q

What is the micturition reflex

A
  1. PRESSURE BUILDS UP IN THE BLADDER
  2. AS THE BLADDER FILLS > MORE IMPULSES
    RECEIVED
  3. THRESHOLD RECEIVE AND THE BODY MUST NOW
    DO SOMETHING
  4. PARASYMPATHETIC SWITCHES ON
    SYMPATHETIC RELAXES
  5. DETRUSOR CONTRACTS
  6. INTERNAL SPHINCTER RELAXES
114
Q

What structures does the limbic lobe include

A

Amygdala
Hippocampus
Mamillary body
Cingulate gyrus

115
Q

What is the main function of the mamillary body

A

Recollective memory

116
Q

What is the main function of the cingulate gyrus

A

Processing emotions and behaviour regulation

117
Q

What functions is the limbic lobe concerned with

A

Learning, memory, motivation, emotions, reward

118
Q

Where can you find the insular cortex

A

Deep inside the lateral fissure

119
Q

What function is the insular cortex concerned with

A 
Visceral sensation 
Autonomic control 
Interoception
Auditory processing 
Visual-vestibular integration
120
Q

Difference between dura mater in brain and dura mater in soinal chord

A

In spinal chord, it only has meningeal layer

121
Q

Where is CSF produced

A

The choroid plexus of the lateral, 3rd and 4th ventricles

122
Q

Where does CSF occupy

A

The ventricular system and the subarachnoid space

123
Q

Where is CSF reabsored

A

Via Arachnoid villi into the superior sagittal sinus

124
Q

What are the functions of CSF

A

Protection of CNS/brain
Mechanical support for CNS/brain
Transport of nutrients and biochemical products

125
Q

Differences between plasma and CSF

A

CSF has lower pH, lower conc of glucose/protein/potassium than plasma
But same conc of sodium

126
Q

In the spinal chord which of the dorsal and ventral rootlets are sensory and motor

A

Dorsal rootlets: afferent (towards CNS), sensory

Ventral rootlets: efferent, motor

127
Q

What are the 12 spinal nerves

A 
Cervical - 8 (8 letters in cervical)
Thoracic - 12 
Lumbar - 5
Sacral - 5 
(5 letters in lumbar and sacral)  
Coccygeal -1
128
Q

What is the penumonic for afferent and efferent spinal neve

A 
SAME DAVE 
sensory afferent
motor efferent 
dorsal afferent
ventral efferent
129
Q

What donspinal nerves emerge through

A

Intervertebral formamina

130
Q

What is cauda equina

A

Space at bottom of spinal chord where nerves are clumped together
Due to discrepancy in length between spinal chord and spinal column
Aneasthetics/analgesics can be inserted with a needle here, or a needle can be inserted to remove CSF from the area

131
Q

What separates the frontal and parietal lobes

A

The central sulcus

132
Q

Where is the primary motor cortex found

A

In the pre central gyrus

133
Q

Where are the upper and lower moror neurons of the corticospinal tract found

A

Upper: primary motor cotex (in pre central gurus)
Lower: brainstem and spinal chord
- upper motor neurons synapse onto lower motor neurons in the brain stem if giung to muscles of head and neck, and onto lower motor neurons in the spinal chord if going to muscles below the neck

134
Q

Which part of the spinothalamic tract take info about crude touch and which part about pain and temperature

A

Ventral spinothalamic tract: crude touch

Lateral spinothalamic tract: temp and pain

135
Q

Describe spinal chord internal anatomy

A

Descending pathways (motor)
Dorsal corticospinal tract - motor
Ventral corticospinal tract - motor

Ascending pathways (sensory)
Dorsal column - vibration, fine touch, proprioception
Lateral spinothalamic tract - pain and temp
Ventral spinothalamic tract - crude touch

136
Q

Where do the third order neurones of the spinothalamic and dorsal tracts project to and from

A

Project from thalamus to somatosensory cortex in the post central gyrus

137
Q

What is a hemisection of the spinal cord

A

Injury leading to incomplete spinal cord lesion

138
Q

What are strange sensations and jerking movments of arm after a stroke a sign of?
And what is likely to happen if the consition is left untreated?

A

Active epileptic focus formed as a result of tissue damage from the stroke
Jerks are caused by propagation of discharge to arm area in primary motor cortex in frontal lobe

If left untreated, Seizures may spread across whole motor cortex or even propagate to otehr hemispheres and produce generalised seizures
Recurring seizures may also contribute to neuronal injury

139
Q

What is a dermatome

A

An area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

140
Q

What is a myotome

A

A group of muscles that is innervated by a single spinal nerve

141
Q

What do the sympathetic and parasympathetic innervate

A

Sympathetic innervates the viscera and the periphery (vasculature and sweat glands)
Parasympathetic innervates the viscera only

142
Q

What is the difference between a ganglion and nucleus

A

Ganglion is a collection of cell bodies outside the CNS

Nucleus is a collection of cell bodies in the CNS

143
Q

What is a plexus

A

A network of interconnecting nerves

144
Q

Where do the visceral efferent nerves synapse

A

In peripheral ganglion

145
Q

Where do somatic and visceral afferent fibres have their cell bodies

A

Both have their cell bodies in spinal ganglia - (dorsal root ganglion)

146
Q

How are peripheral nerves arranged and covered

A

The peripheral nerves are arranged into bundles called fasciculi

1) Endoneurium (contains myelin sheath) covers the individual axons
2) Perineurium covers each of the fasciculs
3) Epineurium is the external vascular layer whihc covers the bundle of fasciculus

147
Q

What are the two classification systems of peripheral nerves

A

1) using conduction velocity: A, B, C —> A is the fastest
2) using axonal diameter: roman numerals, I, II, III, IV….. —> I is the largest
(AXONAL DIAMETER CLASSIFICATION IS ONLY USED FOR SENSORY NEURONES)

148
Q

How can the different sensory receptors be classified

A

1) source of stimulus
External: Exteroceptors
Internal: Enteroceptors, Proprioceptors

2) method of detection
- Chemoreceptors, Photoreceptors, Thermoreceptors, Mechanoreceptors, Nocicoreceptors

149
Q

Describe what Exterorecptors detect

A

Pain
Touch
Temperature
Pressure

150
Q

What do enteroceptors detect

A

Movement through gut

Blood pH

151
Q

What do proprioceptors detect

A

Movement

Joint position

152
Q

What do Nocicoreceptors detect

A

Pain due to tissue damage

153
Q

What are the 3 main types of proprioceptors

A

1) muscle spindles - detect changes in length of muscles
2) Golgi tendon organs - detect changes in the tension of tendos
3) Joint receptors - found in joint capsules, detect start and wnd of movement

154
Q

What is a motor unit

A

A simgle motor neurone along with all the muscle fibres it innervates

155
Q

What does stimulation of one motor unit cause

A

Contraction of all the muscle fibres in the motor unit

156
Q

Can 2 motor neurones innervate the same muscle fibre

A

No

157
Q

What neurotransmitters are released at the pre and post ganglionic neurones in the autonomic nervous system

A

Pre ganglionic : Ach
Post ganglionic : Ach (parasympathetic), Noradrenaline (sympathetic) —> except for in sweat glands and blood vessels where Ach is released for sympathetic

158
Q

What is a monosynaptic reflex

A

Reflex involving only one synapse between the sensory and motor neurone

159
Q

Describe sympathetic and parasympatheic outflow from the CNS

A

Sympathetic: thoracolumbar outflow - from T1 to L2

Parasympathetic: craniosacral outflow - brainstem cranial nerves 3,7,9,10 and spinal sacral segments S2 to S4

160
Q

What information does the visceral sensory neurone relay to the CNS

A

Pain, fullness, blood pressure

161
Q

Which cranioa nerves do the vosceral sensory neurones run to

A

9: glossopharyngeal
10: vagus

162
Q

Sympathetic effect on kidneys

A

Stimulates epinephrin and norepinephrin release

163
Q

Sympathetic effect on liver

A

Stimulates glucose release

164
Q

Parasympathetic effect on liver

A

Stimulates bile

165
Q

What do the sympathetic nerves do when they leave the spinal column

A

They enter the sympathetic trunk and synapse at ganglia there

166
Q

What are white and grey ramus communicans

A

White ramus communicans: myelinated pre ganglionic neurones

Grey ramus communicans: unmeylinated post ganglionic neurones

167
Q

How is sympathetic outflow to the heart different from sympathetic outflow to other viscera

A

To heart: sympathetic nerves emerge from spinal cord T1-T4 and synapse in ganglia of the sympathetic trunk. They then enter cardiac plexus and innnervate heart

To rest of viscera: sympathetic nerves do not sympase in the sympathetic trunk. Instead they travel straight through it and synapse on ganglia which lie on the aorta “pre aortic ganglia”

168
Q

Describe the anatomy of the parasympathetic outflow to the viscera

A

Craniosacral outflow

Cranial ouflow: 
CN3: lacrimal ducts
CN7: pupil constriction, salivary glands
CN9: parotid gland
CN10: heart, gut

Sacral outflow:
S2-S4: gut, erectile tissue of pelvic region/penis

169
Q

What are the 2 main arterial blood supplies to the brain

A

Anterior blood supply: intervertebral - supplies most of cerebral hemispheres
Posterior blood supply: vertebrobasilar: supplies brainstem

170
Q

What do SSA nerves do

A

Special somatic afferent

Carry sensation of hearing and balance

171
Q

What do SVA nerves do

A

Special visceral afferent

Carry taste sensations

172
Q

What do SVE nerves do

A

Special visceral efferent

Innervate skeletal msuxles of the jaw, face, larynx and pharynx

BRS (8 decks)

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