Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Muscarinic Receptors

A

Involved in parasympathetic nervous system

M1: Gq: CNS, enteric nervous system

M2: Gi: Heart, slows heart rate

M3: Gq: inreases exocrine gland secretions, increases gut peristalsis, increases bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increases pupillary sphincter muscle contraction, ciliary muscle contraction (accomodation)

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2
Q

Nicotinic Receptors

A

Found on neuromuscular junction.

Found on pre-gangilionic ANS.

Ionotropic and activated by nicotine as well as acetylcholine

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3
Q

Cocaine

A

Local Anesthetic

First anesthetic discovered, lead to synthesis of procaine

Inhibits NET, leading to increased concentration of NE at α adrenergic receptors and vasoconstriction, leading to decreased diffusion away from the target site

Thought to cause mental effects by blocking dopamine reuptake.

Causes sensitization to catecholamines, vasoconstriction, and mydriasis.

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4
Q

Lidocaine

A

Local Anesthetic

May produce dysphoria, euphoria, muscle twitching, and loss of consciousness.

Also causes tinnitus, dizziness, drowsiness.

Produces faster, more intense, longer-lasting, and extensive anesthesia than procaine.

Given with epinephrine (but not topically. Topically given with phenylephrine) Broken down and excreted in urine

Can be used to treat post-herpetic neuralgia

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5
Q

Bupivicaine

A

Local Anesthetic

A potent agent capable of producing prolonged anesthesia

Often used during labor or the postoperative period

Causes vasoconstriction (without epinephrine)

Can cause ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation (only one that does), meaning it is more cardiotoxic than lidocaine.

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6
Q

Local Anesthetics

A

the loss of sensation in a body part without the loss of consciousness or the impairment of central control of vital functions.

Bind reversibly to receptor sites within the pore of the Na+ channels in nerves and block ion movement. This leads to reversible inhibition of action potentials in both motor and sensory neurons when applied locally.

Typically contain hydrophilic (amines) and hydrophobic (aromatic) moieties that are separated by an intermediate ester or amide linkage. The pore blocked is hydrophobic (meaning the hydrophobic moiety is responsible) on the internal plasma membrane (must diffuse across membrane to have effect).

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7
Q

Diazepam

A

Spasmolytic Drug

Facilitates the action of GABA in the CNS through GABAA (it is a benzodiazepam).

It produces sedation at the doses required to reduce muscle tone.

It is somewhat effective in patients with cord transaction

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8
Q

Baclofen

A

Spasmolytic Drug

Activates the GABAB receptor, orally active, results in neuronal hyperpolarization.

May also reduce pain through inhibiting substance P release

Causes less sedation than diazepam, and drowsiness subsides after prolonged usage. Withdrawal has to be done slowly due to risk of seizures.

Baclofen does not leave the spinal cord readily, enabling higher potential doses.

Might be useful for reducing cravings in recovering alcoholics. Works on sensory and alpha motor neurons.

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9
Q

Tizanidine

A

Spasmolytic Drug

A congener of clonidine that is an α2-adrenoceptor agonist. It reduces spasticity at doses that cause fewer cardiovascular effects than clonidine or dexmedetomidine.

It inhibits nociceptive transmission in the spinal cord. Displays linear pharmacokinetics, and dosage requirements vary considerably among patients (must take into account renal or hepatic impairment).

Might also be used for treating of chronic migraine

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10
Q

Barbituates vs. Benzodiazepines

A

Benzodiazepines cause an increase in frequency of GABA channel openings, while barbiturates appear to increase the duration of GABA channel openings.

Barbiturates can also be GABA-mimetic at high concentrations.

Spasticity is characterized by an increase in tonic stretch reflexes and flexor muscle spasms. It is often associated with spinal injury, MS, cerebral palsy, and stroke. Drugs that modify this reflex arch may modulate excitatory or inhibitory synapses.

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11
Q

Bethanechol

A

Most widely used for the treatment of gastrointestinal problems, urinary problems, et c.

It is a muscarinic agonist that activates M1-M3. Causes increased secretion and smooth muscle contraction.

Used for postoperative ileus, neurogenic ileus, and urinary retention.

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12
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Potent stimulator of sweat, tears, saliva.

Used for Open-angle (contracts ciliary muscle) and closed angle glaucoma (activates pupillary sphincter).

Resistant to AChE

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13
Q

Carbachol

A

Used for glaucoma, pupillary contraction, and relief of intraocular pressure.

“Carb-on copy of a-cetyl-chol-ine.”

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14
Q

Edrophonium

A

A simple alcohol bearing a quaternary ammonium group that is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor (no covalent bond formed between esterase).

Can be used to diagnose Myasthenia gravis, ileus, arrhythmias.

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15
Q

Physostigmine

A

Used to treat anticholinergic overdose, like atropine overdose.

It crosses the blood-brain barrier and increases native Ach levels by inhibiting AChE with a stronger bond than Edrophonium

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16
Q

DUMBBELSS

A

Diarrhea,

Urination,

Miosis,

Bronchospasm,

Bradycardia,

Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS,

Lacrimation,

Sweating,

Salivation.

Often accompanies organophosphate poisoning.

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17
Q

Echothiophate

A

An organic derivative of phosphoric acid that is a cholinesterase inhibitor and therefore an indirect choline agonist.

It is not highly lipid-soluble (whereas most organophosphates are).

It is of clinical value because it retains the very long duration of action of other organophosphates but is more stable in aqueous solution.

Used to treat Glaucoma

These types of drugs actually phosphorylate the esterase “Aging” strengthens the phosphate-enzyme bond, but this bond can be reversed if treated before aging occurs with pralidoxime

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18
Q

Malathion

A

An insecticide.

Quite lipid soluble.

A thiophosphate prodrug that are inactive; it is converted to a phosphate derivative in animals and plants and are used as insecticides.

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19
Q

Atropine

A

Found in the plant Atropa belladonna, deadly nightshade and jimson weed

Causes a reversible blockade of cholinomimetic actions at muscarinic receptors (can be overcome by increased concentrations of acetylcholine).

Tissues most sensitive are the salivary, bronchial, and sweat glands (acid secretion by stomach is least sensitive)

Hits M1-M3

First drug to treat Parkinson Disease (by affecting acetylcholinergic neurons in the putamen.)

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20
Q

Atropine

A

Causes tachycardia (by blocking muscaranic effects of parasympathetic) but does not greatly affect the ventricles.

Can be used to dilate the eye, but is not recommended unless cycloplegia or prolonged action is required.

Used to treat Amanita poisoning

More toxic in children than adults “dry as a bone, blind as a bat, red as a beet, mad as a hatter”

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21
Q

Scopolamine

A

More profound CNS effects; induces drowsiness at recommended doses and amnesia in sensitive individuals.

In high doses and cause coma.

Often used to prevent or reverse vestibular disturbances (cures seasickness)

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22
Q

Pralidoxime

A

Used to reverse the phosphorylation of cholinesterase by organophosphates.

It is most effective in regenerating the cholinesterase associated with skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions.

It is a quaternary amine, and is therefore unable to enter the CNS.

It is not recommended for reversible inhibition due to carbamate inhibitors.

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23
Q

Amphetamine

A

Similar to ephedrine, but it more readily enters the central nervous system.

Its actions are mediated through the release of norepinephrine and, to some extent, dopamine

It blocks NET from taking up norepinephrine as well as causes the reverse reaction (extrusion of norepinephrine).

Used to treat narcolepsy, obesity, ADD

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24
Q

Ephedrine

A

Indirect general agonist (ß1 and ß2) releases stored catecholamines.

Used for nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, hypotension

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25
Q

Clonidine

A

Direct acting sympathomimetic

α2 selective agonist that has an ability to devrease blood pressure through actions in the CNS even though direct application to a blood vessel may cause vasoconstriction.

Useful for treating hypertension.

Sedation is a potential side effect

Produces symptoms of dry mouth

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26
Q

Tertbutaline

A

ß2 selective agonist

Relaxes the pregnant uterus. It has been used to suppress premature labor. The goal is to defer labor long enough to allow adequate maturation of the fetus.

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27
Q

Pseudoephedrine

A

Mixed-acting sympathomimetic

One of the four ephedrine enantiomers.

It used to be used as a nasal decongestant but now it is more controlled due to its use for making methamphetamines.

28
Q

Phenylephrine

A

Used to dilate the eye via α1 receptors.

This can also increase the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye and can be used clinically to reduce intraocular pressure.

Alpha agonist

29
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Direct acting sympathomimetic

A nonselective beta agonist. It activates both ß1 and ß2.

The net effect is to maintain or slightly increase systolic pressure and to lower diastolic pressure, so that mean blood pressure is decreased.

Has little effect on α receptors. Has positive chronotropic and inotropic actions and is a potent vasodilator.These lead to a marked increase in cardiac output associated with a fall in diastolic and mean arterial pressure and a lesser decrease or slight increase in systolic pressure

30
Q

Benztropine

A

Anti-muscarinic used to treat Parkinson’s

Affects aspiny acetylcholine secreting neurons of the putamen

Aspiny neurons preferentially activate the indirect (inhibitory) pathway

31
Q

IFNß1a & IFNß1b

A

MS treatment

For relapsing/remitting attacks

Suppresses the movement of T-cells into the CNS, as well as their proliferation

Shifts cytokine profile from pro-inflammatory to anti-inflammatory

32
Q

Glatiramer acetate

A

MS Treatment

For relapsing/remitting attacks

Random-sequence polypeptide made up of alanine, lysine, glutamate and tyrosine directly binds to MHC II DR molecules

Induces CD4+ T cells to secrete Th2 cytokines

33
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

Alkylating agent used to treat MS by suppressing the immune system.

Used in patientsthat are refractory to immunomodulators.

34
Q

Mitoxantrone

A

A DNA intercalater used to treat MS.

35
Q

Methylprednisolone

A

Steroid used for MS.

given for relief during acute attacks in a pulsatile fashion (1g/day i.v. for 3-5 days)

non-specific therapy maintains function and quality of life

36
Q

L-Dopa: MOA

A

Served as the precursor to dopamine that was able to be transported through the blood brain barrier (unlike dopamine).

It is used by the substantia nigra.

It was metabolized by both MAOs, COMTs, and amino acid decarboxylases

37
Q

L-Dopa: GI Side Effects

A

Gastrointestinal Nausea and vomiting secondary to stimulation of D2 receptors in the area postrema

Usually transient and not a problem if co-administered with carbidopa to prevent peripheral metabolism

38
Q

L-Dopa: Cardiovascular Side Effects

A

Cardiovascular Tachyarrhythmias secondary to increased peripheral catecholamine formation-less common if taken with carbidopa

Postural hypotension from failure to appropriately release NE due to activation of inhibitory D2 receptors on noradrenergic terminals…or.. Hypertension since high levels of DA can also stimulate a adrenergic receptors in the periphery

39
Q

Carbidopa

A

A peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor used with L-Dopa for treatment of Parkinson’s.

It is never used as a monotherapy

40
Q

L-Dopa Contraindications

A

Psychosis

Closed-angle glaucoma

Melanoma

Avoid Vitamin B6

Non-selective MAO inhibitors

41
Q

Dopamine Agonists

A

Did not require presence of substantia nigra cells.

Directly activated dopamine receptors in putamen and caudate.

Work as monotherapy

Pramipexole: A D3 agonist

Ropinorole: a D2 agonist

Apomorphine: A D4 agonist

42
Q

Apomorphine

A

A D4 dopamine agonist that is used as rescue therapy for Parkinson’s disease.

Highly emetogenic. Used as a last ditch effort

43
Q

Selegeline

A

An MAO-B inhibitor

Inhibits dopamine breakdown in the CNS Early symptomatic relief for Parkinson’s disease.

Can be used as a monotherapy, but also prolongs the effects of L-Dopa

Has methamphetamine breakdown products

44
Q

Rasagiline

A

An MAO-B inhibitor

Inhibits dopamine breakdown in the CNS

Early symptomatic relief for Parkinson’s disease.

Can be used as a monotherapy, but also prolongs the effects of L-Dopa

More potent than Selegeline

45
Q

Tolcapone

A

A COMT inhibitor used in treating Parkinson’s disease

Used along with L-Dopa.

Has both peripheral and CNS distribution.

It is associated with acute liver failure

46
Q

Entacapone

A

A COMT inhibitor used in treating Parkinson’s disease

Used along with L-Dopa.

Has only peripheral distribution and is not associated with liver failure

47
Q

Amantidine

A

Anti-viral with some Parkinson’s activity.

Benefits short lived but effective

48
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

Anti-muscarinic used to treat Parkinson’s

49
Q

Trihexphenidyl

A

Anti-muscarinic used to treat Parkinson’s

50
Q

Tetrabenazine

A

VMAT2 inhibitor used to treat Huntington’s.

It prevents loading of dopamine into vesicles.

This lessens excitatory effects of the substantia nigra pars compacta

51
Q

Reserpine

A

VMAT2 inhibitor used to treat Huntington’s.

It prevents loading of dopamine into vesicles.

This lessens excitatory effects of the substantia nigra pars compacta

Not used as frequently as Tetrabenazine

52
Q

Riluzole

A

Only treatment for ALS

Prevents glutamate release

Prolongs life 2-3 months

53
Q

Penicillin G

A

Treatment for N. meningitidis

MOA: interferes with cell wall synthesis

MOR: can be hydrolized by penicillinase, but resistance to Neisseria meningitidis is infrequent

54
Q

Cefotaxime

A

3rd generation cephalosporin

Treatment for N. meningitidis

Good alternative to Pen G due to ability to penetrate CNS

MOA: interferes with cell wall synthesis

MOR: hydrolysis of the b-lactam ring by b-lactamase

55
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

Treatment for N. meningitidis

Alternative for those with severe b-lactam allergy

Can cause dose dependent pancytopenia, or an idiopathic aplastic anemia

MOA: inhibits microbial protein synthesis

MOR: inactivation by bacterial acetyltransferases

56
Q

Ampicillin

A

Bacterial meningitis in immunocompromised patients is usually due to L. monocytogenes

Not for the treatment of bacterial meningitis due to N. meningitides due to high levels of resistance

MOA: inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

MOR: destruction by b-lactamase

57
Q

Rifampin

A

Prophylactic for N. meningitidis

Used to treat the carrier state and those who may have been exposed to the organism.

Also used to treat M. leprae

MAO: inhibits microbial RNA synthesis via inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

MOR: mutations in the target

58
Q

Dapsone

A

Used to treat M. leprae

MOA: inhibits RNA synthesis

59
Q

Clofazimine

A

Used to treat M. leprae

MOA to be determined

60
Q

Eflornithine

A

Used to treat the early and late stages of T. brucei Gambiense

MOA: inhibits ornithine decarboxylase

Penetrates CNS

61
Q

Pentamidine

A

Treats T. brucei Gambiense early stage only

Can also be used to treat Acanthamoeba

62
Q

Suramin

A

Treats early stages of both T. brucei Gambiense and Rhodesiense

It is slow acting

63
Q

Melarsoprol

A

Treats the late stage of both T. brucei Gambiense and Rhodesiense

64
Q

Benznidazole

A

Used to treat T. cruzi

Trypanocidal due to generation of nitrogen radicals

Benznidazole is usually preferred due to less toxic side effects

Side effects are common: hypersensitivity, nausea, vomiting, weakness, headache, psychic disturbances

65
Q

Nifurtimox

A

Used to treat T. cruzi

Trypanocidal due to generation of nitrogen radicals

Nifurtimox may also be given in conjunction with eflornithine to treat T. brucei infections

Side effects are common: hypersensitivity, nausea, vomiting, weakness, headache, psychic disturbances

66
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

An alpha1 and 2 inhibitor, more selective for alpha1.

It is irreversible, and forms covalent bonds with the receptors.