Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 1 LCRS > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Define the different layers of organisationa and classification of the nervous system

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the gross regions of the brain and what are their functions?

A

Frontal lobe: personality

pariental = sensory

Occipital –> vision processing

Temporal: personality (fear and anxiety)

Cerebelllum: fine motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are Gyri and Sulci in the brain?

What is their function?

A

folds in brain –> larger suface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List the Cranial nerves

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the function of the meningines?

Describe their organisation

A

The meningines protect the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are other important structures in the brin, than just the major regions?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is the spinal cord arranged? (inkl. grey matter, white matter, dorsal route, ventral route)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How can the PNS regenerate in comparison to the CNS?

A

PNS : regeneration possible (phagocytes remove inhibitory cells)

CNS: barely any regeneration –> glia cells inhibit and form scaring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dorsal-comumn-medial lemniscus pathway

What is its function?

Which route does it take?

A

Sensory pathway

Crossing over in medulla oblangata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Spinothalamic pathway

What is its function?

Which route does it take?

A

Sensory pathway

Crosses over while entering the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List two examples of motor pathways

What is their function and which route do they take?

A

Lateral corticospinal tract:

–> e.g. arm movine –> crosses sides in medulla oblangata

Vesibulospinal tract

–> ear and balance

–> ipsilateral side all the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ipsilateral

A

Same side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contralateral

A

entgegengesetze Körperseite oder hälfte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define a neuron

A

structional and functional unit of nervous system

conduction of electrical siganals and communication via chemical synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the structure of a neuron

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of an axo-dendritic synapse?

How abundant is it?

A

“normal” synapse, most abundant

usually exitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain the organisation of the Cytoskeleton in Neurons

A

very abundant to ensure size and shape

intermediate fillaments: stability

Microtubule: transport of vesicles along axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How abundant is a Axo-somatic synapse?

What is its usual function?

A

rarer, usually inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the structure of a axo-axonic synapse

A

end at next cells axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain the function of Astroglia (Astocytes)

A

most abundant, gap junctions suggest astroglia-astrogial signaling

–> Barrier function (form Brain-Blood Barrier, signaling between blood and neurons)

–> Remove Neurotransmitter

fibrous and protoplasmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of Oligodendrocytes?

What are their characteristics?

A

Form Myelin and retian for lifetime (CNS)

highly metabolic active (ER, Golgi, Mitochondria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the origin of Microglia cells?

What is their function?

A
  • derive from bone marrow,

immune function –> Macrophage activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the function Schwann cells?

Where are they found?

A

Astrocytes and Oligodendrocytes function in PNS

–> myelinate one axon (wrap around one axon as a cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define Electrochemical equilibrium

and Equilibrium potential

A

Electrical force balances diffustion force

Potential at which equilibrium is achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the Normal intracellular and extracelluar concentration for Na+ and K+ in Neurons

A

K+ Ex: 5, In 150

Na+ : Ex: 150, In: 10 mMol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why has potassium a stronger effect on resting membrane potential than sodium?

A

Membranes are more permeable to potassium than to sodium

(finite permeability to sodium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why do you use the GHK equation?

What do you use it for?

How is it calculated?

Goldmann equation

A

More accurate to calculate potential than Nernst: more Ions+ takes into account permeability of membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name the differnet Phases of a neural action potential

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Graded potential ?

A

Potentials in membrane potential as response to a stimulus

–> responses determined by time, distance, strength of stimulus

often at synapse + sensory receptors

–> No action potential (all or nothing), contribute to action potential

e.g. weak stimulus = weak response, response gets weaker over time or distance etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Explain action potential and ion movement in neurons

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Saltatory conduction?

A

Faster conduction: AP jumps to nodes of Ranvier –> very rich in Na+ channels –> new AP at each node triggered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Explain the structure and function of a Meutorneuron

A

Neuromuscular junction

(yellow = examples for disease)

Contraction by inducing AP in muscle cell by binding to ACh receptors

One Motorneuron many muscle fibers, one muscle fiber only one motor neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Three disorders of NMJ

A

Botulism –> Botulinum toxin: irreversible inhibition of release of ACh –> paralysis

Myasthenia Gravis: autoimmune: antibodies against ACh receptors –> paralysis

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome –> inactivation of Ca2+ channels in presynaptic –> no release of ACh possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define the components required for neurotransmitter release

A

quick

  1. Synapse is required (presynaptic nerve ending, gap, postsynaptic membrane + receptors(ion channel linked + G-protein linked receptors)
  2. -Ca2+ is required (200 micromols)
  3. Synaptic vesicles + neurotransmitters required
  4. AP for release required –> depolarisation for opening of Calcium channels –> calcium influx in cell
  5. Proteins complex required for release –> rapid response due to interaction of proteins at vesicles and synaptic membrane protein –> ca2+ is recognized by proteins at vesicles causes conformational change
  6. ATP and recycling needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Explain the difference between excitatory and inhibitory transmission

A

Inhibition: e.g. GABAR receptor + GlyR–> influx of Cl- causes hyperpolarisation –> Negative charge in; often at soma, further away of threshold

Excitation: Positive charge in, causing depolarization closer to threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Identify mechanisms of termination of neurotransmitter action at the synapse

A
  1. rapid reuptake by the transporter in neuronal cells and Glial cells for glutamate (excitatory amino acid Transporter EAAT)
  2. Enzymatic break down of neurotransmitter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Twitch

A

zucken, one stimulus, al little response to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Wha is a Summation in muscle innervation/contraction?

A

Several stimuli adding up and separating but increasing different movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How would you describe a Fused tetanic contraction?

A

Many single contractions which can’t be separated anymore –> contraction of maximum force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Explain the structure of a Peripheral Nerve

A

fascicles = bundles of axons

endoneurium (loose collagen fibers)

Perineurium (gives main structure and strength to nerve

Epineurium (collagen) which also contains blood supply and some fat tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Conduction: list the factors that affect conduction velocity of peripheral axons

A

Myelin (myelinated axons = quicker)

Diameter (bigger = faster because of less resistance)

Resistance

Can be influenced by local anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a dermatome?

What does damage lead to?

A

Area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve route –> Damage = weakness of sensation because skin is still innervated by other spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

WHat is a Myotome?

What does damage of a myotome lead to?

A

Muscle supplied by a single spinal nerve route–> Damage = muscle weakness because muscle is still innervated by other spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a Ramus?

Explain the organisation of a rami route

A

Abzweigung eines Nerves –>

Ventral + dorsal route form Mixed spinal nerves , together (ventral + dorsal) =

roots and ramus are splitting of this mixed spinal nerve nerves (e.g. dorsal ramus or ventral ramus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a plexus?

How is it organised?

A

Many spinal nerves together form one plexus which recombines them to a single other nerves which then e.g. innervates one muscle

E.g. phrenic nerve from cervical plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Mono and what is Polyneuropathy?

A

Mononeuropathy = only affects one nerve

Polyneuropathy = affects many nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Classify the different levels of PNS nerve injury and its chance for recovery

A
  1. full recovery possible
  2. demyelination + axon loss, but recovery possible (epi + perineurium still intact)
  3. No recovery possible, severe damage, epineurium damaged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

List diagnostic techniques for PNS pathology

A

Electromyography EMG

  • distinction between neural or muscular cause for weakness

Nerve conduction study:

  • Speed of conduction (demyelination or axon damage?)

Somatosensory Evoked Potential

  • ( Peripheral or central lesion?)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Spinal Levels of upper and lower limb innervation

A

Upper Limb:

Brachial Plexus: C5,C6,C7,C8, T1

Lower Limbs

Lumbar Plexus:T12-L5

Sacral Plexus : L4-S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Spinal Cord:

What are the different segments of the spinal cord?

How many nerves does each segment have, where do they emerge from?

A

C1-C7 emerge superior to vertebra, C8 emerges inferior (because there are 7 C vertebra but 8 spinal nerves emerging from them)

Other than that:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Parasympathetic anatomy (Where do the fibres synapse, Which nerves do they emerge from? )

A

Emerge from Cranial Nerves + Sacral spinal cord:

  • III Oculomotor – pupil constriction
  • VII Facial nerve – Salivation
  • IX Glossopharyngeal – Salivation
  • X Vagus – bradycardia, gastric motility, digestion
  • And S2-S4 Level

Nerves go directly to a target organ, ganglia in the target organ (long pre-synaptic, short post-synaptic branches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Sympathetic Nervous system (Where so the fibres synapsing, where do they emerge?)

A

T1-L3

First synapse in sympathetic chain

–> Short pre-ganglionic fibre, lond post-ganglionic fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What effects dos the Parasympathetic NS have on the body and differnt organ systems?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What effects does the SNS have on different organ systems?

A

Fight and Flight: Dilation of pupils, sweating, increasing blood glucose levels, increased Heart rate and breathing, dilation of bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

WHat is the main Neurotransmitter in PSN?

What other transmitter does it also use?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

(Glutamate, Glu for down of Spinal cord to S2-S4) but afterward also ACh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Neurotransmitters in SNS

A

Many different ones for different targets, main transmitter : Noradrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Summarise the biosynthesis of Acetylcholine

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Summarise the biosynthesis of Noradrenaline

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In which structure of the spinal cord do the autonomic neurons emerge?

In which structure the sympathetic neurons?

A

Autonomic in general: dorsal horn

Sympathetic: Intermediolateral cell column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Examples of regulation of the autonomic NS

A
  1. Heart rate: Baroreflex (regulation via BP) –> Baroreceptors in Aorta+ Carotis sense change –> change in innervation of Vagus nerve on Heartbeat
  2. GI tract:
  • cephalic response (insulin secretion + gastric acid production even before tasting food)
  • Mechanorecpeptors show dialation of stomach, Chemoreceptors secrete satiety Hormones
  1. Respiration: Chemoreceptors (peripheral in Aorta+ Carotis, central in central respiratory center changes in O2, pH, CO2) up respiratory rate, Mechanoreceptors in lungs down(to prevent hyperinflation) –> signals to respiratory muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the Receptors of Sympathetic NS?

Where are they located?

A
  1. All Nicotonic in the sympathetic chain
  2. differ, but all G-Protein linked Adrenergic receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the Receptors of the PNS?

What kind of receptors are they?

Where are they located?

A

Nicotinic = ion chanel

Muscarinic= G Protein-coupled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

Drop of BP after standing up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What can abnormalities in ANS lead to?

(Name 3 disorders)

A
  1. Primary hypertension: Hypertension = exaggerated sympathetic nerve activity to blood vessels and heart—> increased circulating volume and vascular tone
  2. heart failure
  3. Parkinsons Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Explain the regulation of the Baroreceptor reflex

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Diencephalon, Brainstem, Medulla oblangata brief location + function

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Spinal cord: Vertebra + spinal nerve pairs (and where they dissent from vertebra)

A

30 Vertebra, but 31 pairs of spinal nerves

1-7 above vertebra

8-31 below vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Explain the Anatomy of spinal cord (cross section)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the function of the spinal cord?

A
  1. Connects the PNS and ANS to the brain
  2. Carries sensory signals to the brain
  3. Carries motor signals to the muscles
  4. Coordinates reflexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Explain the organisation and function of the Diencephalon

A

Hypothalamus:

  • integration hub:
  • Regulates temperature, hunger, thirst, hormone (connected with pituitary)+ autonomic function

Thalamus

  • integration center for somatic and special senses information and projection to cortex.
  • Involved in emotional status, consciousness, appropriate motor response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a Basal Ganglia?

Where is it located?

What is its function?

A

Different structures in Cortex

–> accumulation of Cell bodies

•Control of movement:

facilitating voluntary movement, inhibiting unwanted or inappropriate movements, “fine-tuning”

72
Q

What are the function of the Limbic system?

A

It is involved in:

  • motivation,
  • instinctive behavior,
  • emotion,
  • memory
73
Q

Describe the anatomy, and function of the Cerebellum

A

Anatomy:

  • two hemispheres divided in lobes, Grey cortex with folds and deeper white matter

vestibular system for balance

  • •spinal cord and muscles of locomotion, posture; muscle tone
  • •Motor cortex and thalamus for learned movements (egmanual skills, trajectory, timing,, speed and force)
74
Q

What is the Corpus callosum?

What is its function?

A

Connects the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex

–> information exchange and processing between two hemispheres

75
Q

What is the Ventricular system?

Which cells are important for its function?

A

System which produces and transports Cerebrospinal fluid

Produced by choroid plexus

76
Q

Explain the route of the CVF fluid from production into spinal cord

A
77
Q

Composition and function of Cerebrospinal fluid

A

Composition similar to plasma (high Na+, low K+) but:

  • Lower glucose (2/3)
  • Much lower protein (200x)
  • Lower Ca2+, K+
  • Higher Cl-, Mg
  • Slightly lower pH (7.33)

Function:

  • cushioning
  • nutrient supply
  • removal of waste products
  • immune defence
78
Q

Name and describe the different layers of meninges

A
79
Q

Where can you find fibrous astrocytes?

What are their characteristics?

A
  • white matter
  • have relatively few organelles
  • and exhibit long unbranched cellular processes
80
Q

Where are protoplasmic astrocytes found?

What are their characteristics?

A
  • most prevalent
  • and are found in grey matter tissue
  • possess a larger quantity of organelles
  • and exhibit short and highly branched tertiary processes.
81
Q

Which cells are involved in the damage of MS?

A

Oligodendrocytes –> Normally: Myelination of Axons

If damaged: demyelination of the CNS

82
Q

Explain the effects of Botulinum toxin in the Nervous system

A

Botulinum toxin: irreversible inhibition of release of ACh –> paralysis

83
Q

Explain the mechanism and effect of myastenia Gravis on the Nervous system

A

Myasthenia Gravis

  • Autoimmune disease
  • antibodies bind and block ACh receptors –> paralysis
84
Q

Explain the mechanism and effect of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome on the Nervous system

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome –>

inactivation of Ca2+ channels in presynaptic membrane –> no release of ACh possible

–> no excitation of muscle possible

85
Q

What does damage to a nerve supplying a myotome/dermatome lead to? Why?

A

It leads to a weaker sensation and muscle weakness because area is still supplied by more nerves

86
Q

What does damage to a nerve after the plexus lead to? Why?

A

Many spinal nerves supply one muscle but form only one nerve after plexus –> damage to the one nerve after plexus leads to total numbness, paralysis etc.

87
Q

Which structures belong to the limbic system?

Where is it located?

A

It is located at both sides of the thalamus

It has three areas:

  1. Cortical area (contains e.g. hippocampus)
  2. Sub-cortical area (contains e.g. amygdalla)
  3. Diencephalic structures (contains e.g hypothalamus, part of thalamus)
88
Q

What is meant by the term recruitment on muscle contraction?

A

recruitment means increasing the number of active motor-neurons

89
Q

Which unit does the Equilibrium potential of an ion have?

A

It is shown in mV (milli volt)

90
Q

What does binding of ACh to the receptors of the post-synaptic membrane of a Neuro-muscular junction lead to?

A

It leads to the opening of cation-selective channels (Na+, K+)

91
Q

What is neuromodulation? (neuromodulatory synapse)

A

A neuromodulators synapse is an Axo-axonic synapse, leading to regulation of a neuron

it is relatively slow and neurotransmitter often bind to G-protein coupled receptors

92
Q

What does fast-anterograde transport transports?

A

Anterograde:

  • is movement of molecules/organelles outward, from the soma to the synapse or cell membrane.

Fast anterograde transport includes

  • synaptic vesicles
  • transmitters
  • mitochondria
93
Q

What involves slow anterograde transport?

A

Anterograd= from cell body to synapse, away from cell body

Slow anterograde:

delivery of cytoskeletal and cytoplasmic constituents

94
Q

What is retrograde transport?

A

Transport of things from synaps, periphery back to soma

95
Q

Which substances are transported retrograde?

A
  1. material returns from the terminals to the cell body either for degradation or recycling
  2. substances from an extracellular space
  3. microtubule-associated ATPase to drive particles along microtubules(?-> please check again)
96
Q

How is a neurotransmitter inactivated?

A
  • Diffusion out of the cleft
  • Enzymatic destruction in the synaptic cleft
  • Re-uptake by the pre-synaptic terminal
  • Uptake by glial cells
97
Q

Explain the mechanism of function of Benzodiazepines

A

They enhance GABA function

–> GABA is a special neurotransmitter that has an inhibitory effect on Membrane potential by causing hyperpolarization of the membrane (Cl- influx)

98
Q

Which structures does the central sulcus devide the cerebral hemisphere in?

A

It divides it into frontal and parietal lobe

99
Q

Compare subdural and epidural hemorrhages

(bledding, appearance, position etc.)

A
100
Q

What does the brainstem consist of?

A

Pons, medulla and midbrain

101
Q

Explain the role of local currents in NMJ activation

A

Local currents flow from depolarized region and adjacent region

–> action potential triggered and spreads along surface membrane

102
Q

How is ACh broken down in a NMJ?

A

It is broken down by the enzyme acetylcholine esterase

103
Q

What does a EMG record?

How does it do this?

A

It superficially records Muscular action potential

–>

104
Q

What are the 2 main types of hydrocephalus and their causes?

A

1. Communicating:

  • block in CSF absorption
  • CVS can still flow over all 4 ventricles (–> communication)
  • meningitis, head injury, congenital, hemorrhage

2. Non- communicating:

  • Obstruction on flow
  • ventricular, paraventricular tumor, aqueduct stenosis
105
Q

What are the symptoms of hydrocephalus?

A

In children: cranial swelling

Other symptoms: because of increased intercranial swelling:

vomiting, sleepiness, irritability, downward deviation of the eyes (also called “sunsetting”), and seizures.

106
Q

How can hydrocephalus be treated?

A
  • remove the cause, e.g. papüiloma
  • open alternate pathways,
  • divert CSF
107
Q

Compare grey and white matter

A

Grey matter: cell bodies (all synapses)

White matter: axons

108
Q
A
109
Q
A
110
Q
A
111
Q
A
112
Q
A
113
Q
A
114
Q

What happens during neuropraxia?

A
  • reversible conduction block
  • selective demyelination of the axon sheath
  • endoneurium and axon still intact - e.g., nerve compression
115
Q

What happens during axonotmesis?

A
  • demyelination and axon loss
  • epineurium and perineurium remain intact
  • still some continuity within the nerve
  • degeneration occurs below and slightly proximal to the site of injury
116
Q

What happens during Neurotmesis?

A
  • most severe form of nerve injury
  • associated with complete nerve division and disruption
  • commonly seen after toxic or ischemic injuries
  • Damage to the epineurium (around the entire nerve) - no nerve growth
117
Q

Explain the process of nerve regeneration in the PNS

A

Degernation + phagocytosis of parts is calles Wallerian Degeneration

118
Q

What is the most commonly prescribed anti-epileptic drug and what is its target?

A

Tiagabine –> is a GABA agonist

119
Q

Which neurotransmitters does the somatic nervous system use?

A

Preganglionic synapse: Glutamate

Postgangionic: ACh

120
Q

What are two cholinergic drugs?

What is their target site?

A
121
Q

What kind of drug is Salbutamol? What is its target site?

A

Beta2 receptor agonist (relaxes smooth airway muscle)

122
Q

Which enzyme converts testosterone into dihydrotestosterone?

A

Enzym 5α-Reductase

123
Q

Which enzyme converts testosterone in estradiol?

A

Aromatase /Estrogen synthase

124
Q

How can you classify the three types of neurons in the sympathetic nervous system?

A
  1. Neuron (goes down the spinal cord)= Presympathetic /Preautonomic nerve
  2. Neuron (from the spinal cord to sympathetic chain)= preganglionic nerve
  3. Neuron (from sympathetic chain to target organ) = Postganglionic nerve
125
Q

In which “year” do the parasympathetic cranical nerves emerged?

A

1973

Cranial nerves that provide parasympathetic supply:

  • X, IX, VII, III
126
Q

Which structures lie above the brainstem?

A

The diencephalon

127
Q

How do the cerebral hemispheres and the diencephalon relate to one another?

A

The cerebral hemispheres wrap around the diencephalon

128
Q

What is the function of the brainstem?

A
  • Relay center –> Contains All fibres that connect cerebrum, cerebellum + spinal cord
  • Contains nuclei of all cranial nerves
  • control breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, swallowing balance, etc., sleep
  • defense reflexes (cough, gag)
129
Q

Which part of the brain degenerated in Parkinson’s?

A

Midbrain includes the substantia nigra which degenerates in Parkinson’s Disease

130
Q

Which structures belong to the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate nucleus

Putamen –< together corupus striatum

Putamen + Globus Pallidus= Lentiform nucleus

Amygdulla

Substantia Nigra

Subthalamic nucleus

131
Q

What is the overall function of the basal ganglia?

A

To relay and control the fine-tuning of movement

  • facilitating voluntary movement
  • inhibiting unwanted or inappropriate movements
132
Q
A
133
Q
A
134
Q
A
135
Q
A
136
Q
A
137
Q

What does the Striatum consist of?

A

It consists of the Caudate nucleus and Putamen (both parts of the basal ganglia)

138
Q

What does the lentiform nucleus consist of?

A

The Putamen and Globus Pallidus

139
Q

How thick is the cerebral cortex?

How much of it is exposed to the outside, how much in sulci?

A
  • 2-4 mm thick
  • ~30% exposed

70% within sulci

140
Q

How do you divide the cortex into forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain?

A

Forebrain =cerebral hemispheres and diencephalon

Midbrain

Hindbrain: Pons, Medulla, Cerebellum

–> classification derives from embriology

141
Q

What is a Astroglia cell?

A

most abundant, gap junctions suggest astroglia-astroglial signaling

–> Barrier function (form Brain-Blood Barrier, signaling between blood and neurons)

–> Remove Neurotransmitters

fibrous and protoplasmic

142
Q

What are the main function of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

Many functions:

  • Motor cortex –> initiation of movement
  • Motor association area –< planning of movement
  • Primary sensory cortex –> interpretation of sensation
  • Association area –> interpreation of sensation (e.g. touch/feel to the shape of an object)
  • Personality
143
Q

What are commissural fibres of the brain?

A

Fibres connecting the two parts of the brain (e.g.Corpus callosum )

144
Q

What are the Association fibers?

A

Fibres, that connect structures on the same side of the brain

145
Q

What are projection fibres?

A

Fibers that run vertically down (can cross sides) e.g. sensory fibres (run down spinal cord)

146
Q

What is the zona radiata?

A

Zone in the cerebral cortex, where the projection fibers spread to different structures

147
Q

Which cells produce cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Ependymal cells in choroid plexi

148
Q

Compare ion channel receptors and G-protein coupled receptors for mediating a neural action potential

Name examples in each

A

Ion channels: fast (ms) (GABA+ ACh)

G-protein coupled: slow (s/min) (ACh at muscarenic, dopamine)

149
Q

Which changes might lead to seizures in epilepsy?

A

A decrease in GABAmediated inhibition

or an increase in glutamate-mediated excitation in the brain may result in seizure activity

150
Q

How is GABA synthesised?

A

GABA is synthesised by Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase (GAD) – Known as the Vitamin B6 enzyme.

151
Q

Explain the binding and inactivation of GABA

A

Binding

  • GABA binds to the receptor and allows entry Cl- ions which hyper-polarises the cell.

Inhibition:

  • Reuptake of pre-synaptic membrane and glia cells
  • inactivated by GABA transaminase, giving Succinate semialdehyde
152
Q

Explain the effect and inactivation of Glutamate as a neurotransmitter

A
  • causes entry of sodium and calcium through the NMDA receptor.
  • Uptake over pre-synatptic neurone and glia cells via mainly EAAT2 transporter

–> inactivated by glutamine synthetase to make glutamine (addition of an amino-acid).

153
Q

What are examples of anti-epileptic drugs?

How can they be exploited for epilepsy?

A

All modulate GABA receptors

  • e.g. Valproate (weakens GABA transaminase)
  • Benzodiazepine (enhances GABA action)
154
Q

Whar are areas 4 and 6?

Where are they located and what is their function?

A

Located in the frontal lobe:

4: Primary motor complex

  • send signals + coordinate movements (initiation of movement)

6: Motor association complex:

  • Movements are planned
155
Q

What are the areas 1,2,3 5,7?

Where are they found? What is their function?

A

Found in Parietal lobe:

1,2,3: Primary somesthetic cortex

  • interprets sensory information (touch, pain temperature

5,7: Somesthtetic association area

  • Associated felt sensation with known+ hand-eye coordination
156
Q

What are the two areas?

Where are they located and what is their function?

A

Mainly occipital lobe

18,19 (green): Visual associaton area

  • recognises faces, other familliar things

17 Primary visual cortex

  • recieves visual information
157
Q
A

Located in the temporal lobe

Primary auditory cortex

  • receives auditory information

Auditory association area

  • recognizes e.g. speech
158
Q
A

Profrontal cortex

  • judgement, associations –> personality
159
Q
A

Broca area:

Right-handed on the left side, left hand on the right side (+ other way around)

–> speech

160
Q

Which structures are located in the anterior cranial fossa?

A

The frontal cortex lobes in it

161
Q

Which structures lie in the middle cranial fossa?

A

The pituitary and the temprotal lobes

162
Q

Which structures are located in the posterior cranial fossa?

A

The occipital lobe and the brainstem

163
Q

What is latency?

A

The time difference between a stimulus and a response in a EMG

(At picture: Nerve conduction study done at distal + proximal location)

164
Q

How is a nerve conduction study made?

Which factors influence latency?

A
  1. Measure the latency of response at both locations (distal + proximal) – i.e. the time difference between stimulation and response. Latency time is affected by:
  • Activation time.
  • Conduction delay from cathode to NMJ.
  • Delay at NMJ.
  • Conduction delay along muscle fibre to EMG electrodes.
  1. Conduction velocity is measured by:

𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑏𝑒𝑡𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑛 𝐸𝐸𝐺 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 / Dif𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 𝑖𝑛 𝑏𝑜𝑡ℎ 𝐸𝐸𝐺 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠

165
Q

What is the difference between the ependymal cells and the choroid plexus?

A

The Ependymal cells line all ventricles whereas the choroid plexi are modified ependymal cells that produce CVS

166
Q

How fast can a nerve in the PNS regernerate per day?

A

2-5 mm

167
Q

What is a neuroma?

A

Swelling of Peripheral nerves (or growth), often due to the failed reconnection after nerve damage

168
Q

What is chromatolysis?

A

It is the dissolvement of the Nissel Body in a nerve (organelles with abundant ER and ribosomes –> protein synthesis)

–> happens to the cell body in peripheral verve damage

169
Q

Explain the route an efferent postganglionic fiber in the sympathetic Nervous system takes when it goes via the ventral route

A
  1. Enters ventral route
  2. Mixed spinal nerve
  3. Via the White ramus to the sympathetic chain
  4. (Evenutally: goes up and down to other ganlglia)
  5. Synapse in ganglia
  6. Back to spinal nerve (same level, other level) vie the grey ramus
170
Q

What is a splanchnic nerve?

A

Autonomic fibers that travel within their own nerve

  1. Synapse in the sympathetic ganglion and have an own post-ganglionic nerve (does not leave via grey ramus)
  2. Neurons that enter the Sympathetic gangion but don’t synapse there (synapse in distal ganglion)
171
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Phenobarbital?

A

It enhances GABA action

And

Inhibits synaptic exitation

(used in all types of epilepsy except absensce seizures)

172
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Valpoate?

A

It has a weak effect on GABA transaminase + Na+ channels

173
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Vigabatrin?

A

It inhibits GABA transaminase –> effective for patients which are resistant to other drugs

174
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Tiagabine?

A

It inhibits GABA reuptake

175
Q
A

Year 1 LCRS (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions