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3rd Year Quick Review > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

pupil size in coma:

  • one dilated, nonreactive or sluggish pupil
  • cause
  • examples
A
  • cause: parasympathetic nerve problem
  • oculomotor nerve compression from uncal herniation
  • aneurysm of posterior-communicating artery
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2
Q

pupil size in coma:

  • one pinpoint pupil (miosis)
  • cause
  • examples
A
  • cause: sympathetic nerve problem (Horner)
  • lateral medullary syndrome
  • hypothalamus injury
  • Pancoast tumor
  • carotid dissection
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3
Q

pupil size in coma:

  • two midpoint, nonreactive pupils
  • cause
  • examples
A
  • cause: parasympathetic and sympathetic nerve destruction
  • midbrain disruption (can affect one or both pupils)
  • anoxia
  • hypothermia
  • anticholinergics
  • severe barbituate overdose
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4
Q

pupil size in coma:

  • two dilated, nonreactive pupils
  • examples
A
  • anoxia
  • hypothermia
  • anticholinergics
  • severe barbituate overdose
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5
Q

pupil size in coma:

  • two dilated, nonreactive pupils
  • examples
A
  • opiates

- pontine destruction

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6
Q

what is a seizure?

A
  • paroxysmal electrical discharges of brain that cause LOC
  • alteration of perception or impairment of psychic function
  • convulsive movements
  • disturbance of sensation
  • or some combination thereof
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7
Q

what is epilepsy?

A

recurrent, unprovoked seizures

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8
Q

what is status epilepticus?

A
  • prolonged or repetitive seizures

- life-threatening

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9
Q

what are triggers for seizures in susceptible individuals?

A
  • alcohol
  • cocaine
  • intense emotions
  • strobe lighting
  • loud music
  • stress
  • menstruation
  • lack of sleep
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10
Q

seizures are categorized into what 2 categories?

A
  • GENERALIZED

- FOCAL

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11
Q

focal seizures involve how many sides of the brain, and motor activity is noted on how many sides?

A
  • 1 hemisphere

- usually 1

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12
Q

generalized seizures involve how many sides of the brain, and motor activity is noted on how many sides?

A
  • both hemispheres

- usually both, but not necessarily

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13
Q

focal (partial) seizures are further classified into what categories?

A
  1. simple partial: no LOC
  2. complex partial: LOC
  3. partial w/ secondary generalization
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14
Q

generalized seizures are further classified into what categories?

A
  1. nonconvulsive: absence seizure
  2. convulsive:
    2a. myoclonic
    2b. clonic
    2c. tonic-clonic
    2d. atonic
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15
Q

focal seizures are commonly d/t what?

A

focal brain lesions

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16
Q

primary generalized seizures are more typically d/t what?

A

genetics

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17
Q

if PNES (psychogenic nonepileptic seizures) are suspected or when the events do not respond to tx and the dx is not clear, what should be ordered?

A

video EEG monitoring

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18
Q

what percentage of pts w/ PNES (psychogenic nonepileptic seizures) also have epilepsy?

A

20%

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19
Q

what is an aura?

A

perceptual disturbance that may precede a FOCAL seizure

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20
Q

auras may precede what type of seizure?

A

FOCAL seizures

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21
Q

auras do NOT occur w/?

A

PRIMARY generalized seizures

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22
Q

how can auras manifest?

A
  • SENSES

- MOTOR

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23
Q

auras are thought to be produced by?

A

EARLY seizure activity

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24
Q

describe generalized tonic-clonic seizures

A
  • involve both hemispheres
  • BILATERAL motor involvement
  • LOC
  • pronounced postictal period
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25
Q

describe absence seizures

A
  • nonconvulsive
  • no aura
  • no postictal symptoms
  • sudden interruption of consciousness
  • can be induced by HYPERVENTILATING
  • 3-per-second spike and wave pattern on EEG
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26
Q

what number of children outgrow absence seizures?

A

2/3

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27
Q

describe focal (aka simple partial) seizures

A
  • no LOC

- symptoms depend on affected region of cortex

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28
Q

describe focal seizures w/ diminished consciousness (aka complex partial): temporal lobe type

A
  • aura may hallucination
  • altered behavior/consciousness
  • amnesic
  • automatisms: lip-smacking, chewing or swallowing movements, salivation, fumbling of hands, shuffling of feet
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29
Q

definition of status epilepticus

A
  • seizure lasting > 30 minutes

- 2 or more seizures WITHOUT regaining consciousness in between

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30
Q

when should you be aggressive when treating seizures and use abortive therapy?

A

when seizure lasts 5 minutes or more

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31
Q

what are possible causes of status epilepticus?

A
  • stroke
  • alcohol
  • drugs
  • stopping or changing AEM’s
  • hypoxia
  • CNS infection
  • metabolic causes
  • tumor
  • trauma
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32
Q

seizure management: history

A
  • alcohol use
  • drug use
  • head injury
  • sleep deprivation
  • diabetes
  • thyroid or parathyroid surgery
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33
Q

seizure management: laboratory tests

A
  • glucose
  • Na+
  • Ca++
  • Mg++
  • transaminases
  • BUN
  • LP for VDRL if meningeal sxs
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34
Q

seizure management: best neuroimaging test

A

MRI (to r/o structual abnormality)

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35
Q

seizure management: can confirm dx of seizures and localize the origin

A

EEG

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36
Q

can a NORMAL EEG exclude the dx of epilepsy?

A

NEVER

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37
Q

after initial seizure, RISK OF RECURRENCE increases w/ the following:

A
  • abnormal EEG
  • h/o prior neurological injury
  • family h/o seizures
  • 1st seizure is a FOCAL seizure
  • MRI shows abnormality
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38
Q

ACUTE TX OF SEIZURES

A

IV benzos

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39
Q

typical tx of status epilepticus in adults

A
  1. thiamine, and 1 amp of D50 if blood glucose is low
  2. LORAZEPAM x 2 doses
  3. loading dose of PHENYTOIN/fosphenytoin
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40
Q

tx of status epilepticus if pt continues seizing after initial tx

A
  1. 3rd dose of lorazepam
  2. maximize phenytoin dose
  3. proceed to barbiturate or propofol
  4. +/- ET intubation and ICU care (generally needed if first 2 doses and dose of phenytoin don’t work)
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41
Q

mainstay of chronic tx of seizures

A

AEDs, w/ monotherapy as the preferred goal

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42
Q

PRIMARY DRUG for: focal

A

carbamazepine

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43
Q

advantage of carbamazepine

A

toxicity is UNcommon

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44
Q

disadvantages (adverse effects) of carbamazepine

A
  • hyponatremia
  • leukopenia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • aplastic anemia
  • hepatotoxicity
  • teratogenic
  • liver inducer; reduces OCP efficacy
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45
Q

PRIMARY DRUG for: generalized tonic-clonic

A

valproic acid

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46
Q

advantages of valproic acid

A
  • wide spectrum
  • good efficacy
  • IV form available
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47
Q

disadvantages (adverse effects) of valproic acid

A
  • GI side effects
  • can rarely cause BM suppression and hepatotoxicity/liver failure
  • teratogenic (neural tube defects)
  • tremor
  • weight gain
  • hair loss
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48
Q

PRIMARY DRUG for: absence (only)

A

ethosuximide

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49
Q

disadvantage (adverse effects) of ethosuximide

A

BM suppression (rare)

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50
Q

tx for absence (short-term adjunctive use only)

A

clonazepam

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51
Q

disadvantages (adverse effects) of clonazepam

A

loses efficacy

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52
Q

advantages of levetiracetam

A
  • well tolerated in elderly
  • safe in Asian pts w/ HLA-B*1502 (increased risk of SJS)
  • renally excreted so no interaction w/ levels of other AEDs
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53
Q

disadvantages (adverse effects) of levetiracetam

A
  • depression
  • fatigue
  • irritability
  • increased infections
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54
Q

advantages of gabapentin

A
  • one AED w/ NO significant drug interactions

- renally excreted so useful in pts w/ liver disease

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55
Q

disadvantages (adverse effects) of gabapentin

A
  • ataxia
  • amnesia
  • limited efficacy
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56
Q

advantages of lamotrigine

A
  • wide spectrum
  • good efficacy
  • well tolerated in elderly
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57
Q

disadvantage (adverse effects) of lamotrigine

A

severe rash and SJS w/ rapid titration

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58
Q

last choice tx for focal siezures

A

phenobarbital

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59
Q

disadvantages (adverse effects) of phenobarbital

A
  • sedation in adults
  • hyperactivity in children
  • teratogenic
  • liver inducer; reduces OCP efficacy
  • DECREASES levels of other AEDs
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60
Q

advantages of topiramate

A
  • weight loss

- headache ppx if present

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61
Q

disadvantages (adverse effects) of topiramate

A
  • kidney stones
  • increased glaucoma
  • weight loss
  • paresthesias
  • cognitive dysfunction
  • teratogenic
  • reduces OCP efficacy
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62
Q

which AEDs can be used to tx focal seizures?

A

ALMOST ALL AEDs, EXCEPT ethosuximide

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63
Q

tx for generalized seizures (tonic-clonic)

A
  • TOPIRAMATE
  • LAMOTRIGINE
  • VALPROATE
  • levetiracetam
  • felbamate
  • funinamide
  • zonisamide
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64
Q

tx for generalized seizures (absence)

A
  • lamotrigine
  • ethosuximide
  • valproic acid
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65
Q

when can you STOP AEDs?

A

individualized for each pt

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66
Q

tx options for INTRACTABLE EPILEPSY

A
  • resective surgery
  • vagus nerve stimulation
  • ketogenic diet (works well in children)
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67
Q

which AEDs reduce OCP efficacy? (6)

A
  • phenytoin
  • phenobarbital
  • carbamazepine
  • lamotrigine
  • oxcarbazepine
  • topiramate (higher doses)
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68
Q

uncontrolled seizures during pregnancy can cause

A
  • placental abruption
  • early labor
  • premature delivery
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69
Q

AEDs are still used in pregnancy bc the risk of complications from uncontrolled seizures is even GREATER than

A

risk of teratogenicity

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70
Q

tx strategy for seizures during pregnancy

A
  • control seizures as much as possible
  • MONOTHERAPY
  • LOWEST DOSE possible
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71
Q

MOST LIKELY AED to cause NEURAL TUBE defects

A

valproic acid

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72
Q

teratogenic risk of AEDs is DECREASED by

A

FOLIC ACID

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73
Q

should prophylactic VITAMIN K be given during the last MONTH of pregnancy in pts on AEDs bc of reports of increased bleeding?

A

no, currently not enough evidence

74
Q

what is the definition of dementia?

what is the definition of mild cognitive impairment?
what is the clinical triad in NPH?
how is AD diagnosed?
1st line tx for AD

A
  • chronic cognitive decline w/ or w/o behavioral impairment
  • PROGRESSIVE
  • INTERFERES w/ normal daily functioning
  • NOT d/t DELIRIUM or PSYCHIATRIC D/O
75
Q

dementia is diagnosed ONLY after completion of the following 3 tasks

A
  1. thorough H&P
  2. neuropsychiatric testing
  3. objective cognitive assessment (MMSE or MOCA)
76
Q

how many abnormalities needed to diagnose dementia?

A

2 OR MORE out of 5 DOMAINS

77
Q

which 5 domains may be impaired in pts w/ dementia?

A
  1. memory
  2. executive function
  3. perception
  4. language
  5. behavior
78
Q

typical feature of advanced dementia

A

PSYCHOSIS refractory to treatment

79
Q

what is the dx?

  • when only ONE OR MORE of the DOMAINS is in decline
  • impairment does NOT significantly impact daily functioning
A

mild cognitive impairment (MCI)

80
Q

what are the 2 types of mild cognitive impairment (MCI), and which is more common?

A
  • amnestic and nonamnestic

- AMNESTIC

81
Q

at what rate does mild cognitive impairment (MCI) progress to dementia?

A

5-10% per year

82
Q

what are reversible causes of dementia that need to be r/o when evaluating dementia?

A
  • medications
  • vitamin B12
  • hypothyroidism
  • chronic subdural hematomas
  • normal pressure hydrocephalus
  • tumors
  • infection/inflammation (AIDS, neurosyphilis, neurosarcoidosis, chronic meningitis, lupus cerebritis, vasculitis, autoimmune encephalopathy (such as Hashimoto encephalopathy))
  • heavy metal poisoning (arsenic, mercury, lead)
83
Q
  • enlargement of ventricles w/o obstruction of aqueduct (ie “COMMUNICATING HYDROCEPHALUS)
  • NO cerebral atrophy
A

normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)

84
Q

NPH often occurs after…

A
  • head TRAUMA
  • MENINGITITS
  • SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE
85
Q
  • NORMAL intracranial pressure
  • NO papilledema
  • NO headache
A

normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)

86
Q

classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)

A
  1. gradually worsening dementia
  2. gait apraxia; “magnetic gait”
  3. urinary incontinence
87
Q
  • must differentiate this from NPH
  • more common in pts w/ HTN or DM
  • can present w/ the SAME clinical TRIAD as NPH
A

diffuse white matter disease

88
Q

treatment for NPH

A

VENTRICULOPERITONEAL or VENTRICULOATRIAL SHUNT

89
Q

MC of dementia AFTER 60 YEARS OF AGE

A

Alzheimer disease (AD)

90
Q

diagnosis for Alzheimer disease (AD)

A
  • INSIDIOUS
  • PROGRESSIVE
  • 2 or more impaired domains (memory, executive functioning, perception, language, behavior) causing SIGNIFICANT IMPAIRMENT in normal daily functioning
91
Q

do NOT use these for definitive dx of Alzheimer disease (AD)

A
  • MRI
  • PET scan
  • CSF tau measurements
92
Q

why should MRI, PET scan, and CSF tau measurements NOT be used for dx of Alzheimer disease (AD)?

A

NOT SPECIFIC ENOUGH

93
Q

when should a dx of Alzheimer disease (AD) NOT be made?

A
  • h/o cerebrovascular disease
  • clinical features of frontotemporal dementia
  • clinical features of dementia w/ Lewy bodies
  • evidence of another psych or neuro illness
  • takes meds that cause cognitive impairment
94
Q

what are the main diagnoses to consider in elderly pt w/ dementia w/o movement d/o?

A
  • Alzheimer dz
  • VASCULAR dementia
  • MIXED dementia (w/ both neurodegenerative and vascular components)
95
Q

1st line tx for Alzheimer dz

A
  • CHOLINESTERASE INHIBITORS (CIs)
  • donepezil (Aricept)
  • rivastigmine (Exelon)
  • galantamine (Razadyne)
96
Q

what ADDITIVE drug tx can be used for Alzheimer dz?

A

memantine (Namenda)

N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonist

97
Q

what is better for tx of Alzheimer dz, especially advanced AD?

A

COMBINATION of CI and memantine

98
Q

can you use cholinesterase inhibitors and memantine for MCI?

A

NO

99
Q

what are the cholinergic sxs d/t adverse effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A
  • anorexia
  • nausea
  • diarrhea
  • bradycardia
100
Q

which atypical antipsychotics can used to tx agitation, insomnia, delusions, aggression, and wandering, but can INCREASE MORTALITY?

A
  • olanzapine
  • quetiapine
  • risperidone
  • clozapine
101
Q

what are the 2 general categories for dementia caused by cerebrovascular dz?

A
  1. MULTI-INFARCT dementia

2. DIFFUSE WHITE MATTER disease (Binswanger dz)

102
Q

characteristics of multi-infarct dementia

A
  • d/t several strokes (large or small) in different brain regions
  • have prominent motor, reflex, visual, and gait abnormalities
  • do NOT have difficulty NAMING objects
  • ABRUPT onset
  • STEPWISE deterioration of mental function
  • different from ALZHEIMER’S which is SLOW and steady
103
Q

MCC of diffuse white matter dz

A

chronic HTN

104
Q

similar in presentation and course to Alzheimer dz

A

frontotemporal dementia (previously Pick dz)

105
Q

difference between frontotemporal dementia and Alzheimer dz

A
  • MORE RAPID
  • DISINHIBITION
  • LANGUAGE DEFICITS
  • onset in 5th to 6th decade of life
  • males > females
106
Q

CT or MRI scan results of ALzheimer pt

A

diffuse brain atrophy

107
Q

CT or MRI scan results of frontotemporal dementia pt

A

MORE FOCAL ATROPHY of frontal and temporal lobes

108
Q

only sure way to differentiate between Alzheimer and frontotemporal dementia pts

A

histologically at autopsy

109
Q

one of the very rare PRION dzs

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

110
Q

how is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) subdivided?

A
  • SPORADIC (most typical, 95%)
  • FAMILIAL (about 5%)
  • IATROGENIC
  • VARIANT
111
Q

when does sCJD (sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) usually present, and what causes it?

A
  • 55-65 yoa

- we have no idea!

112
Q

when you see CJD in younger pts, think of

A

iCJD or vCJD

113
Q

what is believed to be the cause of vCJD?

A

prion causing “MAD COW DISEASE” (bovine spongiform encephalopathy)

114
Q

what causes iCJD?

A
  • receipt of infected human tissues (dural grafts, corneal transplant, or liver transplant)
  • receipt of infected hormones (eg GH, or gonadotropins)
  • exposure to contaminated surgical instruments)
115
Q

characteristics of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

A
  • RAPIDLY PROGRESSIVE dementia (weeks, not years)

- startle MYOCLONUS (startle to loud noises)

116
Q
  • changes in behavior
  • changes in emotional response
  • changes in intellectual function
  • ataxia
  • visual distortions
  • confusion
  • hallucinations
  • delusions
  • agitation
  • dementia
  • muteness
A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

117
Q

younger pts w/ vCJD have dementia w/ what predominant features?

A

PSYCHOTIC

118
Q

gold standard for diagnosing Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

A

brain BIOPSY

119
Q

other supportive studies for diagnosing Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

A
  • MRI
  • EEG
  • 14-3-3 PROTEIN in CSF
120
Q

mortality rate of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

A

fatal in < 1 yr in > 90% of pts

121
Q

treatment for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

A

none

122
Q

cause of Parkinson dz (PD)

A

loss of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra

123
Q

what percentage of Parkinson dz (PD) develop dementia?

A

80%

124
Q

dementia in Parkinson dz (PD) pts primarily affects what?

A
  • EXECUTIVE FUNCTIONS

- ATTENTION

125
Q

when dementia PRECEDES or develops w/i 1 year after onset of motor dysfunction, it is referred to as

A

DEMENTIA W/ LEWY BODIES (DLB)

126
Q

clinical features of dementia w/ Lewy bodies (DLB), besides dementia

A
  • spontaneous motor features of parkinsonism
  • recurrent, vivid visual hallucinations
  • prominent fluctuations of attention and cognition
127
Q

which med spares D2 dopamine receptor and can be helpful in PDD and DLB?

A

CLOZAPINE

128
Q

which meds are not good for dementia w/ Lewy bodies (DLB)?

A

older antipsychotic drugs; haloperidol and chlorpromazine

129
Q

which meds are under FDA SAFETY ADVISORY bc they are associated w/ an INCREASED RISK OF DEATH in elderly pts w/ dementia, especially DLB?

A

antipsychotic drugs

130
Q
  • dementia
  • usually occurs in 6th decade of life
  • GAZE PALSY
  • abrupt falls
A

progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)

131
Q
  • DEMENTIA
  • MOVEMENT DISORDER
  • autosomal dominant w/ complete penetrance
A

Huntington disease

132
Q

what gene is responsible for Huntington disease (HD)?

A

HTT gene on chromosome 4p

133
Q

when does Huntington disease (HD) occur?

A

LATE 30s

134
Q

what are sxs of Huntington disease (HD)?

A
  • dementia
  • CHOREA
  • psychiatric disturbances (personality changes, depression, and PSYCHOSIS)
135
Q

dx for Huntington disease (HD)

A
  • positive family hx
  • clinical features
  • genetic testing for HTT gene
136
Q

imaging finding in Huntington disease (HD)

A

caudate nuclei atrophy (“boxcar” ventricles)

137
Q

cure for Huntington disease (HD)?

A

none, FATAL

138
Q

tx for MILD CHOREA in Huntington disease (HD)

A

tetrabenazine

139
Q

adverse effects of tetrabenzapine

A
  • depression
  • sedation
  • bradykinesia
140
Q

MCC of dementia in younger pts

A

AIDS

141
Q
  • cognitive impairment
  • movement d/o
  • depression
  • HIV
A

HIV-associated dementia (HAD)

142
Q

what is “pseudodementia?”

A

significant cognitive dysfunction in pts w/ MAJOR DEPRESSION

143
Q

what is one differentiating feature seen in moderate or advanced dementia, but NOT pseudodementia?

A

FRONTAL LOBE release signs (grasp, suck, rooting, and palmomental reflexes)

144
Q

is commonly poor in depression d/t attentional dysfunction, but good in dementia pts

A

immediate recall

145
Q

what is delirium?

A
  • acute, often transient, altered mental status

- typically occurs w/i hours to days

146
Q

in whom and where is delirium most commonly seen?

A
  • hospitalized elderly pts

- ICU pts

147
Q

dx delirium

A
  • clinical
  • decreased attention span
  • varying states of confusion
148
Q

most crucial aspects in dx type and etiology of a headache

A

history and physical

149
Q

what history must be determined when dx a headache?

A
  • QUALITY of pain (dull, sharp, throbbing, constant)
  • LOCATION
  • DURATION
  • EXACERBATING factors
  • ALLEVIATING factors
  • associated sxs
150
Q

how are headaches classified?

A

primary or secondary

151
Q

what are the primary types of headache? (5)

A
  1. migraine
  2. tension-type headache
  3. cluster headache
  4. other trigeminal autonomic cephalgias
  5. other headaches
152
Q

what are the characteristics of primary headache?

A
  • chronic
  • recurrent
  • w/o signs of neurologic dz
153
Q

what are the secondary types of headache? (10)

A
  1. d/t hemorrhage
  2. head/neck trauma
  3. benign intracranial HTN
  4. brain tumors
  5. cranial/cervical vascular d/o
  6. substance abuse/withdrawal
  7. infection
  8. homeostasis d/o
  9. facial pain
  10. psychiatric d/o
154
Q

what hemorrhage can cause severe headache?

A

subarachnoid

155
Q

what are some examples of cranial/cervical vascular d/o that can cause headache?

A
  • carotid dissection
  • sinus venous thrombosis
  • giant cell arteritis
156
Q

what are some examples of substances or their withdrawal that can cause headache?

A
  • nitrates
  • EtOH
  • caffeine
157
Q

what are some examples of infection that can cause headache?

A
  • meningitis

- encephalitis

158
Q

what are some examples of homeostasis d/o that can cause headache?

A
  • HTN

- hyperviscosity

159
Q

what are some examples of facial pain that can cause headache?

A
  • cranium
  • neck
  • eyes
  • sinuses
  • teeth
  • trigeminal neuralgia
  • herpes zoster
160
Q
  • typical
  • largely familial d/o
  • periodic
  • often U/L
  • pulsatile (throbbing) pain
  • begin in childhood, adolescence, or early adulthood, and diminish in frequency w/ age
A

migraine headache

161
Q

definition of EPISODIC migraine headache

A

< 15 headaches/month

162
Q

definition of CHRONIC migraine headache

A

> 15 headaches/month x 3 months

163
Q

triggers for migraine headaches

A
  • emotional stress
  • foods (eg chocolate, AGED CHEESE, foods rich in tyramine
  • alcohol
  • menstruation
  • glare
  • strong sensory stimuli (eg perfume)
  • rapid changes in barometric pressure
164
Q

what % of migraine headaches have an aura?

A

25%

165
Q

most common visual sxs in migraine w/ AURA

A
  • sparkling lights (scintillating scotomata)

- jagged zigzag lines (fortification spectra)

166
Q

how long do migraine auras last?

A

5-60 minutes

167
Q

what do longer than usual migraine auras represent?

A

complicated migraine or concern for stroke

168
Q

how much more typical is a migraine withOUT aura than one w/?

A

5x

169
Q
  • visual phenomena that occupy BOTH visual fields (temporary cortical blindness)
  • vertigo
  • dysarthria
  • INCOORDINATION of limbs
  • diplopia
  • tingling
  • headache that affects BRAINSTEM
A

basilar migraine

170
Q
  • migraine w/o headache

- abnormal transient neurologic dysfunction

A

acephalic migraine

171
Q

multiple or virtually continuous headaches w/ scalp tenderness, > 72 hours

A

status migrainosus

172
Q

diagnosis for migraine headache

A

HISTORY

173
Q

if pt presents w/ typical migraine sxs, next step?

A

FIRST give TREATMENT TRIAL

174
Q

initial study for migraine w/ atypical sxs, HA pattern change, seizure, or focal neurologic sxs

A

CTH w/ and w/o contrast

175
Q

what is ACUTE tx for migraine headache?

A

any tx given WITHIN FIRST HOUR of HA

176
Q

what are some effective txs for acute migraine?

A
  • acetaminophen
  • aspirin
  • NSAIDs
177
Q

1st line treatment for migraine

A

TRIPTANS

sumaTRIPTAN, zolmiTRIPTAN, rizaTRIPTAN, naraTRIPTAN, almoTRIPTAN, eleTRIPTAN, frovaTRIPTAN

178
Q

which triptan works the fastest?

A

rizaTRIPTAN

179
Q

which triptan has 3 methods of delivery, injection, intranasal, and PO?

A

sumaTRIPTAN

180
Q

which tx combination for migraine HA works synergistically and better than taking either as monotherapy?

A

sumaTRIPTAN and naproxen

181
Q

when are triptans CI bc of r/o inducing ischemia?

A
  • complicated or basilar migraines
  • CHD or Prinzmetal angina
  • h/o stroke
  • uncontrolled BP
  • pregnancy
182
Q

which 2 medications are effective for termination of migraine in pts who present to the ER w/ VOMITING?

A
  • PROCHLORPERAZINE

- METOCLOPRAMIDE

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