Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Neurology - 2 > Flashcards

Neurology - 2 Flashcards

1
Q

List the vagal nuclei.

A
  1. Nucleus solitarius
  2. Nucleus ambiguus
  3. Dorsal motor nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the function of nucleus solitarius and which CN are involved?

A

Visceral sensory information (eg, taste, baroreceptors, gut distention) - CN VII, IX, X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of nucleus ambiguus?

A

Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx, upper esophagus (eg, swallowing palate elevation) - CN XI, X, XI (cranial portion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of the dorsal motor nucleus?

A

Sends autonomic (parasympathetic) fibers to heart, lungs, upper GI - CN X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List the 5 cranial nerve reflexes.

A
  1. Corneal
  2. Lacrimation
  3. Jaw jerk
  4. Pupillary
  5. Gag
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the afferent and efferent components of the corneal reflex?

A

A - V1 ophthalmic (nasociliary branch)

E - VII (temporal branch - orbicularis oculi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the afferent and efferent components of the lacrimation reflex?

A

A - V1 (loss of reflex does not preclude emotional tears)

E - VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the afferent and efferent components of the jaw jerk?

A

A - V3 (sensory - muscle spindle from masseter)

E - V3 (motor - masseter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the afferent and efferent components of the pupillary reflex?

A

A - II

E - III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the afferent and efferent components of the gag reflex?

A

A - IX

E - X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the muscles of mastication, their function, and innervation?

A

3 muscles close the jaw - masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid (M’s munch)
1 muscle opens the jaw - lateral ptyergoid (lateral lowers)
All are innervated by V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs (8cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where do the spinal nerves exit?

A

C1-C7 exit above the corresponding vertebra
C8 exists below C7 and above T1
All others - exit below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture usually performed and why?

A

L3-L4 or L4-L5 (level of cauda equina)

Spinal cord ends at lower border of L1-L2; subarachnoid space (contains CSF) extends to lower border of S2

Goal - obtain CSF without damaging the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List the ascending tracts of the spinal cord.

A
  1. Dorsal column

2. Spinothalamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the descending tracts of the spinal cord.

A
  1. Corticospinal tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of the ascending tracts of the spinal cord?

A
  1. Dorsal column - pressure, vibration, fine touch, proprioception
  2. Spinothalamic tract (lateral) - pain, temperature
  3. Spinothalamic tract (anterior) - crude touch, pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function of the descending tract of the spinal cord?

A

Voluntary movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the dorsal column pathway.

A
  1. Sensory nerve ending -> bypass pseudounipolar cell body in dorsal root ganglion -> enter spinal cord -> ascend ipsilaterally in the dorsal columns (fasciculus gracilis from the lower body/legs, fasciculus cuneatus from the upper body/arms)
  2. Synapse #1 in the nucleus gracilis or nucleus cuneatus (ipsilateral medulla)
  3. Decussates in the medulla -> ascends contralaterally in the medial lemniscus
  4. Synapse #2 in the VPL (thalamus) -> sensory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the spinothalamic tract.

A
  1. Sensory nerve ending (A-delta and C fibers) -> bypass pseudounipolar cell body in dorsal root ganglion -> enter spinal cord
  2. Synapse #1 in the ipsilateral gray matter (spinal cord)
  3. Decussates at the anterior white commissure -> ascends contralaterally
  4. Synapse #2 in the VPL (thalamus) -> sensory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the lateral corticospinal tract.

A
  1. UMN: cell body in the primary motor cortex -> descends ipsilaterally through the internal capsule, most fibers decussate at the caudal medulla (pyramidal decussation) -> descend contralaterally
  2. Synapse #1 - cell body of anterior horn (spinal cord)
  3. LMN: leaves spinal cord
  4. Synapse #2 - NMJ -> muscle fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the clinical reflexes and what they test.

A
  1. Achilles reflex - S1, S2 (buckle my shoe)
  2. Patellar reflex - L3, L4 (kick the door)
  3. Biceps and brachioradialis reflexes - C5, C6 (pick up sticks)
  4. Triceps reflex - C7, C8 (lay them straight)
  5. Cremasteric reflex - L1, L2 (testicles move)
  6. Anal wink reflex - S3, S4 (winks galor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why might primitive reflexes re-emerge in adults?

A

Frontal lobe lesion (frontal lobe normally inhibits them)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the moro reflex?

A

Abduct/extend arms when started, and then draw together (“Han on for life”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the rooting reflex?

A

Movement of head toward one side if cheek or mouth is stroked (nipple seeking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the sucking reflex?

A

Sucking response when roof of mouth is touched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the palmar reflex?

A

Curling of fingers if palm is stroked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the plantar reflex?

A

Dorsiflexion of large toe and fanning fo other toes with plantar stimulation (Babinski sign in adult)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the galant reflex?

A

Stroking along one side of the spine while the newborn is in ventral suspension (face down) causes lateral flexion of lower body toward stimulated side

30
Q

Nerve - posterior half of the skull dermatome

A

C2

31
Q

Nerve - high turtleneck shirt dermatome

A

C3

32
Q

Nerve - low-collar shirt dermatome

A

C4

33
Q

Nerve - includes the thumbs dermatome

A

C6

34
Q

Nerve - at the nipple dermatome

A

T4

35
Q

Nerve - at the xiphoid process dermatome

A

T7

36
Q

Nerve - at the umbilicus dermatome

A

T10

37
Q

Nerve - at the inguinal ligament dermatome

A

L1

38
Q

Nerve - includes the kneecaps dermatome

A

L4

39
Q

Nerve - erection and sensation of penil and anal zones

A

S2, S3, S4

40
Q

Diaphragm and gallbladder refer pain to the ___ via the ___ nerves.

A

Right shoulder; phrenic (C3-C5)

41
Q

Trace sound waves through the ear to the brain stem.

A
  1. Outer ear (pinna, auditory canal, eardrum) transfers sound waves via vibration of the eardrum
  2. Air-filled space of the middle ear contains three bones (ossicles); these conduct and amplify sound from the eardrum to the inner ear
  3. The inner ear (snail-shaped, fluid-filled cochlea) contains the basilar membrane that vibrates secondary to sound waves. The vibration is transduced via specialized hair cells -> auditory nerve signaling -> brain stem.
42
Q

Where do low and high frequencies localize to on the basilar membrane (tonotopy)?

A

Low frequency - apex near helicotrema (wide and flexible)

High frequency - base of cochlea (thin and rigid)

43
Q

Explain how to diagnose conductive vs. sensorineural hearing loss.

A

Conductive - abnormal Rinne test, Weber test localizes to affected ear

Sensorineural - normal Rinne test (air > bone), localizes to unaffected ear

44
Q

Describe the path of aqueous humor through the eye.

A
  1. Produced by non-pigmented epithelium on the ciliary body, secreted into posterior eye chamber
  2. Travels through the pupil to the iridocorneal angle
    3a. Uveoscleral outflow (10%) - drainage into uvea and sclera
    3b. Trabecular outflow (90%) - drainage through the trabecular network -> canal of Schlemm -> episcleral vasculature
45
Q

Define miosis.

A

Pupillary constriction

46
Q

How is miosis controlled?

A

Parasympathetics
1st neuron: Edinger-Westphal nucleus to ciliary ganglion via CN III
2nd neuron: short ciliary nerve to sphincter pupillae muscles

47
Q

Explain the pupillary light reflex.

A

Light in either retina sends a signal via CN II to the pretectal nuclei in the midbrain that activates bilateral Edinger-Westphal nuclei. The pupils contract bilaterally (consensual reflex)

48
Q

Define mydriasis.

A

Dilation

49
Q

How is mydriasis controlled?

A

Sympathetic nervous system
1st neuron: hypothalamus to ciliospinal center of Budge (C8-T2)
2nd neuron: exit at T1 to superior cervical ganglion (travels along cervical sympathetic chain near lung apex, subclavian vessels)
3rd neuron: plexus along internal carotid, through cavernous sinus; enters orbit as long ciliary nerve to pupillary dilator muscles. Sympathetic fibers also innervate smooth muscle of eyelids and sweat glands of forehead and face

50
Q

What is the cavernous sinus?

A

Collection of venous sinuses on either side of pituitary; blood from eye and superficial cortex -> cavernous sinus -> internal jugular vein

51
Q

What cranial nerves pass through the cavernous sinus?

A

III, IV, V1, VI, and occasionally V2 plus postganglionic sympathetic pupillary fibers en route to the orbit

52
Q

CNS drugs must be ___-soluble or be transported actively across the ___.

A

Lipid; BBB

53
Q

Anesthetics with ___ solubility in blood have rapid induction and recovery times.

A

Decreased

54
Q

Anesthetics with ___ solubility in lipids have increased potency.

A

Increased

55
Q

Minimal alveolar concentration of inhaled asthetic = ?

A

Minimal alveolar concentration required to prevent 50% of subjects from moving in response to noxious stimulus (eg, skin incision); inversely related to potency

56
Q

Discuss the solubility of nitrous oxide (N2O).

A

Decreased blood and lipid solubility -> fast induction and low potency

57
Q

Discuss the solubility of halothane.

A

Increased blood and lipid solubility -> slow induction and high potency

58
Q

What does a high blood/gas partition coefficient indicate?

A

More soluble in blood -> slower equilibration with brain -> longer onset

59
Q

Type 1 vs. type 2 muscles - type of twitch, color of fibers

A

Type 1 - slow twitch, red fibers

Type 2 - fast-twitch, white fibers

60
Q

Why are type 1 fibers red?

A

Increased mitochondria and myoglobin concentration (for increased oxidative phosphorylation -> sustained contraction)

61
Q

The proportion of type ___ muscle increases after endurance training. The proportion of ___ type muscle increases after weight/resistance training and sprinting.

A

Type 1; type 2

62
Q

Review smooth muscle contraction.

A

Page 434

63
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Formation of bones of axial skeleton, appendicular skeleton, and base of skull; the cartilaginous model of bone is first made by chondrocytes. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts later replace with woven bone and then remodel to lamellar bone.

64
Q

What is membranous ossificaiton?

A

Formation of bones of calvarium, facial bones, clavicle; woven bone formed directly without cartilage, later remodeled to lamellar bone

65
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

Build bone by secreting collagen and catalyzing mineralization in alkaline environment via ALP; differentiates from mesenchymal stem cells in the periosteum and bone marrow.

66
Q

How is osteoblastic activity measured?

A

Bone ALP, osteocalcin, propeptides of type I procollagen

67
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Dissolve bone by secreting H+ and collagenases; differentiates from a fusion of monocyte/macrophage lineage precursors

68
Q

How can osteoblasts and clasts be differentiated by appearance?

A

Blasts - single nucleus

Clasts - multinucleated

69
Q

How does PTH affect bone?

A

At low, intermittent levels, it exerts anabolic (building) effects on osteoblasts and osteoclasts (indirect). Chronically increased PTH (primary hyperparathyroidism) causes catabolic effects -. osteitis fibrosa cystica

70
Q

How does estrogen affect bone?

A

Inhibits apoptosis in bone-forming osteoblasts and induces apoptosis in bone-resorbing osteoclasts; causes closure of epiphyseal plate during puberty. Deficiency leads to increased cycles of remodeling and bone resorption and an increased risk of osteoporosis

Step 1 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions