Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two major types of synapse

A

Chemial: Main type with a neurotransmitter action
Electrical: direct connection between neurons via gap junctions, allows bi-directional flow

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2
Q

Which ion is responsible for mediation neurotransmitter release from vesicles at the synaptic cleft

A

Calcium

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3
Q

What are the two main categories of neurotransmitter

A

Small-molecule transmitters - Fast acting
class 1 (ACh), 2 (Amines - e.g. NE), 3 (Amino acids e.g. GABA), 4 - Nitric oxide

Neuropeptides - slow acting

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4
Q

What are the two types of postsynaptic potential

A
  • Exictatiory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) - increases membrane permeability to Na+ and likelihood for AP
  • Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) - increased permeability to CL- in or K+ out - hyperpolarisation and reduced likelihood AP
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5
Q

What are the two types of signal summation

A

Spatial Summation: Addition of potentials from multiple synapses activated simultaneously across the neuron

Temporal Summation: Addition of potentials from repeated activation of the same synapse within a short time period

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6
Q

Describe the main anatomical features of the sympathetic nervous system

A
  • spinal cord segments T1-L2,
  • pass into sympathetic chain then to organs
  • Preganglionic fibres can synapse in the sympathetic chain ganglia, peripheral vertebral ganglia or transmit up/down to other ganglia in SC
  • Some preganglionic neurons pass straight to adrenal medulla
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7
Q

Describe the main anatomical features of the parasympathetic nervous system

A
  • Leave CNS via CN 3,7,9,10
  • Sacral spinal nerves S1-4
  • Preganglionic fibres typically extend to the target organ
  • Postganglionic fibres are short
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8
Q

Cholinergic fibres are present in which autonomic neurons, and secrete which substance

A
  • All preganglionic neurons (sympathetic and parasympathetic)
  • Almost all parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
  • Some sympathetic postganglionic neurons (sweat glands, some blood vessels)
  • Acetylcholine
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9
Q

Adrenergic fibres are present in which autonomic neurons, and secrete which substance

A
  • Most sympathetic postganglionic neurons
  • Norepinephrine
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10
Q

How is acetylcholine synthesised

A
  • In terminal nerve endings
  • Acetyl-CoA + choline –> choline acetyl transferase –> Acetylcholine
  • Stored in vesicles ready for release
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11
Q

After acetylcholine has been secreted what happens to it

A
  • split into acetate ion and choline
  • by acetylcholinesterase
  • choline transported back into nerve endings
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12
Q

How is norepinephrine synthesised

A
  • In the axoplasm and completes in secretory vesicles
  • Tyrosine –> Hydroxylation –> Dopa
  • Dopa –> decarbylation –> Dopamine
  • Dopamine transported to vesicles –> hydroxylation –> Norepinephrine
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13
Q

After norepinephrine has been secreted what happens to it

A
  • 50-80% taken back up into nerve endings
  • Some diffuses into blood
  • Some destroyed by enzymens (monoamine oxidase)
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14
Q

Which receptors are cholinergic and list some of their features

A

Muscarinic receptors:
* Use G-proteins
* on effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons

Nicotinic receptors:
* Use ligand-gated ion channels
* in autonomic ganglia at synapses between pre- and postganglionic neurons
* Also at many non-autonomic nerve endings e.g. skeletal muscle

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15
Q

Which receptors are adrenergic and list some of their features

A

Alpha receptors (α1, α2):
- G proteins
- vasoconstriction, iris dilation, intestinal relaxation, bladder sphincter contraction

Beta receptors (β1, β2, β3): G proteins - generally cause:
- (β1) - cardio acceleration, increased myocardial strength, lipolysis
- (β2) - Vasodilation, intestinal relaxation, bronchodilation, glycogenolysis, bladder wall relaxation
- (β3) - thermogenesis

  • Norepinephrine excites mainly alpha receptors
  • Epinephrine excites both alpha and beta equally
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16
Q

Give an examples of sympathomimetic drug

A

Norepinephrine, epinephrine, phenylephrine (α), isoproterenol (β), albuterol (β2)

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17
Q

Give an example of an alpha blocker

A
  • General - phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine
  • Selective alpha1 adrenergic blockers include prazosin and terazosin
  • Selective alpha2 receptors yohimbine
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18
Q

Give and examples of beta blockers

A
  • Both beta1 and beta2 receptors - propranolol
  • Beta1 receptors are atenolol
19
Q

Give and exampel of a parasympathomimetic drug

A

Pilocarpine

20
Q

Give and example fo a drug which has parasympathetic potentiation effect

A

Anticholinesterases: Neostigmine, pyridostigmine

21
Q

What is the blood brain barrier and blood CSF barrier permeable/impermeable to

A
  • highly permeable to water, O2, CO2, and lipid-soluble substance
  • slightly permeable to electrolytes (Na, Cl, K)
  • Almost impermeable to proteins and large non-lipid-soluble molecules
22
Q

What are the main areas of the cerebrum

A
  • Olfactory bulb (sensory)
  • Frontal lobe (motor/sensory)
  • Parietal lobe (motor/sensory)
  • Temporal lobe (motor/sensory)
  • Occipital lobe (sensory)
23
Q

What are the main areas for neurolocalisation?

A

Forebrain - Cerebrum and thalamic area
Cerebellum
Brainstem (medulla, pons, midbrain)
Spinal cord
○ C1-C5 spinal cord segments
○ C6-T2
○ T3-L3
○ L4-S3
Peripheral nerves
Lumbosacral and brachial plexus

24
Q

Describe the localisation and features of a decerebrate rigidity

A
  • Lesion in brainstem
  • Comatose, opisthotonus, extension and increased tone in all limbs
  • Poor prognosis
25
Q

Describe the localisation and features of a decerebellate rigidity

A
  • Cerebellar lesion (rostral)
  • Consciousness not impaired, opisthotonus, increased tone in FL flexed/neutral HL
  • No implication for prognosis
26
Q

Describe the localisation and features of a Shiff-Sherrington rigidity

A
  • Spinal cord - T3-L3
  • Opisthotonus, Forelimbs extended and increased tone, can often ambulate on FL
  • Hindlimbs decreased tone (plegia/paresis)
  • Happens because you lose inhibition (of border cells) of the extensor forelimbs, when they stand up overtaken by the proprioception
27
Q

How does a radial neuropathy present

A

Inability to extend the elbow/carpus (partially flexed non weight bearing position)

28
Q

How does a tibial neuropathy present

A

Plantigrade stance

29
Q

What are the three types of ataxia

A
  • Proprioceptive - wide based stance, swaying, paresis
  • Cerebellar - dysmetria
  • Vestibular - unilateral falling and leaning, bilateral crouches with wide head moevement
30
Q

Name the cranial nerves and whether they have sensory/motor or autonomic function

A
  1. Olfactory - S
  2. Optic - S
  3. Oculomotor - M
  4. Trochlear - M
  5. Trigeminal - B
  6. Abducens- M
  7. Facial - B
  8. Vestibulocochlear - S
  9. Glossopharyngeal - B
  10. Vagus - B
  11. Accessory - M
  12. Hypoglossal - M

Autonomic - 3,7,9,10

31
Q

Name which regions of the brain the crainal nerves originate from

A

1 - olfactory bulb
2 - optic extension of thalamus
3+4 - Midbrain
5 - Pons
7-12 - Medulla oblongata

32
Q

CN I Olfactory
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Smell
  • Not tested
  • Anosmia
33
Q

CN II Optic
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Vision
  • Menace response, tracting, PLR
  • Blindness, dilater or unresponsive pupils
34
Q

CN III Oculomotor
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Motor to extraocular muscles, parasympathetic to pupil
  • Physiologic nystagmus, resting eye position, PLR
  • Ventrolateral strabismus, Ptosis, pupil dilation, absent PLR
35
Q

CN IV Trochlear
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • motor to dorsal oblique extraocular muscle
  • resting eye position (cat), fudic (dog)
  • Dorsomedial stabismus cat, lateral deviation retinal vein dog
36
Q

CN V Trigeminal
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Motor to muscles of mastication (mandibular branch); sensory to face (ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular branches)
  • Jaw tone, masticatory muscle mass, facial and corneal sensation
  • MM atrophy, dropped jaw, decreased facial sensation
37
Q

CN VI Abducens
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Motor to lateral rectus and retractor bulbi
  • Physiologic nystagmus; resting eyeball position
  • Medial strabismus
38
Q

CN VII Facial
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Motor to muscles of facial expression; parasympathetic to lacrimal glands; sensory (taste) to rostral tongue
  • Menace response; palpebral reflex; lip retraction; ear movement; Schirmer tear test
  • Inability to close eyelid, move ear, or retract lip; deviation of nasal philtrum (contralateral); dry eye
39
Q

CN VIII Vestibulocochlear
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Balance, hearing
  • Body and head posture, gait, eye movement and position, hearing
  • Head tilt, vestibular ataxia, nystagmus, positional strabismus, deafness
40
Q

CN IX Glossopharyngeal
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Sensory and motor to pharynx
  • Gag reflex; ability to swallow
  • Diminished gag reflex; dysphagia
41
Q

CN X Vagus
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Sensory and motor to pharynx, larynx, and viscera
  • Gag reflex; oculocardiac reflex
  • Diminished gag reflex; dysphagia; laryngeal paralysis; megaoesophagus
42
Q

CN XI Accessory
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Motor to trapezius
  • Evaluation of muscle mass
  • Atrophy of trapezius
43
Q

CN XII Hypoglossal
Name the function, test and signs of dysfunction

A
  • Motor to tongue muscles
  • Evaluation of tongue
  • Atrophy/asymmetry of tongue, inability to retract tongue if bilateral