Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What does this scan show?

A

Anterior cerebral artery aneurysm bleed

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2
Q

Circle of Willis

A
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3
Q

What are the side effects of ocrelizumab?

A

Anti CD20 for MS

  • infusion reactions
    -respiratory tract infections
  • malignancy including breast Ca
  • hepatitis B reactivation
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4
Q

What are side effects of dopamine agonists in PD?

A

Dopamine agonists generally preferred in younger patients; avoid in older due to ADRs
examples - pramipexole, ropinirole, rotigotine, cabergoline

ADRs
- nausea, vomiting
- drowsiness
- hallucinations, confusion
- orthostatic hypotension
- impulse control disorders
- can get dyskinesias but less common than levodopa
- abrupt cessation leads to dopamine agonist withdrawal syndrome (anxiety, panic attacks, dysphoria, depression, dizziness / orthostatic hypotension)

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5
Q

What are the clinical features of GBS?

A

Typical features of AIDP (most common variant of GBS)
- acute onset, symmetrically, bilateral rapidly progressive ascending flaccid weakness
- reduced or absent tendon reflexes
- sensory symptoms - paraesthesia, radicular back pain
- dysautonomia (70%) - cardiac arrhythmia, labile BP, excessive sweating, ileus
- respiratory muscle weakness -> can progress to respiratory failure (10-30%)
- monophasic illness pattern
- interval between onset of illness and nadir of weakness is between 12 hours - 28 days

Symptoms atypical for GBS
- weakness progresses to nadir <24 hours or > 4 weeks
- sensory level
- asymmetric weakness
- bowel & bladder dysfunction at onset
- pulmonary dysfunction with little or no limb weakness at onset
- isolated sensory signs with no weakness at onset
- fever at onset

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6
Q

What are the indications for intubation in GBS?

A

FVC < 20 mL/kg or 60% predicted
Maximum inspiratory pressure < 30 cm H20
Maximum expiratory pressure < 40 cm H20

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7
Q

Why is carbidopa co-administered with levodopa?

A

Carbidopa is a peripheral carboxylase inhibitor
This prevents peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine
This prevents side effects including nausea, vomiting, orthostatic hypotension

Peripheral dopamine does not cross BBB
By preventing peripheral conversion with peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor, smaller doses of levodopa are required to achieve intended therapeutic effects centrally

In patients with significant nausea, may need supplemental doses of carbidopa

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8
Q
A
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9
Q

What does this scan show?

A

Non-contrast CTB showing an acute L) sided basal ganglia haemorrhage (most likely due to hypertension) with intraventricular extension with partial effacement of left lateral ventricle with no significant hydrocephalus or midline shift

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10
Q

At what level does the spinal cord end? Where should a LP be performed?

A

Spinal cord ends at L1

Conus terminalis is at L1/2

LP should be at L3/4 or L4/5

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11
Q

Absolute & relative contraindications to thrombolysis

A

Absolute contraindications
- extensive hypoattenuation on CT
- intracranial neoplasms
- current or prior intracranial bleed or suspicion for SAH
- severe head trauma in last 3 months
- intracranial or intraspinal surgery
- platelets <100
- INR > 1.7
- APTT >40
- clexane in last 24 hours
- suspicion for current endocarditis
- active GI or internal bleed
- aortic arch dissection

Relative contraindications
- mild & non-disabling symptoms
- stroke in last 3 months
- post-partum period
- arterial puncture of non-compressible site
- anterior STEMI in last 3 months
- major trauma in last 14 days
- major surgery in last 13 days
- NOAC
- bleeding diathesis (renal failure, liver failure, haem issues)
- large or giant aneurysm or other intracranial vascular malformation

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12
Q

What does this MRI show?

A

Right optic nerve shows enhancement on post contrast T1 weighted image suggestive of optic neuritis

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13
Q

What is the utility of diffusion weighted and FLAIR (fluid attenuated inversion recovery) MRI in acute stroke?

A

Infarct that is seen on DWI but NOT on FLAIR is likely to be within the 4.5 hour time window for thrombolysis

DWI-FLAIR mismatch on MRI can be used to select patients for thrombolysis when timing of symptom onset is unknown

Lancet 2011 trial - less intracranial haemorrhage and better functional outcome at 90 days with use of DWI-FLAIR to identify patients for thrombolysis

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14
Q

What are the features of conus medullaris syndrome?

A
  • at L1- L2 level
  • acute, bilateral onset
  • less marked motor weakness (UMN); symmetrical
  • early & severe sphincter dysfunction
  • saddle anaesthesia with dissociative sensory loss
  • less severe pain; symmetrical

Causes - disc herniation, trauma, tumours

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15
Q

What is the interaction between sodium valproate & lamotrigine?
What are the symptoms of lamotrigine toxicity?

A

Concurrent use of sodium valproate & lamotrigine can increase the risk of lamotrigine toxicity
This is because they are both metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 enzymes (CYP3A4 and CYP2C19). Sodium valproate can inhibit these enzymes leading to build up of lamotrigine

Symptoms of lamotrigine - nausea, dizziness, vomiting, ataxia, blurred vision
In severe cases lamotrigine toxicity can lead to seizure, coma, death

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16
Q

What are the clinical features of Meniere’s disease?

A
  • clinical diagnosis
  • triad: episodic intense vertigo, unilateral tinnitus and sensorineural hearing loss
  • aural fullness & nausea are associated symptoms
  • features of hearing loss - high tone hearing loss with recruitment but no tone delay
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17
Q

Genetics of Huntington’s disease

A

Autosomal dominant disorder caused by expansion of cytosine adenine guanine (CAG) trinucleotide in the HTT gene on chromosome 4 that encodes the huntingtin protein, resulting in an expanded polyglutamine tract

Atrophy of the caudate & putamen (neostriatum within the basal ganglia)

Main determinant of age of onset is the number of CAG repeats in the HTT gene
more repeats => earlier onset
<28 = normal
28-35 - will not develop symptoms but next generation is at small risk to develop expansion
36-39 - incomplete penetrance, individuals may develop symptoms but typically at a late age of onset
> 40 repeats = full penetrance

Diagnosis under <20 yrs = juvenile HD or the Westphal variant (<10% total cases)

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18
Q

What is the underlying pathophysiology in Parkinson’s disease?

A

-> Alpha synucleinopathy
- Alpha synuclein = misfolded protein that accumulates in Lewy bodies & Lewy nitrites

Lewy body = eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions with a faint halo consisting of alpha synuclein, ubiquitin & other proteins
Lewy nitrites = intra-axonal inclusions

Rupture of lysosomes by alpha -synuclein aggregates
Oxidative stress
Leading to nerve cell death

Pathological process progresses from medulla (dorsal motor nuclei) & olfactory bulb towards substantial nigra -> cortex

Loss of pigmented cells in substantia nigra leads to motor symptoms

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19
Q

Risk factors for Parkinson’s disease

A
  1. Male predominance
  2. Age
    - approx. 80% > 65 yrs.
    Younger onset -> slow progression & longer absolute survival
    Older onset -> rapid progression & cognitive decline
  3. Genetics
    - Glucocerebrosidase (GBA) mutations - 10% (variable penetrance)
    - LRRK2 mutations - 1-2% (variable penetrance)
    Monogenetic PD (e.g. Parkin ; PKRN) have no Lewy bodies
  4. Heavy metal exposure
  5. Pesticide exposure
  6. Caffeine & smoking are protective
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20
Q

What are the early / prodromal features of PD?

A

Early features that can predate motor manifestations by several years

  1. Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behaviour disorder
    - dream enhancement behaviours (e.g. vocalising, kicking, punching) due to loss of normal atonia (muscle paralysis) of REM sleep

RBD in PD is associated with more rapid cognitive impairment, more psychiatric comorbidities, poorer treatment response, more widespread brain atrophy
RBD correlates with freezing of gait

  1. Constipation
  2. Hyposmia / olfactory dysfunction
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21
Q

Motor features of PD

A
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22
Q

Non-motor features of PD

A
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23
Q

What is the underlying pathogenesis of the lesion in this CT brain?

A

Non-traumatic lobar haemorrhage in older adults is most commonly due to amyloid angiopathy
- incidence of CAA is strongly age dependent
- amyloid beta peptide deposits in small-medium blood. vesse;s of older patients (>50 yrs.) and causes vascular fragility
- often recurrent or multifocal (unlike hypertensive haemorrhage)
- APOE e4 allele is associated with increased risk of deposition of amyloid beta-peptide

Other imaging features cerebral amyloid angiopathy
- lobar haemorrhage
- cortical superifical siderosis / haemorrhage
- microhaemorrhage
- microinfarcts
- convexity SAH
- leukoaraiosis (white matter disease along ventricles)

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24
Q

What are the findings of MSA on MRIB?

A

Atrophy of the middle cerebellar peduncles, pons, putamen & cerebellum
Increased diffusivity in the putamen
Hypointensity of the putamen relative to globus pallidus
Hot cross bun sign in the pons - due to selective degeneration of transverse pontocerebellar tracts and median pontine raphe nuclei

**MRI in Parkinson’s disease is normal

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25
Q

What are the complications of abrupt cessation of dopamine replacement / levodopa?

A
  1. Acute akinesia
    - sudden deterioration in motor function that persists > 48 hours
    - life threatening
    - transiently unresponsive to PD medications
  2. NMS
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26
Q

Describe the findings in a L) sided MLF lesion

A

L) sided MLF lesion will produce a L) sided INO

L) MLF stimulates the L) oculomotor (CN III nucleus) which innervates the medial rectus => therefore the L) eye (ipsilateral) will be unable to adduct
R) eye (contralateral eye) will have nystagmus on abduction

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27
Q

Features of Parkinson disease dementia

A
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28
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Parkinson’s disease

A

Decrementing bradykinesia PLUS rigidity and/or resting tremor (4-6 Hz)

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29
Q

What is the role of COMT inhibitors?

A

Inhibits catechol-O-methyl transferse which converts levodopa into 3-OMD. Prolongs & potentiates the effect of levodopa.

No role for combining COMT with levodopa as part of initial therapy for PD

In patients with motor fluctuations, addition of COMT inhibitors reduces “off” time

Dose reduce levodopa when COMT inhibitor added to avoid exacerbating dyskinesia

Examples of COMT inhibitors - entacapone, opicapone, tolcapone.
Entacapone and opicapone are considered safer. Tolcapone is associated with transaminitis & rare cases of fulminant hepatotoxicity

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30
Q

What are predictors of rapid progression in Parkinson’s disease? What are predictors of flow progression in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Predictors of slow progression
- young age at onset
- female sex
- tremor predominant

Features of rapid progression
- older age
- male sex
- gait & balance issues predominant
- bradykinesia as initial symptom
- dementia
- poor response to levodopa

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31
Q

Treatment for REM sleep behaviour disorder in Parkinson’s disease

A

Low dose clonazepam at bedtime
Melatonin

Mirtazepine, tramadol & beta blockers may make it worse

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32
Q

What are the side effects of COMT inhibitors?

A

Primarily due to increased dopaminergic stimulation - dyskinesia, psychiatric side effects (e.g. visual hallucinations), nausea, orthostatic hypotension and somnolence

Adverse effects managed by lowering the dose of levodopa

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33
Q

What is the treatment for dementia in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dementia is a late feature
> 80% have dementia after 10-20 yrs. from diagnosis
Cholinesterase inhibitors - donepezil, rivastigmine

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34
Q

What does this scan show?

A

Basal ganglia haemorrhage with intraventricular extension

Primary IVH (i.e. haemorrhage confined to ventricular system) is very uncommon - 3% of all intracranial bleeds
Secondary IVH more common - 40-60% ICH are associated with IVH and approx. 10% SAH. More common with hypertensive / deeper bleeds than lobar bleeds

Main complication is acute neurological deterioration secondary to obstructive hydrocephalus

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35
Q

Management of psychotic symptoms in Parkinson’s disease

A

Late feature
- exclude / treat reversible factors e.g. infection / delirium
- reduce non PD meds that may be contributing
- reduce or stop PD meds if possible in an order that balances potency with likelihood of exacerbating psychotic symptoms
Starting with anticholingers
Amantadine
Dopamine agonists
MAO-B inhibitors
COMT inhibitors
Levodopa
- if above fails - quetiapine, clozapine or pimavanserin are treatment of choice

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36
Q

What are the differences between MS and ADEM?

A

ADEM = acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

  • In 75% ADEM follows a systemic viral infection (i.e. parainfectious encephalomyelitis), may not be the case in MS
  • ADEM can present with fever & stiff neck, altered mental staus / consciousness, which is unusual in MS
  • ADEM causes multifocal neurological symptoms (motor, sensory, cranial nerve & brainstem deficits) with rapid progression requiring early hospitalisation, while MS is typically more monosymptomatic and has a relapsing - remitting course
  • oligoclonal bands in CSF are less common in MS
  • More MRI lesions in ADEM than MS, larger bilateral but asymmetric white matter abnormalities
  • ADEM lesions have poorly defined margins, while MS lesions tend to have better defined margins
  • Multiple brain lesions of about the same age on MRI is more consistent with ADEM
  • thalamic lesions are common in ADEM, and rare in MS
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37
Q

What is the role of deep brain stimulation in PD?

A

Thalamic DBS - good for tremor
Subthalamic & pallidal DBS - more global effect - allows 50% sparing of levodopa dose

Criteria for eligibility
- PD for at least 5 years
- otherwise well
- NO dementia or psychosis
- have response to dopaminergic therapy
- presence of on-off motor fluctuatings
- severe dyskinesia
- tremor that is poorly controlled

Complications
- neuropsychiatric issues
- increased suicide rate in subthalamic targeted DBS
- surgical complications

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38
Q

What are the clinical features of MSA?

A

Motor features -> Parkinsonism OR cerebellar dysfunction predominant (can be overlap & predominance can change)

Parkinsonism:
- bradykinesia, akinesia, rigity, tremor
- poor response to Levodopa

Cerebellar dysfunction
- limb ataxia, gait ataxia, oculomotor dysfunction ( gaze evoked nystagmus, impaired smooth pursuits with saccadic intrusion and / or ocular dysmetria), cerebellar dysarthria

Autonomic features
- urge urinary incontinence
- voiding dysfunction with elevated PVRs
- early erectile dysfunction
- neurogenic orthostatic hypotension

Other supportive motor features
- rapid progression within 3 years of motor onset
- moderate to severe postural instability within 3 years of motor onset
- severe dysphagia within 3 years of motor onset
- severe speech impairment within 3 years of motor onset
- unexplained Babinski
- jerky myoclonic postural or kinetic tremor
- postural deformities (e.g. anterocollis, laterocollis, camptocormia)

Other supportive non-motor features
- stridor
- inspiratory sighs
- cold, discoloured hands & feet
- erectile dysfunction
- pathologic laughter or crying

Exclusionary features
- significant response to dopaminergic medications
- unexplained anosmia
- fluctuating cognition with early visuospatial abilities
- recurrent visual hallucinations within 3 yrs. of disease onset
- dementia within 3 yrs. of disease onset
- downgaze supranuclear palsy

Diagnostic criteria
- sporadic, progressive, onset after > 30 yrs with
autonomic dysfunction AND poor levodopa-responsive Parkinsonism and/or cerebellar syndrome with supportive brain MRI features

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39
Q

Mechanism of action of levodopa / carbidopa

A

Most patients with early PD should be on levodopa monotherapy
- Levodopa (L-dopa) is main precursor in dopamine synthesis
- levodopa is combined with a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor which blocks levodopa conversion to dopamine in systemic circulation and liver in order to prevent nausea, vomiting & orthostatic hypotension
- therefore, by preventing peripheral conversion of dopamine which does not cross the BBB, carbidopa allows a smaller dose of levodopa to achieve a therapeutic effect

  • most effective drug for idiopathic PD (motor function, ADLs, QOL outcomes superior to all other drugs)
  • no advantage of using levodopa with COMT inhibitor for initial therapy (role of COMT inhibitors is primarily in management of motor fluctuations)

Immediate release is the preferred initial formulation

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40
Q

What are the adverse effects of levodopa / carbidopa?

A

Adverse effects
- nausea (take with meals in early disease, away from meals in late disease because concurrent ingestion of dietary protein may block effect of levodopa)
- headache, confusion, psychotic symptoms
- orthostatic hypotension
- of all PD drugs, levodopa is associated with highest risk of dopaminergic complications e.g. wearing off & dyskinesia

Long term ADRs
- dopamine dysregulation syndrome
- punding: repetitive, purposeless stereotyped behaviours e.g. sorting, disassembling
- impulsive behaviours
- motor fluctuations - on & off effect. Typically responsive to additional levodopa
- dyskinesias - involuntary movements of limbs, torso or head/ neck
A. Peak dose dyskinesias
- 30-60 mins post
- affect head & neck
- occur at peak levodopa dose
- manage with levodopa sparing agents
B. End of dose (wearing off) dyskinesias
- occur 3-4 hours post
- manage with agents that prolong L-dopa action (e.g. COMT inhibitors such as entacapone)
- due to progressive loss of dopamine storing neurons in basal ganglia
- not seen with dopamine agonists

41
Q

How should peak dose dyskinesias be managed in PD?

A

if trouble dyskinesia despite adjustment of levodopa dose, Amantadine is suggested

42
Q

What does CSF show in MS?

A

Normal appearance
Normal pressure
Normal protein
Leucocyte count normal or mildly raised (<15 cells / microL) in 2/3 patients, raised leucocyte count in 1/3 (not exceeding 50 cells / micro L). Cells predominantly lymphocytes - usually T cells
CSF-specific oligoclonal bands found in 95% of patients with clinically definite MS.
Elevated IgG index

43
Q

How should “wearing off” phenomenon be managed in PD?

A

Patients with PD who take levodopa chronically are increasingly likely to develop motor fluctuations and dyskinesia as nigrostriatal dopaminergic neurons degenerate & lose presynaptic dopamine storage capacity

“Wearing off” near end of levodopa dose interval is most common motor fluctuating

  • avoid protein at time of drug administration
  • increase levodopa if on a low dose of levodopa
  • if not tolerating levodopa due to dyskinesia or still having wearing off -> reduce dose interval
  • if morning “wearing off” - bedtime controlled release is helpful
    daytime CR levodopa can exacerbate motor fluctuations and lead to delayed-onset dyskinesia
  • if levodopa dose adjustments not adequate or tolerated, add dopamine agonist or COMT inhibitor or MOA B inhibitor
    all have similar side effects -> mainly dyskinesias and non-motor dopaminergic side effects (e.g. orthostasis, impulse control disorders)
  • rescue therapy - subcut apomorphine
44
Q

Parkinson’s disease pharmacology

A
45
Q

What are the features of anterior (ventral) cord syndrome?

A

Main cause: spinal infarct
Anterior cord more vulnerable to stroke as supplied by one long artery (anterior spinal artery) - artery of Adamkiewicz (comes off T10 - commonly occluded)
Posterior cord - less vulnerable to infarction

  1. Affects spinothalamic tracts - loss of pain & temp sensation bilaterally below level of lesion
  2. Damage to anterior horn cells - producing LMN weakness at level of lesion
  3. Larger anterior lesions can affect lateral corticospinal tracts & cause UMN signs
  4. Affects descending autonomic tracts to the sacral centres for bladder control -> urinary incontinence

can have mix of LMN & UMN signs
If someone has been hypotensive intraoperatively and then has bilateral LL weakness -> consider anterior cord stroke

46
Q

What are the features of posterior (dorsal) cord syndrome?

A

Most common cause - subacute combined degeneration of cord from B12 deficiency.
Other causes: functional B12 deficiency from nitrous oxide, MS, syphilis tables dorsalis, trauma and tumours
MS very commonly causes isolated DCML deficits because heavily demyelinated

  1. Loss of proprioception & vibration below level of lesion
  2. May encroach on lateral corticospinal tracts causing UMN weakness
    - acutely produces LMN signs
    - chronically produces LMN signs
  3. Affects descending central autonomic tracts to bladder control centres in sacral cord -> bladder dysfunction

Gait ataxia (sensory)
Praesthesias

47
Q

What are the features of a transverse cord lesion?

A

AKA segmental syndrome - affects all modalities

Most common cause: transverse myelitis (commonly due to MS)
Other causes - transverse myelitis / MS
- complete or partial interruption of sensory & motor pathways

Acute myelopathies - traumatic injury or spinal cord haemorrhage
Subacute myelopathies - epidural or intramedullary abscess, tumours, transverse myelitis

  1. SENSORY level - reduced sensation all modalities below lesion
  2. Bilateral LL LMN signs

Acute transection can cause spinal shock with flaccid paralysis, urinary retention and diminished reflexes -> this is temporary and progresses to hypertonia, spasticity and hyperreflexia in days - weeks after event

Transverse injuries about C3 cause cessation of respiration and are fatal is acute
Lesions L2 and below will cause impotence and spastic paralysis of bladder (loss of voluntary control of bladder, which will empty automatically by reflex action)

48
Q

What are the features of central cord syndrome?

A
  1. Affects medial aspect of the corticospinal tracts -> LMN weakness that is more prominent in arms than legs below level of lesion
  2. Disrupt fibres mediating deep tendon reflexes as they travel from dorsal to ventral horn -> loss of tendon reflexes at level of spinal lesion
  3. Disruption of crossing spinothlaamic fibres in ventral commissure causes loss of pain & temp sensation in distribution of one or several adjacent dermatomes. However, dermatomes above & below the lesion have relatively normal pain & temp sensation “suspended sensory level” - classic cape like distribution of bilateral sensory loss to pain & temperature
  4. Usually no bladder symptoms but urinary retention can occur
  5. Vibration & proprioception are spared

Classic causes - slow growing lesions such as syringomyelia or intramedullary tumour. However, most frequently a result of a hyperextension injury in patients with longstanding cervical spondylosis.

49
Q

What are the features of a hemicord lesion? (i.e. Brown-Sequard syndrome)

A
  1. Ipsilateral weakness - LMN weakness at level of lesion, UMN weakness before lesion (damage to lateral corticospinal tract)
  2. Ipsilateral sensory loss (dorsal column)
  3. Contralateral pain & temp sensation loss (damage to spinothalamic tract)

Unilateral involvement of descending autonomic fibres does not produce bladder sympoms

Main causes - penetrating lesions (knife, bullet), demyelination / MS and lateral cord compression from tumours

50
Q

What are the features of an ulnar nerve palsy?

A

Ulnar nerve - C8-T1

51
Q

Upper limb nerves & myotomes

A
52
Q

What factors predict shorter survival in multisystem atrophy (MSA)?

A

Female sex
Older age at onset
MSA-P
Early or severe autonomic failure
Urinary retention

53
Q

Distinguishing features of Parkinsonian syndromes

A
54
Q

Underlying pathological substrate in Parkinsonian syndromes

A

PD - alpha synuclein. Lewy bodies & lewy nitrites. Loss of pigmented cells in the substantia nigra

Lewy body disease - alpha synucleinopathy

MSA - alpha synucleinopathy. Primarily affecting the oligodendroglia
MSA-P -> striatonigral degeneration
MSA - C -> olivopontocerebellar degeneration

PSP - tauopathy. Neuronal loss, accumulation of neurofibrillary tangles & glial pathology in basal ganglia, diencephalon, brainstem. Degeneration in frontal & temporal lobes. Lewy body formation in 10% of PSP

Corticobasal degeneration - tauopathy. Damage in cortex & basal ganglia

55
Q

What are the neuroimaging features of corticobasal degeneration?

A

CT & MRI may be normal in early stages

Asymmetric cortical atrophy in 50% of patients primarily affecting the posterior frontal & parietal lobes
Dilatation of lateral ventricles

56
Q

What are the histological features of corticobasal degeneration?

A

Asymmetric frontoparietal atrophy with extensive neuronal loss, gliosis, ballooned achromatic neurons

57
Q

What are the clinical features of cortibasal syndrome?

A

Progressive asymmetric movement disorder
Initially affecting one limb with various combinations of akinesia, extreme rigidity, dystonia, focal myoclonus, ideomotor apraxia, alien limb phenomenon
Apraxia
Limb pain or sensory loss
Cognitive impairment is a prominent feature -> typically a frontal lobe dementia with impaired executive function, aphasia, apraxia, behavioural change, visuospatial dysfunction but relatively preserved episodic memory
Oculomotor apraxia (delay in launching saccades)
Supranuclear gaze palsy (but not as severe as PSP)

58
Q

What are the gaze palsies associated with Parkinsonian syndromes?

A

PD - no gaze palsy
CBD - often have a supranuclear gaze palsy (but less severe than PSP)
MSA - > MSA-C has oculomotor dysfunction including gaze-evoked nystagmus, impaired smooth pursuits due to saccadic intrusions and/or ocular dysmetria

PSP
- characterised supranuclear gaze palsy
-seen in classic PSP or Richardson syndrome
- whilst supranuclear opthalmoparesis / plegia is the hallmark of PSP, it may not be evident early
- slowed saccades (vertical & horizontal) is the earliest sign
- down-gaze palsy is predominant
- pronounced paresis of vertical gaze
- overcome by vestibulo-ocular reflex (i.e. moving patient’s head) -> indicated that it is a supra-nuclear palsy

59
Q

What does this characteristic MRI-B finding indicate?

A

Hummingbird sign -> prominent midbrain atrophy in PSP with relatively preserved pons

60
Q

What are the characteristic features of progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

Mean age of onset is 65 yrs. (does not occur in < 40 yrs.)

Richardson’s syndrome = classic PSP (52%)
- most common initial feature is gait disturbance with falls / postural instability; spontaneous loss of balance whilst standing with backwards falls
- supranuclear gaze palsy / slow vertical saccades
- postural instability
- frontal dementia

PSP-Parkinsonism (32%)
- asymmetric onset
-tremor
- moderate response to levodopa initially
- better prognosis that Richardson’s syndrome

other common clinical features
- dysarthria
- dysphasia
- rigidity
- frontal cognitive abnormalities
- speech disturbances

61
Q

Predictors of respiratory failure in GBS

A
  1. Time from onset of symptoms to admission < 7 days
  2. Facial and / or bulbar weakness
  3. Inability to cough, stand, lift elbows, lift head, LFT derangement
  4. MRC sum score
62
Q

Predictors of requiring mechanical ventilation in GBS

A
  1. Time from onset of symptoms to admission < 7 days
  2. Inability to life head
  3. Vital capacity < 60% normal predicted
63
Q

What is the pathophysiology of GBS?

A
  • GBS is a heterogenous syndrome with several variants; most common form is a demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy
  • Antecedent event (typically GI or upper respiratory infection) that triggers immune response
  • Antecedent event occurs within 4 weeks prior to GBS onset
  • Campylobacter jejuni infection is the most commonly identified precipitant of GBS

Molecular mimicry -> bacteria / viruses have antigens that look similar to lipids in myelin sheath

in AIDP - multifocal inflammatory demyelination which starts at level of nerve roots, involves both the cellular & humoral immune responses. Invasion by activated T-cells, macrophage-mediated demyelination with component and immunoglobulin deposition on myelin and Schwann cells. Axonal injury occurs as a secondary response
** prominent demyelination on NCS and lymphocytic infiltration on sucral nerve biopsies

in acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN) -prominent axonal loss without lymphocytic infiltration or complement activation

64
Q

Which MS drugs cause rebound symptoms on discontinuation?

A

Natalizumab

Sphingosine 1 phosphate receptor modulators - fingolimod, siponimod, ozanimod

65
Q

What is Miller Fischer syndrome?

A
  • GBS variant
  • characterised by opthalmoplegia, ataxia, absent / reduced deep tendon reflexes (rather than limb weakness)
  • associated with antibodies to GQ1b ganglioside protein
  • GQ1b antibody has a direct effect on the neuromuscular junctions between cranial nerves and ocular muscles
  • GQ1b ganglioside is a component of the oculomotor nerve myelin
66
Q

Which MS drugs are teratogenic?

A

Cladribine
Teriflunomide
Fingolimod, siponimod, ozanimod

67
Q

What is the natural history of GBS?

A
  • antecedent event occurs within 4 weeks of GBS onset, but typically occurs within 1-2 weeks
  • symptoms peak within 4 weeks
  • during progressive phase, 20-30% patients will develop respiratory failure & require mechanical ventilation in ICU
  • subsequent recovery period can last months - years as immune response decays & peripheral nerves undergo an endogenous repair process
  • 20% patients unable to walk unaided at 6 months; 80% resume ambulation by 6 months form onset; relapse occurs in 6% patients
68
Q

What is the diagnostic workup for GBS?

A

Typical clinical syndrome PLUS LP findings sufficient for diagnosis
Typical clinical findings = acute onset progressive weakness, hyporeflexia/areflexia, history of infection in preceding 4 weeks
LP findings - isolated elevated protein / albuminocytologic dissociation

If LP does NOT show albuminocytologic dissociation, need additional investigation
- MRI spine - enhancement of nerve roots
- NCS - features of demyelination - poor or absent F waves, absent H reflexes, increased distal latencies, conduction blocks with temporal dispersion, significant slowing or absent response on nerve conduction velocities

if CSF shows pleocytosis with leucocyte count > 50 cells -> very unlikely to be GBS

69
Q

What are the typical clinical features of CIDP?

A

Gradual onset symptoms (typically > 2 months)
Symmetric, predominantly motor
Motor deficits are proximal (e.g. difficulty standing up, climbing stairs, lifting objects overhead) and distal (e.g. foot drop, tripping, difficulty with buttons)
Absent reflexes or hyporeflexia
Sensory deficits are distal -> typically affects proprioception and vibration more than pain & temp
Gait ataxia secondary to large fibre sensory loss

Increased CSF protein without pleocytosis

NCS evidence of demyelinating neuropathy (reduction of motor conduction velocity, conduction block, prolonged motor distal latency, temporal dispersion indicating multifocal nature

Nerve biopsy evidence of segmental dysfunction with or without inflammation

Less common than GBS to have antecedent events, cranial nerve involvement less common, resp failure & autonomic dysfunction less common

70
Q

What does this scan show?

A

L) temporal AVM
associated with a 1-4% risk of rebleeding per year

71
Q

What are the side effects of fingolimod?

A

Sphingosine 1 phosphate receptor modulator -> alters lymphocyte migration, resulting in sequestration of lymphocytes in lymph nodes

  • bradyarrhythmia and AV block
  • infections
  • hepatotoxicity

contraindications include cardiovascular history

72
Q

What is MELAS?

A

Mitochondrial encephalopmyopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes
- maternally inherited disorder, most common mitonchondrial myopathy
- 75% under age of 20 yrs, but can occur after 40 yrs.
- 80% have mutation in nucleotide position 3243 A>G in the tRNA gene
- results in stroke-like episodes (acute onset hemiparesis, hemianopia or cortical blindness), diabetes, sensorineural deafness, dystonia, seizures, opthalmoplegia, myopathy, migraines
- strokes may be due to deficiency of NO in the brain
- MRI shows lesions that are not restricted to vascular territories, and are in different stages of ischaemic evolution
- elevated lactate, pyruvate, elevated CSF protein
- coenzyme 10 and L- carnitine may be beneficial in some patients
- relapsing remitting course with stroke-like episodes leading to progressive neurological dysfunction & dementia

73
Q

What HLA gene is associated with MS?

A

HLA - DRB1 1501 triples the risk of MS

74
Q

What are the side effects of natalizumab?

A

Anti - alpha 4 subunit of integrin

PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
- risk increases with duration of treatment, immunosuppression, patients who are JC virus seropositive

Infusions reactions
Fatigue
UTIs & URTIs
Hepatotoxicity
Thrombocytopenia

Breakthrough disease with natalizumab withdrawal

75
Q

What is the Uhthoff phenomenon?

A

Reversible exacerbation of MS symptoms associated with increase in body temperature (e.g. fever, vigorous exercise, hot shower / bath, environment heating)
Due to development of conduction block in central pathways with rise in body temperature (temperature at which conduction block occurs is much lower in demyelinated nerves)
No MRI evidence of new demyelination
Symptoms improve / resolve as body temperature decreases

76
Q

What are the most common initial manifestations of MS?

A

Most commonly presents as a single monosymptomatic attack due to a demyelination event
Sensory symptoms are the most common initial feature of MS
Presenting with a clinically isolated syndrome is typical of relapsing remitting MS

  • Optic neuritis (21%)
  • Bilateral INO (brainstem / midbrain syndrome) - impaired adduction in ipsilateral eye with nystagmus in the adducting eye)
  • spinal cord syndrome (transverse myelitis)
  • sensory symptoms - varying degrees of impairment in vibration & proprioception, decrease in pain & light touch sensation in distal extremities, patchy areas of reduced pain & light touch perception in limbs & trunk
77
Q

What are the clinical features of optic neuritis in MS?

A

Typically unilateral optic neuritis
- most common visual phenomenon in MS (21%)
- painful monocular central vision loss, blurred vision, scotoma
- pain on eye movement and touch
- pain often precedes vision loss
- loss of colour vision (especially red colour) & contrast sensitivity
- Uhthoff phenomenon - worse with rise in body temp
- RAPD (Marcus - Gunn pupil) with typically normal fundoscopy initially (later the optic disc becomes pale as a result of axonal loss and resultant gliosis)
- 90% patients regain normal vision over period of 2-6 months after an acute episode of optic neuritis

Bilateral optic neuritis occurring simultaneously is rare in MS
- DDX neuromyelitis optica spectrum disease, toxic optic neuropathy, Leber hereditary optic atrophy

78
Q

What is the mechanism and clinical manifestation of internuclear opthalmoplegia in MS?

A

Bilateral INO is highly suggestive of MS
- other brainstem lesions that cause bilateral INO include vascular lesions, Arnold-Chiari malformations, Wernicke encephalopathy

Abnormal horizontal ocular movements with slow, weak adduction of the affected eye and nystagmus of the adducting eye

Highly localising brainstem syndrome -> occurs due to a lesion in the MLF in the dorsomedial brainstem tegmentum of either the pons or the midbrain

> 2/3 of INO is due to MS or cerebrovascular disease
Brainstem infarct more likely to cause unilateral INO
Periventricular location of MLF make it susceptible to demyelination

79
Q

Describe the findings in a L) sided one & a half syndrome

A

One and a half syndrome is caused by a large unilateral lesion involving the paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) and/or abducens (CN VI) nucleus AND MLF
L) eye unable to abduct (PPRF) OR adduct (MLF). R) eye unable to adduct (i.e. INO due to damage to left PPRF) but able to abduct. R) eye may be abducted at rest / in primary gaze position (known as paralytic pontine exotropia)

With attempted horizontal gaze, only abduction of the contralateral eye remains

if the abducens nucleus is spared -> gaze palsy is evident on volitional horizontal gaze (which requires activation of PPRF), but is not evident with oculocephalic manoeuvres

80
Q

Diagnostic criteria for MS

A

Spinal cord lesions almost as common as brainlesions in MS
MS lesions are characteristically T2 hyperintense enhancing plaques or T1 hypointense “black holes”
Active lesions enhance with gadolinium on T1 weighted mri

Characteristic regions for MS plaques - spinal, cortical, juxtacortical, paraventricular, infratentorial

81
Q

What are the side effects of alemtuzumab?

A

Targets CD52 expressing cells (B cells, T cells, monocytes, natural killer cells)
highly potent immunosuppression

  • serious infections
  • autoimmune disorders - ITP, haemolytic anaemia, anti-GBM GN, Grave’s disease

give vaccinations 6 weeks prior to starting
screen for TB
Avoid potential sources of Listeria

82
Q

Which of the following is true about the use of corticosteroids for the treatment of acute attacks / relapses of MS:
A. Use of corticosteroids reduces long-term disability
B. Steroids help in preventing recurrent flares
C. Associated with faster recovery from relapse
D. Intravenous steroids are more effective

A

Answer C

Main aim of steroids is to reduce recovery time
No evidence that they reduce long term disability or reduce the risk of subsequent attacks
Typically use IV methylpred 1g for 5 days
Oral prednisolone 625 mg - 1250mg is equally effective except in optic neuritis where oral steroids increase the risk of recurrence

83
Q

Prognostic factors in MS

A

Development of a progressive course of MS may be the single most adverse factor influencing prognosis

Factors associated with a better prognosis
- relapsing remitting MS
- sensory symptoms or optic neuritis at initial presentation
- pregnancy is protective against MS relapses, however, increased risk of relapse in early postpartum period

84
Q

What does this CTB show?

A

Extradural bleed
- located between periosteum and the outer layer of the dura
- 75% caused by middle meningeal artery bleed
- typically associated with head trauma & skull #
- on imaging -> biconvex, limited by cranial sutures
- can have brief lucid interval followed by loss of consciousness
- can progress to cause uncal herniation
- false localising cranial nerve palsies - CN VI palsy (ipsilateral eye adducted), CN III palsy (down & out eye, ptosis, dilated pupil), Cushing’s reflex

Scan also shows contralateral contrecoup injury

85
Q

Who is eligible for disease modifying therapy in MS?

A
  • Relapsing remitting MS
  • clinically isolated syndrome WITH 2 or more lesions on MRI (do not meet McDonald criteria but are high risk)
  • secondary progressive MS with active disease (i.e. clinical relapses and / or new MRI lesions)
  • primary progressive MS - younger patients < 55 yrs. and active disease on MRI
86
Q

What are the disease modifying therapies available for MS and mechanism of action

A

Highest efficacy
1. Natalizumab - anti- alpha 4 subunit of integrin -> impairs leucocyte migration
2. Alemtuzumab - monoclonal Ab that depletes cells that express CD52 (T cells, B cells, natural killer cells, monocytes) - highly potent immunosuppression
3. Ocrelizumab - anti-CD20 monoclonal Ab
4. Cladribine (oral) - immunosuppressive purine antimetabolite agent that targets lymphocyte subtypes
5. Ofatumumab injection - subcut injection, anti-CD20 monoclonal Ab

Intermediate efficacy
1. Fingolimod - Sphingosine 1 phosphate receptor modulator -> alters lymphocyte migration, resulting in sequestration of lymphocytes in lymph nodes
(also siponimod, ozanimod)

  1. Dimethyl fumarate - fumarate prodrug

Lowest efficacy
1. interferon beta 1a, 1b
2. teriflunomide - inhibits pyrimidine synthesis and disrupts the interaction of T cells with antigen presenting cells

87
Q

What are the side effects of cladribine?

A

Immunosuppressive purine antimetabolite agent that targets lymphocyte subtypes, delivered orally, highly efficacious

Lymphopenia
Life threatening infection
Malignancy
URTIs
Headache
Teratogenicity

Contraindications - malignancy, chronic active infections, pregnancy & breastfeeding

Due to ADR profile, cladribine typically reserved for pts who do not tolerate or respond to other drugs for MS

88
Q

What does this MRI spine demonstrate? What are the possible causes? What are the likely clinical features?

A

Transverse myelitis
- inflammation of the spinal cord, typically restricted to 1-2 segments, usually in the thoracic cord
- most cases are idiopathic (up to 50% have preceeding infection, possibly resulting from an autoimmune process)
- other causes are MS and neuromyelitis optica
- symptoms develop rapidly, over the course of several hours
- lower limb UMN signs, sensory level with multimodality sensory loss, autonomic dysfunction, bladder & bowel dysfunction, back pain with radicular pain, upper limb weakness if lesion is in the cervical cord

MRI demonstrates gadolinium enhancing lesiosn extending over 1-2 segments

89
Q

What does this MRI spine show? What are clinical and diagnostic features of this condition?

A

Neuromyelitis optica
- autoimmune disease targeting astrocytes; complement-mediated demyelination and axonal damage predominantly affecting spinal cord & optic nerve; but also brain & brainstem
- presence of anti-aquaporin 4 Ab is 75-80% sensitive and > 99% specific

Clinical hallmarks
- acute attacks of bilateral or rapidly sequential optic neuritis
- transverse myelitis with a relapsing course
- episodes of intractable vomiting or hiccups (area postrema syndrome)
- PRES
- Neuroendocrine disorders

MRI-B shows extensive demyelinating lesions spanning 3 or more segments
CSF shows neutrophilic pleocytosis and is negative for oligoclonal bands

Management
- acute attacks managed with IV methyl pred & PLEX
- long term therapy:
AZA, mycophenolate, eculizumab (humanised monoclonal Ab against complement C5) provides 93% protection from 1st relapse, inebilizumab - targets CD19 on plasmablasts as well as other B cells to directly decrease Ab production
Satralizumab - anti IL-6, efficacy in AQP4 Ab positive patients

90
Q

What are the most common sites for hypertensive haemorrhage?

A

in decreasing order of frequency:

Basal ganglia
Thalamus
Cerebellum
Pons

** Risk of rebleeding is low, compared to aneurysmal bleeds

91
Q

What are the predictors of mortality and poor prognosis after haemorrhagic stroke?

A
  1. Reduced GCS & level of consciousness
  2. Older age
  3. Antithrombotic therapy prior to stroke
  4. Intraventricular extension
  5. Increased ICH volume
  6. Deep or infratentorial location
92
Q

What does this scan show?

A

MCA aneurysm bleed

93
Q

66F is found collapsed, GCS 4, background of hypertension, diabetes, previous bowel Ca. CT brain as below. What is the likely cause of this lesion?

A

Pontine haemorrhage
- most commonly due to uncontrolled longstanding hypertension
- lipohyalinosis of the penetrating arteries originating from the basilar artery ; larger paramedian perforators are most common culprit vessels
- very poor prognosis
- commonly presents with acute drop in GCS due to disruption of the reticular activating system

other clinical features
- long tract signs including tetraparesis
- cranial nerve palsies
- seizures
- Cheynes stokes respiratrion

Can cause locked in syndrome
- quadriplegia
- inability to speak
- - inability to swallow
- retained cognition
- supranuclear ocular motor pathways preserved -> can blink and move eyes
- respiratory function often affected

94
Q

What does this CTB show?

A

Osmotic demyelination / central pontine myelinolysis

95
Q

What does this CTB show?

A

Chronic subdural bleed

Subdural bleeds most common caused by head trauma causing tearing of bridging cortical veins located between the dural and arachnoid membranes
Arterial cause for SDH is found in 20-30 % cases

Risk factors include significant cerebral atrophy, antithrombotic medications and coagulopathy

Imaging features => crescenteric shape, not limited by sutural attachments of the dura as it is subdural
acute blood = hyperdense = white
subacute bleed = similar density to adjcant parenchyma

96
Q

What does this CTB show?

A

Hyperdense material in the anterior interhemispheric fissure raising suspicion of ruptured anterior communicatiing artery aneurysm

97
Q

What determines risk of aneurysmal rupture & subsequent SAH?

A

Risk of aneurysm rupture is based on size
* Size >7mm
* Location: highest risk in posterior circulation

98
Q

What are the features of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Impaired function of nerve roots below L1/L2 level
- typically gradual onset & unilateral
- lower motor neuron weakness below level of lesion, hyporeflexia
- asymmetric multiradicular pain
- saddle anaesthesia (S2-S5), may be asymmetric
- late & less marked sphincter disturbance
- involvement of S2-S4 - bladder & bowel dysfunction, decreased rectal tone, erectile dysfunction
- if deficits S2 or below, may be no obvious leg weakness

Causes
Disc herniation, tumour / mets, epidural abscess, schwannoma, meningioma, neoplastic meningitis, CMV meningitis, trauma, arachnoiditis, CMV polyradiculitis

99
Q

What does this MRI show?

A

Syringomyelia
- typically affects C2-T9 causing a central cord syndrome
- loss of pain & temp sensation bilaterally below level of lesion
- typically causes LMN weakness & atrophy of uL
- spasticity and LMN signs in lower limbs
- - loss of deep tendon reflexes
- autonomic dysfunction -excessive sweating, dysregulation, labile BP, disturbances in bowel & bladder function