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2023 ECC Board Exam > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two main neurotransmitter in autonomic nerve system and what are the fibers they are secreted from?

A

Acetylcholine - cholinergic nerve fiber
Norepinephrine - adrenergic nerve fiber

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2
Q

True or False:
In the autonomic nerve system, all the pre-ganglionic neurons are cholinergic, no matter they belong to sympathetic or parasympathetic.

A

True

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3
Q

What are the differences between muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

A

Muscarinic:
- G protein receptors
- Locates at all the effector cells at the end of all the parasympathetic nerve ending and some sympathetic nerve ending (e.g. sweat gland)

Nicotinic:
- Ligand-gated ion channels
- Locates at the autonomic nerve system synapses between preganglion and postganglion, somatic nerve ending (skeletal muscles)

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4
Q

Is SNS or PNS also called craniosacral division of ANS?

A

PNS

  • SNS is also called thoracolumbar division of the autonomic nerve system
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5
Q

Parasympathetic nerve fibers leave the CNS through which cranial nerves and which nerve in the sacral region?

A

3, 7, 9, 10 (75%)
Pelvic nerves

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6
Q

What is the resting membrane potential for neuron?

A

-70 mV

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7
Q

Which part of the brain do thalamus and hypothalamus belong to?

A

Forebrain

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8
Q

Where is medulla oblongata?

A

Brainstem (connecting the brainstem to the spinal cord)

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9
Q

Where are the grey matter and white matter in the brain and spinal cord?

A

Brain: grey matter outside, white matter inside
Spinal cord: grey matter inside, white matter outside

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10
Q

Which spinal nerve root carries afferent neurons and which one carries efferent neurons?

A

Dorsal: afferent neurons
Ventral: efferent neurons

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11
Q

On MRI T1-weighing, what tissue is hyperintense and what tissue is hypointense? What about T2-weighing and fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR)?

A

T1:
- Fat hyperintense
- Fluid (e.g. CSF) hypointense

T2:
- Fluid and tissue with high fluid content hyperintense
- Fat variable
* also called “pathology scan” → inflammation, bleeding, edema will be whither

FLAIR
- Pure fluid (e.g. CSF, cystic fluid) become hypointense → facilitate differentiating

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12
Q

What is the difference between acute brain hemorrhage and chronic brain hemorrhage on the MRI T1 and T2 window?

A

T1
- Acute (< 24 hours): isointense or hypointense
- Chronic: hypointense

T2
- Acute: hyperintense
- Chronic: hypointense

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13
Q

Describe decerebrate rigidity and the lesion localization.

A

Stupuros/comatosen + opisthotonus and extension of all limbs
Lesion: rostral pons and midbrain

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14
Q

Describe decerebellate rigidity and the lesion localization.

A

Normal mentation + opisthotonus with extensor rigidity of the thoracic limbs and either extension or flexion of the pelvic limbs is present
Lesion: cerebellum

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15
Q

Describe Cheyne-Stokes breathing.

A

Periods of hyperpnea alternating with periods of apnea; can be seen with diffuse cerebral or thalamic disease and metabolic encephalopathies

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16
Q

Describe central neurogenic hyperventilation and the lesion.

A

Persistent hyperventilation that may result in respiratory alkalosis
Midbrain lesions

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17
Q

When a patient has decrease or absent PLR, where is the lesions?

A

Midbrain, CN II & III (PNS)

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18
Q

When a patient loses its oculocephalic reflex, where is the lesion?

A

CN 3, 6, 8

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19
Q

How will the left eye CN II injury affect the PLR?

A

When light shines to the left eye, there will be no PLR in both eye; when the light shines to the right eye, there will be direct and consensual PLR in both eyes

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20
Q

How will the left eye CN III injury affect the PLR?

A

When the light shines to the left eye, there will be consensual PLR to the right eye but no PLR in the left; when the light shines to the right eye, there will be direct PLR at the right eye but no consensual PLR to the left eye.

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21
Q

When the patient is miotic and there is no ocular injury, where is the lesion?

A

diencephalon (e.g. thalamus, hypothalamus)

  • Hypothalamus is the origin of SNS pathway
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22
Q

What are the three categories of seizures?

A

1) Reactive
2) Structural
3) Idiopathic

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23
Q

What is MOA for phenobarbital?

A

Bind to GABAa receptor and enhance its activity

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24
Q

How do you load phenobarbital?

A

4 mg/kg IV q6h for 4 doses, and then switch to 2.5 mg/kg PO q12h

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25
Q

What are the 4 nerves that come from the S1-S3?

A

Sciatic, pelvic, pudendal, perineal nerves

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26
Q

What are the 5 nerves that come from the L4-S1?

A

Femoral, pelvic, sciatic, pudendal, obturator nerves

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27
Q

Describe Schiff-Sherrington phenomenon and the pathophysiology.

A
  • Thoracic limb extension and inability to move the pelvic limbs normally. Normal CP at thoracic limbs. Normal spinal reflex at pelvic limbs.
  • Indicates T-L spinal cord injury
  • Pathophysiology: a lack of ascending inhibitory input to the thoracic limbs originating from the border cells located in the lower thoracic and lumbar spinal cord
  • Border cells are responsible for tonic inhibition of extensor muscle α-motor neurons in the cervical intumescence.
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28
Q

When you see two-engine gaits, it most likely indicates which part of the spinal cord injury?

A

C6 - T2

Thoracic limb: short-stride gait
Pelvic limb: spinal ataxia

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29
Q

Define spinal shock.

A

Profound depression of segmental reflexes caudal to a lesion, despite reflex arcs remaining physically intact

  • It can be up to 12-24 hours after injury
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30
Q

True or False: The spinal cord extends more caudally in cats compared to dogs.

A

True

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31
Q

When a patient has ventrolateral strabismus, it indicates which CN dysfunction?

A

CN III

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32
Q

True or False: Trigeminal nerve has both sensory and motor function.

A

True

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33
Q

What are the three branches of trigeminal nerve and which one has both sensory and motor function?

A

Ophthalmic (sensory only)
Maxillary (sensory only)
Mandibular (both motor and sensory)

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34
Q

What does the palpebral reflex test for?

A

Sensory - trigeminal nerve (CN 5)
Medial canthus (ophthalmic branch)
Lateral canthus (maxillary branch)
Motor - facial nerve (CN 7)

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35
Q

What does menace response test for?

A

CN 2, 7

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36
Q

Which CN is responsible for tear production?

A

CN 7

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37
Q

What does the pelvic limb withdrawal reflex test for?

A

L6-S1 and sciatic nerve

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38
Q

What does the patellar reflex test for?

A

L4-L6 and femoral nerve

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39
Q

What does the gastrocnemius reflex test for?

A

L7-S1 and tibial nerve

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40
Q

Why KBr is not recommended in cats?

A

Can cause pneumonitis

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41
Q

What is the recommended serum phenobarbital level in dogs? When should you pull the blood after drug administration?

A

15-35 mcg/dL (higher than 35 mcg/dL is usually associated with liver injury)

6-8 hours after drug administration

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42
Q

What is normal serum KBr level in dogs?

A

When KBr is used alone: 0.8 - 3 mg/ml
When combined with phenobarbital: 0.8 - 2.4 mg/ml

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43
Q

True or False: For vestibular ataxia, the side of the head tilt usually indicates the side of the lesion.

A

True

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44
Q

What is the normal range of intracranial pressure?

A

5-12 mmHg

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45
Q

What is the formula for cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP

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46
Q

What are the three mechanisms to maintain ICP?

A

1) Cushing reflex
2) Autoregulation
3) Volume buffering

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47
Q

Explain Monro-Kellie doctrine.

A

The sum of volumes of brain, CSF, and intracranial blood is constant. An increase in one should cause a decrease in one or both of the remaining two

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48
Q

Explain how the brain autoregulates the cerebral blood flow.

A

1) Pressure autoregulation
- When the CPP is within the range of 50-150 mmHg, the brain is able to maintain the stable cerebral blood flow via vascular myogenic reflex
2) Chemical autoregulation
- High PaCO2, low PaO2, high H+ → vasodilation

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49
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of Cushing reflex.

A

Decompensated intracranial hypertension → decreased cerebral blood flow and increased CO2 → catecholamine release → systemic vasoconstriction → activates baroreceptors → bradycardia

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50
Q

What is the ideal CPP in dogs and cats?

A

50 - 90 mmHg

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51
Q

What are the 2 effects of mannitol in treating ICH?

A

1) Immediate volume expansion effect → improves cerebral blood flow
2) Delayed (15-30 min) osmotic effect → reduce brain water

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52
Q

What is the rate of axon regeneration?

A

1 mm per day

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53
Q

What are the muscles that are affected in masticatory myositis?

A

Temporalis
Masseter
Pterygoid

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54
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of acquired myasthenia gravis

A

The body starts to produce autoantibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction of the skeletal muscles. These autoantibodies lead to compliment-mediated destruction of AChR, reduction of functional receptors, and decreased muscular responses to the acetylcholine release, which at the end impair the transmission of action potential from nerve to muscles and results in muscle weakness.

  • This is a type II hypersensitivity
    ** There are 3 main mechanisms for loss of functional AChRs at the neuromuscular junction. The first involves complement-dependent lysis of the postsynaptic membrane caused by antibodies bound to AChRs and simplification of the postsynaptic membrane. Secondly, antibodies can cross-link AChRs on the surface of the membrane leading to increased internalization of AChRs, a decrease in the receptor half-life and decline of the total number of AChRs. In people, the half-life is reduced to 3 days from a normal of 10 days.9 Lastly, antibodies may directly inhibit AChR function.

Reference:
Textbook of Veterinary Internal Medicine,
Khorzad, R., Whelan, M., Sisson, A. and Shelton, G.D. (2011), Myasthenia gravis in dogs with an emphasis on treatment and critical care management. Journal of Veterinary Emergency and Critical Care, 21: 193-208. https://doi.org/10.1111/j.1476-4431.2011.00636.x

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55
Q

List 5 differentials for lower motor neuron diseases.

A

1) Acquired MG
2) Acute idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis
3) Tick paralysis
4) Elapid snake envenomination
5) Hypothyroidism
6) Paraneoplastic syndrome

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56
Q

What is the dose for Tensilon test?

A

Edrophonium is a short-acting anticholinesterase (last 10 minutes)
0.1-0.2 mg/kg IV

  • Alternative: neostigmine 20 mcg/kg IV
57
Q

Cholinergic crisis is a dangerous adverse effect from Tensilon test. Name 5 clinical signs and what is the recommended treatment?

A

Cholinergic crisis is acetylcholine overload at neuromuscular junctions secondary to inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

Clinical signs: hypersalivation, diarrhea, urination, increase bronchial secretion, bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, AV block, muscle twitching
* Patient can be in respiratory distress if the nAhR is overstimulated

Treatment: atropine 0.025 mg/kg IV

58
Q

True or False: In dogs with acute idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis, cranial nerve usually is not affected; while in dogs with botulism, cranial nerve is often affected.

A

True

59
Q

What type of bacteria cause tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani

Gram (+), motile, noncapsulated, anaerobic, spore-forming bacteria

60
Q

What are the two exotoxins for tetanus and how do they affect the body?

A

Tetanospasmin
- Binds to the membranes of the local motor nerve terminals → inhibits the release of neurotransmitter
Tetanolysin
- locally damaging viable tissue surrounding the infected area → optimizing the conditions for bacterial multiplication

61
Q

What is the difference in the neurological signs between botulism and tetanus?

A

Botulism: flaccid paralysis
Tetanus: spastic paralysis

62
Q

What is the difference in source between botulism and tetanus?

A

Botulism: contaminated food
Tetanus: contaminated wound, teething, parturition, OHE

63
Q

What is the direction of infection in tetanus?

A

Motor → Sensory → autonomic nerve → spinal cord → brainstem

64
Q

What type of interneuron does tetanus mainly affect?

A

Mainly affect inhibitory interneurons → inhibit release of GABA

65
Q

List 10 clinical signs in Tetanus.

A

1) Lockjaw
2) Spasm of masticatory & pharyngeal muscles
3) Dysphagia
4) Hypersalivation
5) Opisthotonus
6) Erected ears
7) Wrinkled forehead (sardonic grin)
8) Third eyelid protrution & enophthalmos
9)
10)

66
Q

What is the MOA of using magnesium in tetanus?

A

1) Non-specific Ca channel blocker → decreases Ca entry into presynaptic terminals → decreased
acetylcholine (ACh) release
2) Decreases the sensitivity of postsynaptic motor endplates to ACh

67
Q

What neurological sign is the early indicator of Mg toxicity?

A

Deep tendon hyporeflexia (e.g. patellar tendon)

68
Q

For dogs with tetanus, what is the poor prognosis?

A

Autonomic nerve involvement

69
Q

Describe the severity classification for tetanus in dogs.

A
70
Q

What are the three neurons coordinating the eyeball movements in respond to the vestibular signals?

A

CN 3, 4, 6

71
Q

Where are the vestibular nuclei?

A

medulla oblongata

72
Q

When would the paradoxical head tilt be seen?

A

1) Central vestibular diseases
2) Lesion at the cerebellar peduncle (flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum or the supramedullary part of the caudal cerebellar peduncle)

73
Q

Facial paralysis or spasm may be seen in dogs with peripheral vestibular disease, why?

A

Because CN 7 is very close to CN 8 and can be affected sometimes

74
Q

True or False: Horner’s syndrome (oculosympathetic paresis) is one of the hallmarks for central vestibular disease.

A

False

Rarely seen in central vestibular disease but may be seen in peripheral vestibular disease.

75
Q

Describe the Horner’s syndrome pathway.

A

Horner’s syndrome happens due to the loss of sympathetic nerve supply to the eye.
The entire pathway involves three neurons:

  • First-order neuron: originates from hypothalamus, descend to the midbrain and pons (ipsilateral) and terminates at the C8-T2 spinal cord
  • Second-order neuron (pre-ganglionic neuron): Exits the T1 spinal cord and enters the cervical sympathetic chain, goes ascending and ends at the superior cervical ganglion (deep to the tympanic bulla) at C3-C4
  • Third-order neuron (post-ganglionic neuron): Exits the superior cervical ganglion, follows the internal carotid artery and enter the cavernous sinus, joins the CN 6 and enter the orbits with CN 5.
76
Q

List 5 diseases that can cause Horner’s syndrome.

A

1) Brachial plexus injury
2) Severe middle/inner ear infection
3) Pneumothorax
4) First rib fractures
5) Idiopathic
6) Cervical trauma

77
Q

What are the 4 signs of Horner’s syndrome

A

Ptosis
Miosis
Third eyelid protrusion
Enophthalmos

78
Q

Which antibiotic can cause peripheral vestibular disease, which one can cause central vestibular disease?

A

Aminoglycoside - peripheral vestibular
Metronidazole - central vestibular

79
Q

In a paper published in JVIM 2003 by Evans and colleagues, which drug can shorten the recovery time of metronidazole toxicity?

A

Diazepam 0.5 mg/kg PO q8h x 3 days (first dose is given as injection)

80
Q

True or False: Glutamate + ammonia → Glutamine

A

True

81
Q

Which cell in the brain facilitates the removal or ammonia?

A

Astrocytes

By transamination of glutamate into glutamine

82
Q

List 3 excitatory neurotransmitter and 3 inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

Excitatory: Glutamate, aspartate, acetylcholine, epinephrine, norepinephrine

Inhibitory: GABA, serotonine, glycine

  • Dopamine: modulation
83
Q

Where does quinolinic acid come from?

A

Quinolinic acid is a strong excitatory neurotoxin (bind to NMDA receptors)

84
Q

For cat with hepatic encephalopathy, which amino acid is essential in the diet?

A

arginine (important for urea cycle)

85
Q

What are the three mechanisms for phenobarbital’s anti-seizure effect?

A

1) Prolong the opening of the Cl-channel associated with GABAa receptors
2) Inhibit glutamate receptor
3) Inhibit voltage-gated Ca channel

86
Q

What is the phenobarbital’s protein binding capacity?

A

45%

87
Q

After starting the phenobarbital, when should the patient be checked for serum drug level?

A

after 2 weeks (about 5 half-life so the drug can reach steady-state), and then after 6 weeks

88
Q

What is the MOA of KBr as anticonvulsant?

A

Cause hyperpolarization of the neuron via Br influx through the Cl channels

89
Q

How is bromide metabolized?

A

It is not metabolized and is excreted unchanged in urine

90
Q

What is the half-life for KBr?

A

25 days

91
Q

What is bromism and how do you treat it?

A

Bromide toxicity
Clinical signs: altered mentation, ataxia, upper or lower motor neuron paresis
Treatment: 0.9% NaCl

92
Q

What is the MOA of zonisamide as anticonvulsant? What is the dose in dogs and cats?

A

Inhibition of voltage-gated Na channels
Inhibition of T-type Ca channels
Modulation of dopaminergic activity
Enhancement of GABA activity in the CNS
Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase activity

Dogs: 5-10 mg/kg PO q12h
Cats:10 mg/kg PO q24h

93
Q

What is recommended therapeutic serum zonisamide level?

A

10-40 mcg/ml

94
Q

What is MOA for levetiracetam?

A

Binding to the synaptic vesicle protein SV2A → decreased release of neurotransmitter into the synapse

95
Q

How is levetiracetam metabolized? What is the half-life?

A

minimal metabolism, mostly excrete in urine

Half-life: 3-4 hours

96
Q

What is MOA of gabapentin?

A

Bind to the α2δ1 subunit of neuronal voltage-gated Ca channels → inhibition of release of excitatory neurotransmitters into the synapse

97
Q

Which space does CSF locate?

A

Subarachnoid space

98
Q

What are the 4 contraindications of CSF tap?

A

1) Acute traumatic brain injury
2) Coagulopathy or severe thrombocytopenia
3) Atlanto-axial luxation or cranial cervical vertebral fracture or luxation
4) Severe/rapidly progressing intracranial hypertension

99
Q

List the tissue you will go through during CSF tapping.

A

1) Skin
2) Subcutaneous space
3) Muscles
4) Supraspinous ligament
5) Interspinous ligament
6) Ligamentum Flavum
7) Epidural space
8) Dura mater
9) Arachnoid
10) Subarachnoid space

100
Q

What are the landmarks of CSF tapping at cisterna magna?

A

External occipital protuberance
C2 cranial edge of the spinal process
Dorsal arch of C1 vertebrae
Atlas wings

1) Draw a line between the external occipital protuberance and the C2 cranial edge of the spinal process. The spinal needle insertion site should be in the middle of that line

2) Draw a triangle between the external occipital protuberance and the two wings of atlas. The spinal needle insertion site should be in the center of the triangle

101
Q

How many ml of CSF can be safely removed in cats and small dogs? What about larger dogs?

A

Cats & small dogs: 1-2 ml
Larger dogs: 6 ml

102
Q

What are the preferred lumbar CSF tap in large breed dogs, small breed dogs and cats?

A

Large breed dogs: L4 - L5
Small breed dogs: L5 - L6
Cats: L6 - L7

103
Q

What is normal protein concentration and WBCs numbers in cisternal and lumbar CSF?

A

Cisternal: < 25 mg/dL, < 3/uL
Lumbar: < 40 mg/dL, < 5/uL

104
Q

If there is RBCs in the CSF, how do you adjust the protein concentration based on the RBC number?

A

Every 1000 RBCs may increase protein concentration by 1 mg/dl

105
Q

If there is RBCs in the CSF, how do you adjust the WBC count based on the RBC number?

A

Every 500 RBCs will increase WBC number by 1

106
Q

What is the majority of WBC in normal CSF?

A

Small mononuclear cells (60-70%)
Large mononuclear cells (30-40%)

107
Q

What is the dose of ketamine for dogs with refractory epilepsy?

A

5 mg/kg IV, followed by 0.1-0.5 mg/kg/hr

108
Q

Which anticonvulsant is associated with pancreatitis?
1) Phenobarbital
2) KBr
3) Levetiracetam
4) Zonisamide

A

2) KBr

109
Q

Which anticonvulsant is associated with necrotizing dermatitis and KCS?
1) Phenobarbital
2) KBr
3) Levetiracetam
4) Zonisamide

A

4) Zonisamide

110
Q

What are the three CNs that are associated with dysphagia?

A

CN 9, 10, 11

111
Q

What are the most common intracranial neoplasia?

A

Meningioma

112
Q

What CN is affected when a patient has medial strabismus?

A

CN 6

113
Q

Which CNs are purely sensory and which are pure motor?

A

Sensory: 1, 2, 8
Motor: 3, 4, 6, 11, 12

114
Q

What is the most common CNS fungal infection in cats?

A

Cryptococcus

  • Treatment: fluconazole
115
Q

Where do the vestibular nuclei locate?

A

medulla/rostral medulla oblongata

116
Q

What is the pathophysiology of paradoxical vestibular disease?

A

A subset of central vestibular disease

Because the cerebellum’s influence on the vestibular system is largely inhibitory, lesions in cerebellopontine angle cause vestibular release that is interpreted as a contralateral deficit. This results in clinical signs that are consistent with a lesion on the opposite side.

117
Q

True or False: In paradoxical vestibular disease, the nystagmus fast phase will be directed towards the lesion; the head tilt will be away from the lesion; there can be ipsilateral deficits in CN V–XII; and postural reaction deficits is contralateral to the lesion.

A

False

Postural reaction deficits ipsilateral to the lesion

118
Q

List 5 drugs that can cause ototoxicity

A

Aminoglycosides
Loop diuretics
Cisplatin
Chlorhexidine
Erythromycin
Chloramphenicol
Minocycline

119
Q

What are the three types of disc herniation?

A

1) Hansen type I herniations: involve a complete rupture of the annulus with displacement of the nucleus into soft tissue structures.
2) Hansen type II herniations: ruptures of the inner layers of the annulus and only partial displacement of the nucleus into the annular fibers with annular hypertrophy
3) Non-compressive disk ruptures (also known as high-velocity low-volume, type III, traumatic) are small-volume herniations that result in significant spinal cord injury (e.g. ANNPE)

120
Q

Describe central cord syndrome.

A

It’s a clinical presentation in which patients show more severe paresis in the thoracic limbs (TLs) than pelvic limbs (PLs).
In the more cranial cervical spinal cord (mainly C1-C5; some C6-T2), a midline disk herniation can cause compression of the more medial proprioceptive tracts associated with the thoracic limbs before compressing the most lateral belonging to the pelvic limbs.

  • Hypoventilation indicates a poor prognosis
121
Q

Which segment of the spinal vertebrae are most likely to develop diskospondylitis from migrating foreign body?

A

L2-L4

122
Q

What is the common radiological findings on diskospondylitis?

A

Symmetrical lytic lesions of the adjacent vertebral endplates with reactive sclerosis and symmetric spondylosis

** Radiograph findings can lag from the clinical improvement

123
Q

What is the main radiological difference between spinal tumor and diskospondylitis?

A

Most primary vertebral tumors involve one vertebral body and do not affect the IVD or cross the IVD space

124
Q

What is the common empirical tx for diskospondylitis?

A

Cephalexin for 4-6 months to 1 year

125
Q

How often for dogs with diskospondylitis develop subluxation?

A

20%

126
Q

True or False: Phenobarbital is an auto-inducer of hepatic microsomal enzymes (p450 system), which can progressively decrease the elimination half-life with chronic dosing.

A

True

127
Q

What is the recommended time to recheck KBr serum level?

A

6-12 weeks, and the annually

128
Q

What will happen if you administer phenobarbital and zonisamide together long term?

A

Zonisamide’s half-life will decrease

129
Q

List 10 metabolic causes of seizures.

A

Hypoglycemia
Hypothyroidism
Hypoadrenocorticism
Hyperbilirubinemia
Hypoxemia
Hyperosmolarity
Hyperthermia
Hyponatraemia and hypernatraemia
Hypocalcaemia and hypercalcaemia
Hepatic encephalopathy
Uraemic encephalopathy
Hyperlipoproteinaemia

130
Q

What type of receptor is GABAb receptor? What happen when it is activated?

A

G- protein coupled receptor

Activation of GABAb receptor opens K channel and close Ca channels → hyperpolarization of the membrane.

131
Q

Explain paroxysmal depolarization shift.

A

Sustained and uninhibited neuronal depolarization → Cellular influx of Ca → opening of voltage-gated Na channels and an influx of Na → burst of action potentials → plateau-like depolarization → rapid repolarization → hyperpolarization (mediated by GABA)

132
Q

Define refractory status epilepticus and superrefractory status epilepticus.

A

Refractory status epilepticus: SE that does not respond to first-line anticonvulsant therapy.

Superrefractory status epilepticus: SE continuing or recurring more than 24 hours after initiation of treatment with anesthetic therapy.

133
Q

Define status epilepticus.

A

Seizure activity that lasts > 5 minutes, or the occurrence of 2 or more seizures without recovery of consciousness.

134
Q

What are the two main type of glutamate receptor. Which one does NMDA belong to?

A

Inotropic (influx of Na and Ca through the channel): NMDA, AMPA, kainate
Metabotropic (use a second messenger system to increase inward currents of Na & Ca, which leads to depolarization)

135
Q

What happens when NMDA receptor is activated?

A

increase intracellular Ca → further depolarization

136
Q

What are the two phases of SE.

A

1) Compensated SE
- Increase autonomic activity secondary to seizure activity
- hypertension, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, ptyalism, increased cerebral blood flow

2) Decompensated SE (after ~30 minutes of continuous seizure activity)
- Cerebrovascular autoregulation fails and intracranial pressure increases
- Hypoglycemia, hyperthermia, hypoxia, respiratory failure, acidosis, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, uremia may occur

137
Q

What is the onset of IV phenobarbital? What about keppra?

A

15 minutes
14 minutes

138
Q

What are the three types of nerve injury?

A

1) Neurapraxia: mildest injury type and includes transient functional loss (conduction block) without loss of nerve continuity.
Axonotmesis: interruption of nerve axons with some degree of myelin loss. The surrounding perineurium and epineurium are preserved.
Neurotmesis: complete rupture of a nerve (axon, myelin, and surrounding structures). Recovery is not possible without surgical intervention

2023 ECC Board Exam (24 decks)

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