Neurology 🧠 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

-age

-genetics (mutations in APP, PSEN1, PSEN2, APOE)

-cardiovascular disease

-depression

-low educational attainment

-low social engagement & support

-head trauma

-learning difficulties

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3
Q

What are the pathological changes seen in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

-beta-amyloid plaques (extracellular)

-neurofibrillary tangles (intracellular)

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4
Q

Where in the brain are beta-amyloid plaques & neurofibrillary tangles deposited in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

hippocampus & medial temporal lobes

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5
Q

What are the clinical features of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

-cognitive impairment

-behavioural and psychological symptoms (BPSD)

-early memory impairment & difficulty learning new information

-difficulties with activities of daily living

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6
Q

What are the cognitive domains assessed using cognitive assessment tools?

A

-attention & concentration

-memory

-language

-praxis (planned motor movement)

-executive function

-visuospatial function

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7
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

-depression (& other psychiatric disorders)

-drugs (especially anti-cholingergics)

-delirium

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8
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

-functional ability

-cognitive remains (impairment involving 2+ cognitive domains)

-exclusion of differentials

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9
Q

What is mild cognitive impairment?

A

When there is a deficit in a single domain (of the dementia diagnosis areas) and it is mild.

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10
Q

What are the investigations for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

-full bloods to exclude other diagnoses

-ECG, syphilis testing, CXR

-neuroimaging (typically MRI)

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11
Q

What is the non-pharmacological management of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

-assess capacity & advanced care planning

-inform DVLA

programmes to improve/maintain cognitive function

-managing BPSD

-care plans

-end-of-life care

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12
Q

What is the pharmacological management of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

mild-to-moderate AD: acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine)

moderate-to-severe: memantine

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13
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

idiopathic unilateral facial nerve palsy causing unilateral facial weakness

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14
Q

What are the functions of the facial nerve?

A

-supplies stapedius muscle within ear

-muscles of facial expression

-parasympathetic supply to lacrimal & salivary glands

-provides taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of facial nerve palsy?

A

Bell’s palsy

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16
Q

What are the clinical features of Bell’s palsy?

A

-rapid onset unilateral facial weakness (<72h)

-post-auricular/ear pain

-difficulty chewing

-incomplete eye closure

-drooling

-tingling

-hyperacusis (heightened sensitivity to sound)

-loss of nasolabialfold

-drooping of eyebrow

-drooping corner of mouth

-asymmetrical smile

-Bell’s sign (upward movement of the eye maintained on attempt to close the eye)

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17
Q

How do you differentiate between Bell’s palsy & stroke?

A

strokes are forehead sparing, Bell’s palsy causes forehead paralysis

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18
Q

What does the House-Brackmann system assess?

A

degree of facial nerve damage/paralysis following surgery or Bell’s palsy

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19
Q

How is Bell’s palsy diagnosed?

A

-clinical diagnosis based on unilateral facial weakness, rapid onset, no forehead sparing

-blood test, neuroimaging, HIV test to exclude other causes (incl. Ramsay-Hunt)

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20
Q

What is the management of Bell’s palsy?

A

-largely supportive

-prednisolone if presenting within 72h of onset (50mg for 10 days)

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21
Q

What is the prognosis of Bell’s palsy?

A

most patients will fully recover within 4 months

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22
Q

What is a cluster headache?

A

-severe primary recurrent unilateral headaches around the eye or temporal region

-last 15min to 3h

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23
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for cluster headaches?

A

-at least 5 attacks

-severe, unilateral orbital/temporal pain lasting 15-180 mins

-associated with one of the following on the ipsilateral side; conjunctival infection, nasal congestion, eyelid oedema, forehead sparing, facial sweating, mitosis/ptosis

-restlessness/agitation

-occurring every 2 days up to 8 per day

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24
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of cluster headaches?

A

-episodic: pain-free intervals of at least 3 months between clusters

-chronic: do not have a period of remission lasting longer than 3 months

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25
Q

What are the red flag characteristics in headaches?

A

-severe sudden onset

-progressive or persistent, acute change

-worse on standing

-worse on lying

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26
Q

What are the investigations for cluster headaches?

A

-neurology review

-MRI and CT to exclude other causes

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27
Q

What is the management of cluster headaches?

A

-sumatriptan

-trigger avoidance

-traditional analgesia

-short burst oxygen therapy

-verapamil as preventative

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28
Q

What is delirium?

A

an acute confusional state that causes disturbed consciousness, attention, cognition & perception

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29
Q

What are the characteristic features of delirium?

A

-acute onset

-symptoms fluctuate throughout the day

-altered awareness & attention

-disturbed cognition

-evidence of organic cause

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30
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of delirium?

A

-hyperactive: agitation, restlessness, hallucinations

-hypoactive: lethargic, withdrawn, drowsy

-mixed delirium

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31
Q

What are the risk factors for delirium?

A

-age

-multiple comorbidities

-frailty

-malnutrition

-visual/hearing impairment

-functional impairment

-alcohol excess

-major injury e.g. hip fracture

-cognitive impairment

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32
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for delirium?

A

-disturbance in awareness & attention

-acute onset, acute change from baseline & fluctuant

-disturbance in cognition

-not better explained by another neurocognitive disorder

-evidence of an organic cause

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33
Q

What is the management of delirium?

A

-address underlying cause

-mental capacity assessment

-rapid tranquillisation may be required (benzodiazepines, anti-psychotics)

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34
Q

What are the options for rapid tranquillisation in delirium?

A

-benzodiazepines: lorazepam

-anti-psychotics: haloperidol, olanzepine

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35
Q

What are the 2 stages of assessing capacity?

A
  1. does the person have an impairment of the mind or brain, as a result of illness or external factors (drugs/alcohol)?
  2. does the impairment mean the person is unable to make a specific decision when they need to?
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36
Q

What are the main causes of dementia?

A

-Alzheimer’s disease (50-70%)

-vascular dementia (20%)

-Lewy-body dementia (15-20%)

-frontotemporal dementia (2%)

-rarer causes: Parkinson’s, Huntington’s

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37
Q

What are the behavioural and psychological symptoms of dementia (BPSD)?

A

-agitation & emotional lability

-depression & anxiety

-sleep cycle disturbance

-disinhibition

-withdrawal/apathy

-motor disturbance

-psychosis

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38
Q

What are the main features of vascular dementia?

A

-stepwise decline in function

-predominant gait, attention & personality changes

-may have focal neurological signs (previous stroke)

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39
Q

What are the main features of Lewi-body dementia?

A

-Parkinsonism

-falls, syncope

-hallucinations

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40
Q

What are the main features of frontotemporal dementia?

A

-marked personality change

-behavioural disturbances

-memory and perception relatively preserved

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41
Q

How is the severity of dementia assessed?

A

-MMSE

-MoCA

-clinical dementia rating (CDR)

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42
Q

How is the severity of dementia categorised?

A

Mild: MMSE 21-26, MoCA 18-25, CDR 1

Moderate: MMSE 10-20, MoCA 10-17, CDR 2

Severe: MMSE <10, MoCA <10, CDR 3

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43
Q

What is the pharmacological management of dementia?

A

-acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepizil, rivastigmine)

-memantine

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44
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

inflammation of the brain parenchyma, which characteristically presents with abnormal brain function

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45
Q

What is the most severe cause of encephalitis?

A

herpes simplex virus encephalitis - usually fatal without treatment

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46
Q

What are the possible causes of encephalitis?

A

infectious: can be viral, bacterial, fungal, parasitic

non-infectious: paraneoplastic, post-infectious, autoimmune

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47
Q

What are the features of HSV encephalitis?

A

-HSV1: rapid onset fever, headache, altered mental status, seizures, neurological deficits

-can cause CNS infection by invasion following oropharyngeal infection, or reactivation of dormant virus

-damage is typically within the temporal lobes

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48
Q

What are the features of post-infective encephalitis?

A

-immune mediated disorder usually seen in children

-demyelinating condition

-development of encephalopathy 4-13 days following an infection or vaccination

-due to development of antibodies against components of myelin

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49
Q

What are the features of autoimmune encephalitis?

A

-immune-mediated inflammatory disorders of the brain tissue

-antibody develops against an antigen within the CNS

-this initiates an immune response which leads to encephalitis

-e.g. NMDA encephalitis: antibody targets the NMDA receptor

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50
Q

What are the features of paraneoplastic encephalitis?

A

-due to the immune system reacting to antigens expressed on the tumour and the nervous system

specific cancers have been linked to specific autoantibodies:

-limbic encephalitis

-brainstem encephalitis

-antibody related syndrome

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51
Q

What are the clinical features of encephalitis?

A

-fever

-headache

-altered mental status

-focal neurological deficits

-seizures

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52
Q

What investigations are important in encephalitis?

A

-neuroimaging

-EEG

-CSF analysis: protein, viral PCR, MC&S, glucose, serology

-serological testing

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53
Q

What is the management of encephalitis?

A

-infective causes: antimicrobials

HSV encephalitis: IV aciclovir

-paraneoplastic, autoimmune & post-infective causes: immunosuppressive e.g. steroids

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54
Q

What is a seizure?

A

transient neurological change due to synchronous, hyper excited neuronal activity in the brain

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55
Q

What is the aetiology of epilepsy?

A

-genetic

-structural abnormalities

-metabolic disorders

-immune disorders

-chronic infections

-unknown

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56
Q

What is the pathophysiology of epilepsy?

A

-imbalance between inhibitory & excitatory signals

-gabanergic = inhibitory

-glutametergic = excitatory

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57
Q

What are the risk factors for epilepsy?

A

-cerebrovascular disease

-head trauma

-cerebral infections

-family history

-premature birth

-congenital malformations of the brain

-genetic conditions associated with epilepsy

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58
Q

What are the different types of seizures?

A

-area of onset: focal, general, focal to bilateral tonic-clonic

-awareness: aware, impaired awareness

-motor: tonic, clonic, myoclonic, atonic, spasms

-non-motor: absence, sensory, emotional, autonomic or behavioural changes

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59
Q

What are the different types of epilepsy?

A

-focal epilepsy

-generalised epilepsy

-generalised & focal epilepsy: combination of both

-unknown epilepsy: insufficient evidence to conclude whether focal, generalised, or both

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60
Q

What are the 4 stages of a seizure?

A

-prodrome: feeling or sensation occurring before the onset of a seizure

-early ictal: characterised by an aura, suggestive of focal epilepsy

-ictal phase: depends on seizure type, tonic-clonic movements, urinary incontinence, tongue biting

-post ictal: recover period once the seizure has finished

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61
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for epilepsy?

A

any of the following:

-2+ unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24h apart

-1 unprovoked seizure with a probability of further seizures felt to be at a similar recurrence risk to patients with 2+ unprovoked seizures over the next 10 years

-a diagnosed epilepsy syndrome

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62
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for epilepsy?

A

-syncope & anoxic seizures

-behavioural, psychological & psychiatric

-sleep-related conditions

-paroxysmal movement disorders

-migraine associated disorders

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63
Q

What are the investigations for epilepsy?

A

-EEG: supports a diagnosis of epilepsy & determines seizure type

-MRI/CT: structural abnormalities

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64
Q

What are the key aspects of epilepsy management?

A

-education & safety

-treating acute seizures

-long term treatment with anti epileptics

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65
Q

What are the safety precautions in epilepsy?

A

-driving: depends on type of license & type of seizure

-water safety: showers instead of baths

-fire safety: caution with heat/flames

-environmental safety: home/work environment

-other: heights, contraception, high risk activities

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66
Q

What are the common anti epileptic drugs?

A

-sodium valproate

-carbamazepine

-lamotrigine

-levetiracetam

-phenytoin

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67
Q

What are the key points about sodium valproate?

A

-unclear mechanism

-teratogenic

-SEs: liver injury, pancreatitis, increased suicide risk

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68
Q

What are the key points about carbamazepine?

A

-sodium channel antagonist

-increased teratogenic risk

-SEs: agranulocytosis, SIADH

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69
Q

What are the key points about lamotrigine?

A

-sodium channel antagonist

-SEs: severe skin reactions

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70
Q

What are the key points about levetiracetam?

A

-unclear mechanism

-SEs: CNS disturbances (somnolence, decreased energy, headache), neurophsychiatric disturbance

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71
Q

What are the key points about phenytoin?

A

-sodium channel antagonist

-teratogenic

-SEs: arrhythmia with parenteral use, gum hypertrophy, cerebellar atrophy

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72
Q

What is the pharmacological management of focal seizures?

A

1st line - Lamotrigine (if childbearing potential), alternative carbamazepine (if no childbearing potential)

2nd line - Levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine or sodium valproate

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73
Q

What is the pharmacological management of generalised tonic-clonic seizures?

A

1st line - sodium valproate* or lamotrigine.

2nd line - clobazam, lamotrigine, levetiracetam or topiramate

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74
Q

What is the pharmacological management of absence seizures?

A

1st line - ethosuximide or sodium valproate*.

2nd line - lamotrigine

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75
Q

What is the pharmacological management of myoclonic seizures?

A

1st line - sodium valproate.

2nd line - levetiracetam or topiramate

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76
Q

What is the pharmacological management of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

1st line - sodium valproate*.

2nd line - lamotrigine , levetiracetam or topiramate

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77
Q

What is an essential tremor?

A

a tremor during voluntary muscle contratction, is brought out by anti-gravity positions (e.g. outstretched hands)

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78
Q

What is the cause of essential tremor?

A

-associated with strong family history

-suspected to be autosomal dominant

-exact mechanism not understood

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79
Q

What are the clinical features of an essential tremor?

A

-usually bilateral

-occurs on movement/outstretching of the arms

-most commonly affects the hands & arms

-typically high frequency with low amplitude

-improves slightly with alcohol

-usually no other neurological signs

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80
Q

How is a diagnosis of essential tremor made?

A

clinical diagnosis based on:

-isolated upper limb action tremor

-with/without tremor in other sites (e.g. head)

-duration >3 years

-no other neurological features

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81
Q

What is the pharmacological management of essential tremor?

A

propranolol (beta blocker) or primidone (anti-epileptic)

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82
Q

What are the non-pharmacological management options for essential tremor?

A

-neuromodulation

-botox injections

-deep brain stimulation

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83
Q

What is frontotemporal dementia?

A

-focal degeneration of frontal & temporal lobes

-disturbances is social behaviour, personality & language

-typically affects patients at a younger age (average 58)

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84
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of frontotemporal dementia?

A

-behavioural variant: most common, personality & behaviour change

-non-fluent primary progressive aphasia: articulatory difficulty

-semantic primary progressive aphasia: impaired single-word comprehension

85
Q

What is the aetiology of frontotemporal dementia?

A

strong genetic predisposition: MAPT, GRN, C90RF72 gene

86
Q

What is the pathophysiology of frontotemporal dementia?

A

-degeneration of frontal/temporal lobes

-deposition of abnormal proteins e.g. tau proteins, Pick bodies

87
Q

What are the clinical features of FTD (behavioural variant)?

A

-disinhibition

-loss of empathy

-apathy

-hyperorality (e.g. dietary changes, consuming non-edible products)

-compulsive behaviour

88
Q

What are the clinical features of FTD (primary progressive aphasia variant)?

A

-effortful speech

-halting speech

-speech-sound errors

-speech apraxia

-difficulty finding words

-surface dyslexia or dysgraphia (mispronouncing difficult words)

89
Q

What are the motor syndromes associated with FTD?

A

-FTD with motor neurone disease

-corticobasal syndrome: rare neurogenerative disorder

-progressive supranuclear palsy

90
Q

What are the pharmacological management options for FTD?

A

medications to manage behavioural/cognitive dysfunction e.g.:

-SSRIs

-atypical antipsychotics

91
Q

What is the prognosis of frontotemporal dementia

A

overall survival is 8-10 years from symptom onset

92
Q

What is Guillain-BarrƩ syndrome?

A

-acute, inflammatory polyneuropathy

-progressive ascending weakness of the lower limbs

-majority of patients have a preceding illness (gastroenteritis or flu)

93
Q

What are the common triggers of Guillain-BarrƩ syndrome?

A

-campylobacter (25-50%)

-other infection: CMV, EBV, hepatitis E, mycoplasma pneumoniae

94
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Guillain-BarrƩ syndrome?

A

-immune-mediated damage to peripheral nerves

-demyelination

95
Q

What are the key investigations for suspected Guillain-BarrƩ syndrome?

A

-electromyography

-nerve conduction studies

-lumbar puncture: high protein, normal WCC

-spirometry: to measure involvement of respiratory muscles

96
Q

What is the management of Guillain-BarrƩ syndrome?

A

-plasma exchange or IV immunoglobulin quickens recovery

-supportive care: analgesia, respiratory support, DVT prophylaxis

97
Q

What is the Hughes disability score used for?

A

functional assessment of patients with Guillain-barre syndrome

98
Q

What are the factors associated with poorer prognosis in Guillain-barre syndrome?

A

-old age
-preceding campylobacter infection
-rapid onset and severe presenting symptoms
-need for mechanical ventilation

99
Q

What is the triad of features in Horner’s syndrome?

A

unilateral:
-miosis (pupil constriction)
-ptosis
-anhidrosis

100
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Horner’s syndrome?

A

lesion along the oculosympathetic pathway, which is a sympathetic pathway responsible for:
-pupil dilatation
-sweating
-eyelid elevation

101
Q

What are possible causes of Horner’s syndrome?

A

-stroke
-space occupying lesion
-multiple sclerosis
-syringomyelia (fluid-filled spinal cord cyst)
-trauma
-pancoast tumour
-thoracic outlet syndrome
-thoracic aneurysm
-carotid artery dissection
-cavernous sinus pathology
-neck mass

102
Q

What are the neurological features associated with Horner’s syndrome?

A

-brainstem signs: diplopia, vertigo, ataxia, focal weakness
-spinal cord signs: weakness, sensory level, bowel & bladder impairment
-axillary or lung apex involvement: arm pain, hand weakness
-isolated Horner’s: concerning for carotid dissection

103
Q

What are the investigations in Horner’s syndrome?

A

-CT angiography to exclude carotid artery dissection
-MRI for suspected spinal cord lesions
-CT chest for suspected pan coast tumour

104
Q

How is Horner’s syndrome diagnosed?

A

-cocaine drops: fails to cause pupil dilatation
-apraclonidine drops: causes exaggerated pupil constriction

105
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

-autosomal dominant neurodegenerative condition
-characterised by chorea, dystonic & cognitive changes
-onset around 30-50 years
-caused by CAG triplet repeats

106
Q

What are the motor features of Huntington’s disease?

A

-chorea: abnormal, abrupt, involuntary movements
-dysphagia & speech difficulties
-dystonia: muscle spasms & contractions
-parkinsonian features: bradykinesia, rigidity

107
Q

What are the psychiatric features of Huntington’s disease?

A

-mood changes: often precede motor symptoms
-depression & increased suicide risk
-paranoia, delusions, irritability, agitation, sleep disturbance

108
Q

What are the cognitive features of Huntington’s disease?

A

-affects ability make complex decisions & multitask
-memory loss & dementia may develop

109
Q

How is Huntington’s disease diagnosed?

A

PCR analysis/gel electrophoresis to identify the number of CAG repeats

110
Q

What is the pharmacological management of Huntington’s disease?

A

-dopamine depleting agents (e.g. tetrabenazine): helps with chorea, but may result in Parkinsonism
-antipsychotics (e.g. risperidone)
-benzodiazepines (e.g. clonazepam)

111
Q

What is the prognosis of Huntington’s disease?

A

normally fatal 15-20 years after symptom onset

112
Q

What are the risk factors for IIH (idiopathic intracranial hypertension)?

A

-increased weight
-female
-reproductive age

113
Q

What are the medications/conditions associated with IIH?

A

-medications: GH, tetracyclines, retinoids
-excess vitamin A
-systemic illness: sleep apnoea, hyper coagulable disorders, PCOD, SLE, Behcet’s syndrome, endocrine disorders

114
Q

What are the potential mechanisms behind IIH?

A

-venous sinus narrowing/stenosis
-central obesity
-altered sodium & water retention
-impaired CSF reabsorption

115
Q

What are the clinical features of IIH?

A

-headache: worse lying down/bending over
-papilloedema
-visual changes: diplopia, flashes, transient visual loss, 6th nerve palsy

116
Q

How is IIH diagnosed?

A

-exclude structural causes of raised ICP with neuroimaging
-raised pressures on lumbar puncture

Dandy criteria:
-typical symptoms
-absence of additional neurological features
-raised ICP with normal CSF composition
-absence of other causes of intracranial HTN

117
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of IIH?

A

-space occupying lesion
-venous outflow obstruction
-obstructive hydrocephalus
-decreased CSF reabsorption
-increased CSF production (choroid plexus papilloma)

118
Q

What are the different causes of optic disc swelling?

A

-papilloedema (raised ICP)
-optic nerve pathologies (optic neuritis)
-retinal artery or vein occlusion
-uveitis

119
Q

What is the management of IIH?

A

-weight loss
-carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g. acetazolamide)
-surgical treatment: optic nerve sheath fenestration, shunting

120
Q

What is the main complication of IIH?

A

permanent visual loss

121
Q

What the pathophysiology of Lewy body dementia?

A

presence of Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex & brainstem

122
Q

Which genetic mutations are associated with Lewy body dementia?

A

SNCA, PSEN1/PSEN2, APOE, APP

123
Q

What are the characteristic features of Lewy body dementia?

A

-fluctuating cognition
-visual hallucinations
-Parkinsonism (bradykinesia, rest tremor, rigidity)
-REM sleep disorders: may precede cognitive decline

124
Q

What are the clinical features that support a diagnosis of Lewy body dementia?

A

-severe sensitivity to antipsychotic agents
-postural instability & repeated falls
-syncope
-severe autonomic dysfunction (constipation, orthostatic hypotension, incontinence)
-excessive daytime sleepiness
-decreased sense of smell

125
Q

What is the specialist neuroimaging that supports a diagnosis of Lewy body dementia?

A

-SPECT: looks at dopamine uptake
-polysomnography: assesses for REM sleep disorders
-EEG, MRI

126
Q

What are the pharmacological interventions for Lewy body dementia?

A

-cholinesterase inhibitors (rivastigmine, donepezil)

-memantine

-antipsychotics (e.g. quetiapine)

-melatonin (for REM sleep disorders)

-levodopa

127
Q

What is the prognosis of Lewy body dementia?

A

-mean survival is 6.1 years

-features with worse prognosis: cognitive fluctuations, early hallucinations, gait abnormalities

128
Q

What is the difference between chronic migraine & episodic migraine?

A

-chronic: headache on more than 15 days each month, 8 of which have features of migraine

-episodic: less frequent than above

129
Q

What are the typical features of migraines?

A

-attacks last 4-72 hours

-unilateral

-pulsating

-moderate/severe intensity

-aggravated by physical activity

-associated with nausea/photophobia/phonophobia

-may be associated with aura (neurological symptoms preceding headache)

130
Q

What are red flags when differentiating between migraine and TIA/stroke?

A

-motor weakness

-diplopia

-visual symptoms affecting only one eye

-poor balance

-decreased level of consciousness

131
Q

What is the acute management of migraines?

A

-simple analgesia (paracetamol, ibuprofen, aspirin)

-triptans

-antiemetics

132
Q

What are the preventative options in migraine?

A

-propranolol

-topiramate (contraindicated in pregnancy)

-amitriptyline

-galcenezumab

133
Q

What is the pharmacological management for menstrual-related migraine?

A

-frovatriptan

-zolmitriptan

134
Q

What are the complications associated with migraines?

A

-status migraine: persists for over 72 hours

-persistent aura without infarction: lasting over 1 week

-migrainous infarction: cerebral infarction occurs during aura

-migraine aura-triggered seizure

-ischaemic stroke

135
Q

What is a mononeuropathy?

A

-damage/dysfunction of a single peripheral nerve

-leads to motor and/or sensory dysfunction

-commonly due to entrapment or compression

136
Q

What are the functions of visceral fibres in the PNS?

A

-visceral sensory fibres: carry signals from thoracic & abdominal compartments

-visceral motor fibres:form the autonomic nervous system (sympathetic & parasympathetic)

137
Q

What are the functions of somatic fibres in the PNS?

A

-sensory input from skin, muscles, bones & joints

-motor output to glands & muscles

138
Q

What are the 3 broad groups of mononeuropathies?

A

-cranial

-upper limb

-lower limb

139
Q

What are the main nerves of the upper limb?

A

-median

-ulnar

-radial

-axillary

-other: musculocutaneous, long thoracic, suprascapular, spinal accessory

140
Q

What are the main nerves of the lower limb?

A

-common peroneal

-tibial

-femoral

-sciatic

-other: sural, obturator, lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

141
Q

What are the 12 cranial nerves?

A

-CN I: olfactory

-CN II: optic

-CN III: oculomotor

-CN IV: trochlear

-CN V: trigeminal

-CN VI: abducens

-CN VII: facial

-CN VIII: vestibulocochlear

-CN IX: glossopharyngeal

-CN X: vagus

-CN XI: accessory

-CN XII: hypoglossal

142
Q

What are the possible causes of peripheral nerve injury?

A

-compression (e.g. compartment syndrome, carpal tunnel)

-transection (usually due to trauma)

-inflammation

-ischaemia (due to vasculitis, atherosclerosis, DM)

-radiation

143
Q

What is the path of the median nerve?

A

-derived from brachial plexus (C5-T1)

-travels alongside the brachial artery into the cubital fossa

-travels along forearm, through carpal tunnel

144
Q

Which nerve is affected in carpal tunnel syndrome?

145
Q

What is the sensory function of the median nerve?

A

sensory innervation to the palmar & distal dorsal aspects of the lateral 3 1/2 digits & central palm

146
Q

What are the motor functions of the median nerve?

A

-in the forearm: pronator trees, FCR, PL, FDS, pronator quadrates, FPL, part of FDP

-in the hand: thenar eminence & 2 lateral lumbricals

147
Q

What are the causes/risk factors for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

-risk factors: DM, pregnancy, RA, obesity, thyroid disease

-other causes: haematoma, trauma, tumour, vasculitis

148
Q

What are the clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

-sensory loss/parasthesia over palmar & distal dorsal aspects of the lateral 3 1/2 digits

-weakness/clumsiness using the hand

-weakness of thumb abduction

-thenar eminence wasting

-hand pain: typically worse at night

149
Q

What are the special tests for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

-Phalen’s test: hyperflexing hands & holding dorsal surfaces together for 1 minute reproduces symptoms

-Tinel test: percussion over median nerve proximal to the carpal tunnel reproduces symptoms

150
Q

What is the path of the ulnar nerve?

A

-originates from brachial plexus

-medial to brachial artery in the upper arm

-passes between medial epicondyle & olecranon

-runs through the cubital tunnel (at the elbow) and Guyon’s canal (at the wrist)

151
Q

What is the sensory function of the ulnar nerve?

A

-little finger & medial side of ring finger

-medial side of the dorsum of the hand

152
Q

What is the motor function of the ulnar nerve?

A

-in the forearm: flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum profundus

-intrinsic muscles of the hand & hypothenar muscles

153
Q

What are possible causes of cubital tunnel syndrome?

A

-trauma (e.g. distal humerus fracture)

-prolonged elbow flexion

-leaning on the elbow

-osteophyte formation due to arthritis

-mass lesions

154
Q

What are the clinical features of ulnar nerve neuropathy?

A

-sensory loss/parasthesia over little finger and ring finger

-grip weakness

-wasting of the hypothenar eminence/interossei muscles

-claw hand deformity in severe cases

155
Q

What is the path of the radial nerve?

A

-branches off the brachial plexus

-runs along the radial groove of the humerus

-wraps around humerus & passes anteriorly to the lateral epicondyle & through the cubital fossa

-gives off superficial sensory branch & deep motor branch

156
Q

What is the sensory function of the radial nerve?

A

sensory innervation to the dorsal aspect of the radial 3 1/2 digits

157
Q

What is the motor function of the radial nerve?

A

-triceps

-extensor muscles of the forearm

158
Q

What are the typical causes of radial nerve palsy?

A

-mid-humeral fracture

-Saturday night palsy (arm placed over chair etc for an extended period)

-posterior interosseous syndrome (due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch)

159
Q

What are the clinical features of radial nerve palsy?

A

-wrist drop

-weakness of finger extension

-sensory loss/parasthesia over dorsum of hand

160
Q

What is the path of the common peroneal nerve?

A

-terminal branch of the sciatic nerve (L4-S2)

-also known as common fibular

-passes through the popliteal fossa, then around the head of the fibula

-divides into superficial & deep peroneal nerves

161
Q

What are the functions of the superficial peroneal nerve?

A

-sensory: skin over anterolateral skin & top of foot

-motor: muscles in lateral compartment of lower leg

162
Q

What are the functions of the deep peroneal nerve?

A

-sensory: space between big toes & 2nd toe

-motor: muscles in the anterior compartment of the lower leg

163
Q

What are the possible causes of peroneal nerve palsy?

A

-trauma/injury to the knee

-external compression from tight splint, leg crossing etc.

164
Q

What are the clinical features of peroneal neuropathy?

A

-foot drop

-tripping over when walking

-sensory loss over the dorsum of foot & lateral shin

165
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for mononeuropathies?

A

-electrodiagnostic tests (EMG, NCS) to confirm the neuropathy

-imaging to identify the cause of the compression

-specific blood tests depending on the suspected cause (e.g. thyroid function & DM in carpal tunnel)

166
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

-chronic, immune-mediated demyelinating neuroinflammatory condition

-demyelination can lead to scarring & secondary neuronal loss

-usually has relapsing-remitting course

167
Q

What is the mean age of onset of MS?

A

20-40 years

168
Q

What are the causes/risk factors for developing MS?

A

-genetic predisposition

-viral infections (EBV/glandular fever)

-low sunlight exposure & vitamin D

-others: obesity, smoking, female

169
Q

What is the pathophysiology of MS?

A

-destruction of oligodendrocytes (which are important in myelin sheath formation)

-possible autoimmune cause

-formation of MS plaques

-inflammation, scarring, axonal injury

170
Q

Which sites in the brain are typically affected in MS?

A

-optic nerves

-spinal cord

-brainstem (may present with ophthalmoplegia)

-cerebellum (ataxia & gait disturbance)

-juxtacortical white matter

-periventricular white matter

171
Q

What are the classifications of MS?

A

-relapsing-remitting (85-90%): episodes of exacerbation followed by periods of recovery

-primary progressive (10-15%): sustained progression of severity from onset of disease

-secondary progressive: disease course switches from relapsing-remitting to progressive

172
Q

What are the visual manifestations of MS?

A

-optic neuritis: visual loss, pain, scotoma, poor colour differentiation, RAPF, optic nerve swelling

-eye movement disorders: intranuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO) & abducens palsy

173
Q

What are the motor manifestations of MS?

A

-weakness & ataxia

-UMN signs: spasticity, reduced power, hyper-reflexia)

-transverse myelitis: inflammation in the SC causing parasthesia & weakness below the level

-cerebellar syndrome: ataxia, slurred speech, tremor, nystagmus, vertigo, clumsiness

174
Q

What are the sensory/autonomic manifestations of MS?

A

-parasthesia

-pain

-heat sensitivity

-sexual dysfunction

-bladder & bowel dysfunction

175
Q

What are the cognitive.psychological manifestations of MS?

A

-cognitive impairment (memory, attention, concentration)

-fatigue

-depression

176
Q

How is a diagnosis of MS made?

A

-clinical diagnosis, supported by the use of MRI

-based on MS attack supported by objective clinical evidence (e.g. MRI)

-McDonald criteria

177
Q

What are oligoclonal bands?

A

-bands of immunoglobulins found in the CSF of 95% of patients with MS

-can be used as markers of dissemination

178
Q

What are the general principles of management of MS?

A

-bladder dysfunction: anticholinergics, botox injections, self-catheterisation

-bowel dysfunction: dietary changes, laxatives, enemas

-depression: SSRIs

-fatigue: non-pharmacological interventions, modafinil (CNS stimulant)

-pain: amitriptyline, gabapentin, pregabalin

-spasticity: physiotherapy, baclofen (muscle relaxant), botox injections

179
Q

What is the management of an acute relapse of MS?

A

-steroids: oral or IV

-gastroprotection: PPI

180
Q

What factors are linked to prognosis in MS?

A

-disease type: relapsing-remitting has better prognosis than primary progressive

-incomplete recovery after first attack = worse prognosis

-clinical manifestations at onset: pyramidal, brainstem, and cerebellar symptoms (poor prognosis). Sensory symptoms, optic neuritis (favourable prognosis)

-pregnancy: protective during pregnancy. Increased risk of relapse in postpartum period.

-imaging: lesion load and cerebral atrophy linked to prognosis (higher burden and increased atrophy have worse prognosis)

181
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

-autoimmune disorder

-formation of antibodies by B lymphocytes that bind to the ACh receptors at the NMJ

-this prevents binding of ACh, leading to increasing muscle weakness with repeated use

182
Q

What are the peak age incidences of myasthenia gravis?

A

20-30 years (most females) and 60-70 years (mostly males)

183
Q

What is the link between myasthenia gravis and the thymus gland?

A

-thymus gland is involved in +ve and -ve selection of T lymphocytes

-10-15% of patients with MG have a thymoma (benign thymus gland tumour)

-85% have thymic hyperplasia

-disease may improve with removal of the thymus gland

184
Q

What is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?

A

-AChR-Abs bind to ACh-R on skeletal muscle (type II hypersensitivity reaction)

this has several effects on the NMJ:

-blocks ACh binding

-causes cross-linking and destruction of ACh-R

-complement-mediated destruction of the post-synaptic membrane

185
Q

How are the different subtypes of myasthenia gravis classified?

A

-clinical subtypes: ocular, generalised

-antibody subtypes: ACh-R, anti-MuSK, anti-LRP4, seronegative

-thymic abnormalities: normal, thymoma, hyperplasia, atrophy

-age of onset: neonatal, juvenile, early-onset (<50), late-onset

186
Q

What are the clinical features of ocular myasthenia gravis?

A

-diplopia

-ptosis

-weak eye movements

-pupillary sparing

-symptoms worse at the end of the day

187
Q

What are the clinical features of generalised myasthenia gravis?

A

-bulbar symptoms: fatiguable chewing, dysarthria, dysphagia

-weakness of facial muscles

-weakness of neck muscles

-proximal muscle weakness, arms more affected than legs

-weakness of respiratory muscles

188
Q

What is the ice pack test in myasthenia gravis?

A

ptosis improves are application of ice to the eyelid for 1 minute (neuromuscular transmission is better at lower temp)

189
Q

How is a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis made?

A

-based on clinical features and serological testing

-ice pack test, serum antibodies, electromyography (EMG), CT/MRI of thymus gland

190
Q

What is the management of myasthenia gravis?

A

-acetylchoniesterase inhibitors (pyridostigmine)

-corticosteroids (prednisolone)

-immunosuppressants (azathioprine)

-thymectomy

191
Q

What is myasthenic crisis?

A

-life-threatening condition

-worsening of weakness that requires respiratory support

-requires ITU admission

192
Q

What is the management of myasthenic crisis?

A

-FVC to monitor respiratory function

-IV immunoglobulines

-plasma exchange

-corticosteroids

193
Q

What are the precipitating factors of myasthenic crisis?

A

-warm weather

-surgery

-stress

-infections/illness

-co-morbidities

-pregnancy

-medications: Abx, antihypertensives, anti-arrhythmics etc.

194
Q

What are the primary features of Parkinsonism?

A

-bradykinesia

-resting tremor

-rigidity

-postural instability

195
Q

What is the peak age of onset of Parkinson’s disease?

A

55-65 years

196
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease?

A

-loss of 50-80% of neurones within the substantia nigra

-this affects the modulation of pyramidal motor output, causing problems with initiating movement

197
Q

What are some of the associated symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A

-expressionless face

-small writing

-soft voice

-drooling

-shuffling gait

-positive Glabellar tap

-depression

-bowel & bladder symptoms

-sleep disorder

-sexual dysfunction

198
Q

How is Parkinson’s disease diagnosed?

A

-identification of features of Parkinsonian syndrome

-exclusion of differential diagnoses (e.g. stroke, trauma, tumour, hydrocephalus, negative response to levodopa etc.)

-identification of supportive features of Parkinson’s disease

199
Q

What are the investigations for Parkinson’s disease?

A

-neuroimaging (CT/MRI)

-PET scanning with fluorodopa

200
Q

What are the pharmacological management options for Parkinson’s disease?

A

-levodopa (given in combination with DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor)

-dopamine agonists

-MAO-B inhibitors

-COMT inhibitors

201
Q

What are the different types of peripheral neuropathies?

A

-radiculopathies (involves spinal nerve root)

-polyneuropathies (dysfunction of multiple nerves in the PNS)

-mononeuropathies (dysfunction of a single peripheral nerve)

202
Q

What are the commonest causes of peripheral neuropathies?

A

-diabetes mellitus

-carcinomatous neuropathy

-B vitamin deficiency (B12/thiamine/folate)

-drugs (Abx, amiodarone, statins, hydralazine, phenytoin)

203
Q

What are the different mechanisms of peripheral nerve damage?

A

-axonal degeneration

-Wallerian degeneration (compression or lesion)

-demyelination

204
Q

What is the typical distribution of polyneuropathies?

A

ā€˜glove and stocking’ distribution, as more distal nerves are affected first

205
Q

What is the typical distribution of radiculopathies?

A

dermatomal/myotomal, as radiculopathies affect spinal nerve roots

206
Q

What is mononeuritis multiplex?

A

simultaneous peripheral neuropathy of 2+ separate nerves (e.g. common peroneal neuropathy + ulnar neuropathy)

207
Q

What are the investigations for peripheral neuropathy?

A

-electromyography (evaluates muscle units)

-nerve conduction studies (evaluates peripheral nerves)

-investigations to determine the cause (FBC, TF, autoimmune tests, serology, imaging)

208
Q

What is the management of peripheral neuropathy?

A

-treatment of underlying cause

-neuropathic analgesia (gabapentin, duloxetine)