Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum score from the GCS given to eye opening?

A

4

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2
Q

What are the different GCS scores for eye opening?

A

1 - No eye opening
2 - To pain
3 - To speech
4 - Spontaneous

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3
Q

What are the different GCS scores for Best Verbal Response?

A

1 - None
2 - Incomprehensible sounds
3 - Inappropriate words
4 - Patient confused
5 - Patient oriented

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4
Q

What are the GCS scores for Best Motor Response?

A

1 - None
2 - Extensor response to painful stimulus
3 - Flexion to painful stimulus
4 - Withdraws from pain
5 - Localises to pain stimulus
6 - Obeys commands

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5
Q

What does abnormal flexion from a painful stimulus indicate?

A

Decorticate Posturing

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6
Q

What is decorticate posturing?

A

Posturing caused by significant damage to areas such as cerebral hemispheres, internal capsule and thalamus

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7
Q

What is decerebrate posturing?

A

Posturing caused by damage to the brain stem.
Shown by people with lesions or compression in midbrain, cerebellum

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8
Q

What would abnormal extension upon painful stimulus imply?

A

Decerebrate posturing

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9
Q

What would progression from decorticate to decerebrate posturing be an indication of?

A

Coning
(Uncal or tonsilar brain herniation)

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10
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria of restless legs syndrome?

A
  1. An urge to move the legs
  2. Temporary relief with movement
  3. Onset or worsening of symptoms with rest or inactivity
  4. Worsening or onset of symptoms in the evening or night
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11
Q

What is neurapraxia?

A

Local myelin damage usually secondary to compression

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12
Q

What is axonotmesis and what are the degrees?

A

Damage to the axon
Second degree - Axon severed but endoneurium intact
Third degree - Axon discontinuity, endoneurial tube discontinuity, perineurium and fascicular arrangement preserved
Fourth degree - Loss of continuity of axons, endoneurial tubes, perineurium and fasciculi, epineurium intact

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13
Q

What is neurotmesis?

A

Complete physiologic disruption of entire nerve trunk

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14
Q

What would be the presentation of Cranial Nerve III Palsy?

A

Ptosis
Eye pointing “Down and Out”

Larger than normal pupil on one side - anisocoria
(Due to loss of parasympathetic pupillary constriction)

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15
Q

What would be the difference between idiopathic anisocoria and a pathological anisocoria?

A

Idiopathic anisocoria presents with a pupil size difference of less than 0.5mm

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16
Q

How would a patient with Horner’s Syndrome Present?

A

Unilateral pin-point anisocoria
Partial ptosis
Hemifacial lack of sweating (anhidrosis)

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17
Q

What type of dementia would be associated with hallucinations?

A

Lewy-body dementia

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18
Q

What would be the treatment of choice for a ischaemic stroke, and how soon after onset of symptoms must this be administered?

A

Alteplase
Within 4.5hrs (Ideally within 3hrs)

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19
Q

What treatment would be used 24 hours after initial management of an ischaemic stroke?

A

Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks
(Necessary to rule out haemorrhagic transformation of stroke with CT)

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20
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of optic neuritis?

A

Changes in vision
Pain in the eyes
Slow light reflex
Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect

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21
Q

What pathology is most likely to cause bitemporal hemianopia?

A

Pituitary Adenoma
(Upper visual fields will be affected more - due to compression below the optic chiasm)

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22
Q

What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

An immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system, often triggered due to infection (Campylobacter jejuni, EBV, CMV, Mycoplasma)

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23
Q

What would Guillain-Barre Syndrome present with?

A
  • Ascending, progressive, symmetrical flaccid weakness, starting in legs/arms
  • Neuropathic pain
  • Reduced or absent reflexes
  • Paraesthesia and sensory loss beginning in lower extremities
  • Autonomic symptoms - reduced sweating, reduced heat tolerance, paralytic ileus
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24
Q

What does a bitemporal hemianopia involve?

A
  • Loss of vision in the outer half of both left and right visual field
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25
What would a homonymous hemianopia involve?
Visual field loss on both left or right sides from the vertical midline of both eyes
26
What does Romberg's Test show?
Sensory ataxia Positive test implicates loss of proprioception
27
What are the features of cerebellar disease?
DANISH: Dysdiadochokinesia Ataxic gait Nystagmus Intention tremor Slurred Speech Hypotonia
28
What is the treatment for Temporal arteritis?
High-dose glucocorticoid therapy: Prednisolone
29
What are the clinical features of GCA?
1. New-onset temporal headache 2. Temporal artery abnormality 3. Visual disturbances 4. Scalp tenderness 5. Jaw claudication 6. Fever, fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, depression
30
What can be the complications of GCA?
- Loss of vision - Aneurysms, dissections and stenotic lesions of aorta and major branches - CNS disease - Steroid related complications
31
What would be the relevant investigations for GCA?
Temporal Artery Biopsy - CRP elevated - Normocytic normochromic anaemia and thrombocytosis - LFTs - Alkaline phosphatase elevated Colour duplex ultrasonography
32
Which nerve is responsible for the corneal reflex
CN V - Trigeminal - sensory CN VII - Facial - Motor
33
What are the symptoms of Bell's Palsy?
- Abrupt onset of ipsilateral facial weakness - Peri-aural pain/numbness - Decreased taste - sound hypersensitivity
34
What nerve palsy causes bell's palsy?
Facial nerve
35
What is the treatment for Bell's Palsy?
Prednisolone within 72 hours Advise regarding eye care
36
What is the Bamford classification for POCS (Posterior circulation) Stroke?
ANY OF: 1. Cerebellar or brainstem syndromes 2. Loss of consciousness 3. Isolated homonymous hemianopia
37
What is the Bamford classification for TACS (Total Anterior Circulation) Stroke?
ALL 3 OF: 1. Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face, arm, leg 2. Homonymous hemianopia 3. Higher cerebral dysfunction (Dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)
38
What is the Bamford classification for PACS (Partial Anterior) Stroke?
ANY 2 OF: 1. Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) 2. Homonymous hemianopia 3. Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)
39
What is the Bamford classification for LACS (Lacunar) Stroke?
ANY OF: 1. Unilateral weakness (/sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg or all three 2. Pure sensory stroke 3. Ataxic hemiparesis
40
What is normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Enlarged lateral and third ventricles, with CSF opening pressure remaining within normal range
41
What is the clinical presentation of hydrocephalus?
- Urinary incontinence - Deterioration in cognition - Gait disturbances
42
What is the radiological finding of an extradural haemorrhage?
Bi-convex hyperdensity in the extradural space
43
What are the most common types of dementia in order?
1. Alzheimer's 2. Vascular 3. Lewy body dementia 4. Frontotemporal
44
What are the risk factors for vascular dementia?
Hypertension Smoking Diabetes Mellitus Hyperlipidaemia Obesity Hypercholesterolaemia
45
What is the pathophysiology of vascular dementia?
Most commonly small cerebrovascular infarcts, small vessel disease and single cerebrovascular accidents Most commonly affects white matter of cerebral hemispheres, grey nuclei, thalamus and striatum
46
What are the symptoms of Brown-Séquard syndrome?
- Contralateral loss of pain and temperature - Ipsilateral loss of sensation to light touch, vibration sense and proprioception - Ipsilateral UMN weakness below the lesion
47
What is the main cause of optic neuritis?
Multiple Sclerosis
48
Where do cranial nerves 9, 10 and 11 exit?
The lateral medulla
49
If the uvula is deviated to the right, which side of the brainstem is the lesion on, and which nerve is this affecting?
The left side (Contralateral to lesion) Cranial Nerve X - Vagus
50
After an unprovoked, isolated seizure, what should the driving advice for a patient be?
Do not drive for 6 months and inform DVLA
51
What is the triad of symptoms in Parkinson's Disease?
1. Cogwheel rigidity 2. Bradykinesia 3. Resting Tremor
52
What lesion would cause "clasp-knife" phenomenon?
An UMN
53
What is progressive supranuclear palsy?
A Parkinson's Plus syndrome, consisting of: - Failure of vertical gaze - Symmetrical extrapyramidal features - Frequent falls - Lack of response to levodopa
54
What is encephalitis?
Inflammation of the brain, commonly caused by viral infection
55
What causes encephalitis?
- Viral - acute viral encephalitis, post-infectious encephalitis (autoimmune process) - Herpes Simplex Encephalitis most frequent cause - Bacterial - tuberculosis, mycoplasma, listeria, Lyme disease - Fungal
56
What are the symptoms of encephalitis?
- Flu-like illness or headache - Followed by rapid development of altered consciousness - confusion, drowsiness, seizures, coma - Symptoms of increased intracranial pressure - headache, nausea, convulsions, mental confusion - Photophobia, sensory changes and neck stiffness
57
How is encephalitis diagnosed?
1. CSF - Lymphocytosis with normal CSF/plasma glucose ratio - CSF proteins high - CSF PCR test for HSV 2. FBC and film - Leukocytosis
58
How would encephalitis be treated?
1. Urgent admission 2. Parenteral Abx for possibility of meningitis - IV or IM benzylpenicillin 3. Treatment with acyclovir by IV infusion
59
What is the treatment for Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Plasma Exchange Intravenous Immunoglobulins Supportive therapy DVT Prophylaxis Pain relief Admission to ICU
60
What investigations are used to diagnose Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Nerve Conduction studies Lumbar puncture - elevated CSF protein Spirometry
61
What is Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome?
Autoimmune disease of NMJ, characterised by impaired presynaptic release of ACh
62
What causes Lambert-Eaton Syndrome?
Small cell lung cancer
63
What are the symptoms of Lambert-Eaton Syndrome?
Weakness in the proximal muscles of lower limb, affecting gait, better on exertion Increase of symptom severity with atmospheric temperature
64
What causes Horner's Syndrome?
Disruption of sympathetic nerves supplying the eye
65
What investigations may be relevant to Horner's Syndrome?
CXR may show apical carcinoma of the lung CT/MRI useful in case of cerebrovascular accident CT angiography may demonstrate dissection of carotid artery Apraclonidine - dilates pupil affected by Horner's Syndrome
66
What is Vernet's disease?
Paralysis of cranial nerves IX, X and XI
67
What marker would be an indication of LEMS (Lambert-Eaton Syndrome)?
Antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels
68
What antibodies would be found in Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?
Acetylcholine (ACh)
69
What are the symptoms of frontotemporal dementia?
Prominent personality and behavioural changes Memory impairment - Loss of awareness, disinhibition, impulsivity, social withdrawal, stereotyped or preservative behaviour and speech output changes
70
What is the biological treatment for Parkinson's disease?
No one universal first-line drug: MAO-BIs - selegiline, rasagiline Oral or transdermal dopamine agonist - pramipexole, ropinirole Levodopa (Co-careldopa, co-beneldopa) - most effective symptomatic drug Amantadine
71
What is donepezil used in?
Alzheimer's disease - ACh inhibitor
72
What is the key characteristic feature needed to diagnose multiple sclerosis?
More than one nerve lesion disseminated in time and space
73
What are the risk factors of multiple sclerosis?
Multiple genes Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) Low vitamin D Smoking Obesity
74
What are the signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis?
- Optic neuritis (most common) - Eye movement abnormalities - Focal Weakness - Bells palsy, Horner's syndrome, limb paralysis, incontinence - Focal sensory symptoms - Ataxia
75
What can a CN VI palsy cause?
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia Conjugate lateral gaze disorder
76
What are the disease patterns of MS?
- Clinically isolated syndrome - Relapsing-remitting - Secondary progressive - Primary progressive
77
What is the management of MS?
- Relapses treated with methylprednisolone - Symptomatic treatments: 1. Exercise 2. Neuropathic pain - amitriptyline, gabapentin 3. Depression - SSRIs 4. Urge incontinence - anticholinergic medications - tolterodine, oxybutynin 5. Spasticity - baclofen
78
Which brain structure is most commonly affected by deposition of Huntingtin protein in early Huntington's disease?
Striatum
79
What heritance pattern is Huntington's?
Autosomal dominant - Causes Huntingtin protein to be misfolded
80
What is the pathophysiology of chorea in Huntington's?
Deposition of Huntingtin protein in the striatum decreases inhibitory GABAergic effects, resulting in excess movement.
81
How would Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) be diagnosed by the bedside?
Through a Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
82
What are the side effects of Ropinirole?
Compulsive or disinhibited behaviours e.g. gambling and hypersexuality
83
What are the features of a tonic-clonic seizure?
- Stiffness followed by period of shaking - An 'ictal cry' - Urinary incontinence - Injuries such as biting of tongue - A post-ictal state - confusion, drowsiness normally for 5-30 minutes after
84
What are the complications of GBS?
Type 1 respiratory failure
85
What are the common presenting features of myasthenia gravis?
1. Ptosis 2. Diplopia 3. Muscle weakness, worse at the end of the day 4. Weakness in muscles of mastication
86
What disease does Myasthenia Gravis commonly occur alongside?
Thymoma - 10-15% of patients with MG will have a thymoma - May present through extended neck veins
87
What types of delirium can occur?
Hypoactive Hyperactive
88
What is status epilepticus?
A single unremitting seizure lasting longer than five minutes or frequent clinical seizures without an interictal return to the baseline clinical state
89
After treatment of seizure, what would be the course of action in a single unremitting seizure?
ABCDE approach
90
In what patient group is sumatriptan contraindicated?
In patients with coronary artery disease
91
What features may be present in a prodromal phase of Parkinson's disease?
- Peripheral autonomic nervous system effects - Symptoms such as hyposmia, constipation, rapid eye movement sleep disorders
92
Is symptom onset in Parkinson's asymmetrical or symmetrical?
Asymmetrical
93
Which nerves pass through the cavernous sinus?
CN II CN IV CN VI CN V1 and V2
94
What is neurofibromatosis Type 1?
- An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation of the neurofibromin (NF1) gene
95
What are the symptoms of neurofibromatosis type 1?
- "Cafe-au-lait" spots - Multiple neurofibromas - Freckling of the skin in axillary or groin regions iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules - Scoliosis - Pheochromocytoma
96
What are the clinical features of neurofibromatosis type 2?
Bilateral vestibular neuromas
97
What is Gowers' Sign?
Patients have to resort to using arms and hands to carry them forward from a squatting position due to the proximal weakness of the hip and thigh muscle - Sign of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
98
What is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)?
- A genetic condition affecting the protein dystrophin in young males, leading to progressive muscle weakness, scoliosis and cardiomyopathy
99
What is Tinnel's Sign?
Sensation of pins and needles when an area associated with a specific peripheral nerve is tapped gently. - Detects impinged nerves
100
What are the symptoms of an essential tremor?
- Distal, symmetrical postural tremor of upper limbs - Low amplitude, fairly rapid frequency - Control over tremor when concentrating on a motor task - Most patients find drinking alcohol to help symptoms
101
What is the investigation of choice for MS?
MRI of the brain and spine
102
What is the most likely CSF analysis result from viral encephalitis?
- Raised protein - Raised lymphocytes - Normal glucose
103
What is the Management for subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)?
- Neurosurgical referral for endovascular coiling - Nimodipine - CT Angiogram may be necessary to locate the site of aneurysm
104
What investigation would be diagnostic for SAH and what would it show?
CT Head (Without contrast) - Hyperdense material filling subarachnoid space, most commonly the circle of Willis Lumbar puncture: - Performed at least 12 hours after the onset of symptoms - Visual inspection and chemical analysis will show xanthochromia
105
How can the location of Horner's Syndrome lesions be determined?
- Central lesions cause anhidrosis of the arm, trunk and face - Pre-ganglionic lesions cause anhidrosis of the face - Post-ganglionic lesions do not cause anhidrosis.
106
What treatment is used for prophylaxis against migraines?
Propranolol - Reduces frequency and severity of migraine headaches
107
What treatment is used in the acute management of a migraine?
Sumatriptan
108
What is Uhthoff's phenomenon?
Small increases in the body temperature can temporarily worsen current or preexisting signs and symptoms - Present in MS
109
What is Lhermitte's sign?
Transient sensory symptom described as an electric shock radiating down the spine or into the limbs most often after flexion of the neck - Most commonly seen in MS
110
What is Charcot's neurologic triad?
The combination of nystagmus, intention tremor, and scanning or staccato speech - Associated with MS
111
What are the typical symptoms of SAH?
1. Sudden onset severe headache, reaching maximum intensity within seconds - thunderclap headache 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Photophobia
112
What clinical findings would be noted from examination of SAH?
- Reduced level of consciousness - Neck stiffness - Kernig's sign - inability to flex the knee due to pain when patient is supine
113
What would pronator drift show?
Strongly indicative of UMN dysfunction or pyramidal/corticospinal tract disease
114
What nerve is affected in Bell's Palsy?
Facial Nerve
115
What is the management for myasthenia gravis?
Symptomatic treatment with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor + immunosuppression when not adequately responding to symptomatic treatment Pyridostigmine - ACh inhibitor Corticosteroids, azathioprine, thymectomy - immunosuppression
116
What would indicate a central cause of nystagmus?
Bidirectional beating In any direction (Vertical or torsional)
117
What would indicate a peripheral cause of nystagmus?
Unidirectional, horizontal beating towards the affected side Some torsion present Peripheral causes never change direction
118
What are the typical CSF findings of fungal meningitis?
Appearance: Clear or cloudy Opening pressure: Elevated WBC: Elevated (10 – 500 cells/µL) Glucose level: Low Protein level: Elevated Gram stain: Positive
119
What would the clinical features of fungal meningitis be?
- Often immunocompromised patients - Headache - Confusion - Nausea - Vomiting - Fever and neck stiffness
120
What is athetosis and what is it caused by?
- Slow, involuntary and convoluted writhing movements - Typically seen within lesions to the corpus striatum in the BG
121
What is asterixis and what would it be caused by?
- A flapping hand tremor - Seen in encephalopathy, where ammonia accumulates abnormally
122
What are the early features of Huntington's disease?
Jerky, random and uncontrollable movements - chorea
123
What are the risk factors for idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
Female sex Reproductive age Obesity
124
What are the symptoms of raised ICP?
Headache: - Worse in the morning - Worse on sneezing/coughing Nausea Tiredness Can progress to: Decreased level of consciousness Bradycardia Hypertension Irregular respiration Extensor posturing Seizures
125
How would idiopathic intracranial hypertension be diagnosed?
Through exclusion - Brain MRI - rule out other causes - e.g. traumatic, neoplastic
126
What is the presentation of migraine?
- 5+ episodes - 4 hours to 3 days (i.e. 72 hours) of duration - 2+ of the following: Unilateral headache / Pulsating headache / Moderate to severe pain / Aggravation by physical activity - 1+ of the following: Nausea / Vomiting / Photophobia / Phonophobia
127
What is the drug Nimodipine used for?
- To reduce risk of vasospasm, in context of SAH - Is a dihydropyridine calcium antagonist
128
What are the typical findings of CSF in bacterial meningitis?
Appearance: Cloudy and turbid Opening pressure: Elevated (>25 cm H2O) WBC: Elevated >100 cell/µL Glucose level: Low (<40% of serum glucose) Protein level: Elevated (>0.5 g/dL)
129
What are the causative bacteria of bacterial meningitis?
1. Newborns: Listeria monocytogenes, E. Coli, Group B Streptococci 2. Older children: Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae Type B, Streptococcus pneumoniae 3. Adults: Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes
130
What are the symptoms of bacterial meningitis?
1. Headache 2. Fever 3. Neck stiffness 4. Photophobia 5. Meningococcal meningitis presents with a characteristic petechial rash
131
How would bacterial meningitis be investigated?
1. CSF gram stain and cultures 2. CSF bacterial antigens 3. CSF PCR 4. Blood cultures 5. Imaging to rule out other intracranial pathology – CT / MRI head
132
What would the typical CSF findings in meningitis be?
- Appearance: Clear - Opening pressure: Normal or elevated - WBC: Elevated (50 – 1000 cells/µL, primarily lymphocytes, can be PMN early on) - Glucose level: Normal (>60% serum glucose however may be low in HSV infection) - Protein level: Elevated (>0.5 g/dL)
133
What are the causative pathogens of viral meningitis?
1. Herpes simplex virus (HSV 2 is more common than HSV 1) 2. Enteroviruses 3. Varicella zoster virus (VZV) 4. Mumps 5. HIV 6. Adenovirus
134
What would the investigations for viral meningitis be?
CSF PCR for viruses (e.g. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) / Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)) Blood cultures Imaging to rule out other intracranial pathology – CT / MRI head
135
What diseases can cause a relative afferent pupillary defect?
Advanced glaucoma, total retinal detachment, optic neuropathy, optic neuritis
136
What are the clinical features of Wernicke's aphasia?
Fluent speech with abnormal comprehension
137
What are the clinical features of Broca's aphasia?
Non-fluent speech with normal comprehension
138
What is the pathophysiology of Alzheimer's disease?
Amyloid plaques (clumps of beta-amyloid) + Neurofibrillary tangles (tau protein): The accumulation of these leads to a reduction in transmission of information, and eventually to the death of brain cells, with abnormal depositions remaining post-mortem.
139
What are the symptoms of Alzheimer's?
Usually begin after the age of 60 (though there are “early-onset” cases, most of which involve genetics). Can affect all areas of the brain: many functions and abilities can be impacted upon and eventually lost. The most common presenting symptom is memory loss, with evidence of varying changes in planning, reasoning, speech and orientation.
140
What are the clinical features of an extradural haematoma?
- A pattern of a lucid period post-trauma followed by rapid rise in ICP - Can lead to coning
141
Damage to which artery commonly causes a extradural haematoma?
Middle meningeal artery
142
What are the clinical features of a subdural haematoma?
- Slower onset - lower pressure of bridging veins damaged bleed more slowly than arteries - Increasing headache and confusion - Followed by rapid decline
143
What is mild cognitive impairment?
The transitional state between cognitive changes of normal ageing and clinical features of dementia
144
What drug is contraindicated in patients with migraine with aura?
Combined oral contraceptive pill
145
What drug is used to treat symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine
146
What is a Marcus-Gunn pupil?
- Lesion in the optic nerve - Pupil is de-afferented - constricts to consensual but not direct light
147
Which cranial nerves carry the pupillary light response?
Afferent - CN II Efferent - CN III
148
How does CSF flow around the brain?
lateral ventricles --> foramina of Monro --> third ventricle --> cerebral aqueduct --> fourth ventricle --> foramina of Luschka & Magendie --> subarachnoid space.
149
How can problematic essential tremors be treated?
Propranolol
150
What are the features of myoclonic seizures?
- Brief, involuntary jerking movements typically seen in limbs or facial muscles, without LOC
151
What are the features of a clonic seizure?
- Regularly repeating myoclonus (2-3 per second)
152
What are the features of a tonic seizure?
Tone is greatly increased which leads to stiffness, usually on both sides of the body.
153
What are the features of absence seizures?
Do not usually affect motor function and instead cause the patient to blank out for a few seconds.
154
What is a TIA?
A transient episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction - Typically lasting less than an hour
155
What are the clinical features of a TIA?
Similar to stroke, but resolving within 1 hour usually: Unilateral weakness or sensory loss. Aphasia or dysarthria Ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance Visual problems - Sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax) - Diplopia - Homonymous hemianopia
156
Which prognostic score is used to risk stratify TIA?
ABCD2 - (However this may not be used in the future as NICE no longer recommends)
157
What is the best neuroimaging investigation for TIA?
MRI - diffusion weighted and blood-sensitive sequences
158
What would immediate treatment of TIA be?
Aspirin 300mg unless contraindicated Specialist review
159
What would CNIII palsy present with?
Deviation of the eye, down and out (abducted and depressed) - Right-sided ptosis, pupil dilation and an absent light reflex with intact consensual constriction
160
What light reflex fibres does the third CN carry?
Efferent fibres - Palsy will cause dilation of pupil
161
What are the signs of idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
Papilloedema 6th nerve palsy
162
What may cause neuropathic pain?
Diabetic neuropathy Post-herpetic neuralgia Trigeminal neuralgia Prolapsed intervertebral disc
163
What is the first line treatment of neuropathic pain
Amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, pregabalin Tramadol may be used as "rescue therapy"
164
What is first line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine
165
How is idiopathic intracranial hypertension treated?
Advise weight loss Diuretics e.g. acetazolamide
166
What is the mechanism of ondansetron?
5-HT3 antagonist Act in the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the medulla
167
What would be used as migraine preventatives?
Topiramate Propranolol in women of childbearing age
168
What are the symptoms of middle cerebral artery strokes?
1. Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper extremity > lower 2. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia 3. Aphasia
169
What are the symptoms of anterior cerebral artery strokes?
1. Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, lower extremity > upper
170
What are the symptoms of posterior cerebral artery strokes?
1. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing 2. Visual agnosia
171
What are the treatments for Generalised tonic-clonic seizures?
Males: sodium valproate Females: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
172
What are the treatments for focal seizures?
First line: lamotrigine or levetiracetam Second line: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine or zonisamide
173
What are the treatments for absence seizures?
First line: ethosuximide Second line: - Male: sodium valproate - Female: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
174
What is Hoffman's sign?
Reflex test to investigate corticospinal tract lesions
175
What is Romberg's test?
Investigate the cause of ataxia; if positive means sensory ataxia
176
What is Hoover's sign?
Specific manoeuvre in leg paresis to distinguish organic and non-organic paresis
177
What is the Cushing reflex?
Physiological nervous system response to ICP - Results in hypertension and bradycardia
178
What may be seen on CT in acute ischaemic stroke?
Hyperdense artery Visible immediately in contrast to changes in parenchyma
179
What is the treatment for tonic or atonic seizures?
Males - sodium valproate Females - lamotrigine
180
What are the symptoms of cerebellar vermis lesions?
Gait ataxia
181
What are the symptoms of cerebellar hemisphere lesions?
Finger-nose ataxia
182
How do basal ganglia lesions present?
Hypokinetic (e.g. Parkinsonism) or hyperkinetic (e.g. Huntington's)
183
How do parietal lobe lesions present?
Sensory symptoms, dyslexia, dysgraphia
184
How do frontal lobe lesions present?
Motor symptoms, expressive aphasia, disinhibition