Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Lesion in brain causes what type of weakness?

A

Contralateral, one-sided weakness

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2
Q

Lesion in SC causes what type of weakness?

A

B/L weakness

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3
Q

Signs of UMNL

A

Hyperreflexia
Hypertonia
Clonus
Hemiplegic gait (circumduction/scissoring)

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4
Q

Signs of LMNL

A

Hypotonia
Hyporeflexia
Fasciculations
High stepping gait (foot drop)

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5
Q

Features of NMJ disorder

A

Fatiguable weakness

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6
Q

What is a stroke?

A

Sudden onset neurological deficit caused by reduced blood supply to the brain

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7
Q

Epidemiology of stroke?

A

4th most common disorder in UK
20% mortality
40% of people with become dependent for 6 months following

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8
Q

Risk factors for a stroke?

A

Modifiable: BP, smoking

Non-modifiable: age, sex, ethnicity

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9
Q

Types of stroke?

A

Ischaemic (80%)

Haemorrhagic (20% - intracerebral, subarachnoid)

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10
Q

How to classify stroke?

A

Oxford Bamford - TACI, PACI, POCI, Lacunar

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11
Q

What classifies a TACI?

A

A total anterior circulation stroke (TACS) is a large cortical stroke affecting the areas of the brain supplied by both the middle and anterior cerebral arteries.

All three of the following need to be present for a diagnosis of a TACS:

Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of the face, arm and leg
Homonymous hemianopia
Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)
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12
Q

What classifies a PACI?

A

A partial anterior circulation stroke (PACS) is a less severe form of TACS, in which only part of the anterior circulation has been compromised.

Two of the following need to be present for a diagnosis of a PACS:

Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of the face, arm and leg
Homonymous hemianopia
Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)
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13
Q

What classifies a POCI?

A

A posterior circulation syndrome (POCS) involves damage to the area of the brain supplied by the posterior circulation (e.g. cerebellum and brainstem).

One of the following need to be present for a diagnosis of a POCS:

Cranial nerve palsy and a contralateral motor/sensory deficit
Bilateral motor/sensory deficit
Conjugate eye movement disorder (e.g. horizontal gaze palsy)
Cerebellar dysfunction (e.g. vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia)
Isolated homonymous hemianopia

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14
Q

What classifies a Lacunar stroke?

A

A lacunar stroke (LACS) is a subcortical stroke that occurs secondary to small vessel disease. There is no loss of higher cerebral functions (e.g. dysphasia).

One of the following needs to be present for a diagnosis of a LACS:

Pure sensory stroke
Pure motor stroke
Sensori-motor stroke
Ataxic hemiparesis

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15
Q

How to diagnose stroke?

A

FAST/ROSIER

Non-contrast CT head, if ischaemic then MRI

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16
Q

How to treat stroke?

A

MDT
Ischaemic - <4.5 hours thrombolysis, <6 hours thrombectomy, 300mg aspirin - 75mg clopidogrel

Haemorrhagic - control BP, stabilise, reverse anti-coag

Other - statin, AF (anticoagulant 2 weeks), Barthel index, driving, lifestyle

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17
Q

Absolute contraindications for thrombolysis?

A
  • Previous intracranial haemorrhage
  • Seizure at onset of stroke
  • Intracranial neoplasm
  • Suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • Stroke or traumatic brain injury in preceding 3 months
  • Lumbar puncture in preceding 7 days
  • Gastrointestinal haemorrhage in preceding 3 weeks
  • Active bleeding
  • Pregnancy
  • Oesophageal varices
  • Uncontrolled hypertension >200/120mmHg
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18
Q

Effects of lesion in middle cerebral artery?

A

Arms
Speech - Aphasia

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper extremity > lower
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

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19
Q

Effects of lesion in anterior cerebral artery?

A

Legs
Behaviour

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, lower extremity > upper

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20
Q

Effects of lesion in posterior cerebral artery?

A

Vision disturbances (Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, Visual agnosia)

Ataxia

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21
Q

Effects of lesion in basilar artery?

A

Locked in syndrome

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22
Q

Effects of lesion in lateral medullary artery? (Wallenberg syndrome)

A

Horners
Ipsilateral pain/temperature loss on face, ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia
Contralateral pain/temperature loss on body

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23
Q

Effects of Weber stroke?

A

ipsilateral III palsy

contralateral motor weakness

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24
Q

Effect of lacunar stroke?

A

present with either isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss or hemiparesis with limb ataxia

strong association with hypertension

common sites include the basal ganglia, thalamus and internal capsule

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25
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Temporary sudden onset neurological deficit, caused by a sudden reduction in blood supply to the brain, causes ischaemia NOT infarction

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26
Q

Types of TIA

A

Anterior (carotid 80%) = contralateral hemiparesis, monocular blindness, dysphasia

Posterior (vertebrobasilar 20%) = vertigo, dysarthria, diplopia, ataxia

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27
Q

How to manage TIA?

A

<7 days = aspirin 300mg, don’t drive, see specialist 24 hours
>7 days = aspirin 300mg, don’t drive, see specialist in next 7 days

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28
Q

Differentials of stroke? (BEHIND)

A
B = brain - SOL
E = epilepsy
H = hypoglycaemia/ natraemia
I = infection (meningitis)
N = neuro (MS, hemiplegic migraine)
D = disc prolapse
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29
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

Autoimmune demyelination of the oligodendrocytes in the white matter tracts of the CNS

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30
Q

Who does MS affect?

A

F>M

20-40’s

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31
Q

Risk factors for MS?

A

Higher latitude/less sunlight
EBV
Smoking

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32
Q

Types of MS

A

Relapsing-Remitting
Secondary Progressive
Primary Progressive

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33
Q

How to diagnose MS?

A

MRI (T2 flair)
Lumbar puncture (oligoclonal bands)
Vision-evoke response

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34
Q

Management of MS?

A

Acute = methylprednisolone

Prevention = beta-interferon

MDT!

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35
Q

What is MND?

A

A disorder that affects both UMN & LMN without causing any sensory involvement

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36
Q

Causes of MND?

A

Unknown, links to mutation SOD-1 gene

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37
Q

Who gets MND?

A

M>F
Middle aged
Sporting individuals

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38
Q

Symptoms of MND?

A

C-Spine (split hand)
Thoracic (type 2 resp failure, nocturnal hypoventilation)
Lumbar (foot drop)

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39
Q

Types of MND?

A

ALS
PMA
PLS
Pseudo/bulbar

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40
Q

Complications of MND?

A

Respiratory failure
Starvation
Aspiration

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41
Q

Diagnosis of MND?

A

Clinical
Blood test - SOD-1
EMG
Nerve conduction - normal

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42
Q

Treating MND?

A

Prognosis - riluzole
Secretions - carbocistine, hyoscine patches, botox
Choking - buccal midazolam
MDT!

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43
Q

What is Parkinson’s?

A

Neurological disorder, caused by the reduction of the dopaminergic neurones of the pars compact of the substance nigra in the basal ganglia. This leads to rigidity and issues with movement.

44
Q

Who does Parkinson’s affect?

A

M>F

Elderly (early onset <55 years)

45
Q

Risk factors for Parkinson’s?

A

Smoking

FHx

46
Q

Diagnosis for Parkinson’s?

A

Clinical
Lying and standing BP
Vision
DAT scan

47
Q

Management of Parkinson’s?

A

MDT!
if the motor symptoms are affecting the patient’s quality of life: levodopa
if the motor symptoms are not affecting the patient’s quality of life: dopamine agonist (non-ergot derived, e.g., ropinirole), levodopa or monoamine oxidase B (MAO‑B) inhibitor

48
Q

Differentiate between idiopathic and drug-induced Parkinsonism?

A

Idiopathic Parkinson’s - unilateral Sx

Drug-induced - bilateral Sx

49
Q

CSF analysis positive for bacteria?

A
Appearance - cloudy
Glucose - low (<1/2 plasma)
Protein - high (>1g/l)
White cells - 10 - 5,000 polymorphs/mm³
Cultures - positive
Cell differential  - neutrophil predominance
Opening pressure - elevated
50
Q

CSF analysis positive for virus?

A

Appearance - clear/cloudy
Glucose - normal
Protein - normal/raised
White cells - 15 - 1,000 lymphocytes/mm³
Cultures - negative
Cell differential - lymphocyte predominance
Opening pressure - normal/slightly elevated

51
Q

CSF analysis positive for fungus?

A
Appearance - cloudy
Glucose - Low
Protein - high 
White cells - 20 - 200 lymphocytes/mm³
Cultures - positive (fungal)
Cell differential - lymphocyte predominance 
Opening pressure - elevated
52
Q

CSF analysis positive for tuberculosis?

A
Appearance - slightly cloudy, fibrin web
Glucose - Low
Protein - very high 
White cells - 30 - 300 lymphocytes/mm³
Cultures - positive (AFB)
Cell differential - lymphocyte predominance 
Opening pressure - variable
53
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

When you have 2 or more unprovoked seizures

Seizure = hyper excitability of cortical neurones that leads to transient changes in behaviour and EEG findings

54
Q

Who is at risk of epilepsy?

A

3-4% background risk of having a seizure

70% only ever have one seizure

55
Q

Classifying seizures?

A

Seizure type
Epilepsy type
Epilepsy syndrome

56
Q

General treatment of epilepsy?

A

Anti-epileptic
Avoid triggers
Safety - driving, heights, open water swimming
Pregnancy advice

57
Q

How to differentiate between a true seizure and pseudo seizure?

A

Prolactin

Elevated serum prolactin 10 to 20 minutes after an episode can be used to differentiate a general tonic-clonic/partial seizure from a non-epileptic pseudo seizure. True epileptic seizure = raised serum prolactin

58
Q

What drugs can cause idiopathic intracranial hypertension>?

A
combined oral contraceptive pill
steroids
tetracyclines
vitamin A
lithium
59
Q

Laughter → fall/collapse ?

A

Cataplexy

Around two-thirds of patients with narcolepsy have cataplexy.

60
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis?

A

is a genetic condition of autosomal dominant inheritance. Like neurofibromatosis, the majority of features seen in TS are neurocutaneous.

Cutaneous features

  • depigmented ‘ash-leaf’ spots which fluoresce under UV light
  • roughened patches of skin over lumbar spine (Shagreen patches)
  • adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas): butterfly distribution over nose
  • fibromata beneath nails (subungual fibromata)
  • café-au-lait spots* may be seen
61
Q

Tx of brain abscess

A

IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin + metronidazole

62
Q

First line Tx for neuropathic pain

A

amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin.

If one of these agents don’t work next line is to try one of the other remaining three drugs

63
Q

What sign is seen on venography for sagittal sinus thrombosis

A

‘empty delta sign’

64
Q

CN IV palsy

A

defective downward gaze (which may present as an upward deviation of the eye) and vertical diplopia (i.e. double vision where the images are on top of or diagonally displaced from each other)

Additionally, patients with a CN IV palsy will often adopt an abnormal head posture, in which the head is tilted away from the side of the lesion. This is to compensate for the weakened medial rotation, which helps to reduce the diplopia they experience.

65
Q

Neuroimaging findings of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

ventriculomegaly in the absence of, or out of proportion to, sulcal enlargement

66
Q

Lambert Eaton vs Myasthenia Gravis

A

Weakness in Lambert Eaton improves after exercise, unlike myasthenia gravis; which worsens after exercise.
Features or lambert eaton:
* repeated muscle contractions lead to increased muscle strength (in contrast to myasthenia gravis)
* in reality, this is seen in only 50% of patients and following prolonged muscle use muscle strength will eventually decrease
* limb-girdle weakness (affects lower limbs first)
* hyporeflexia
* autonomic symptoms: dry mouth, impotence, difficulty micturating
* ophthalmoplegia and ptosis not commonly a feature (unlike in myasthenia gravis)

67
Q

Which extra-ocular muscles are innervated by the contralateral side

A

SUPERIOR ones - so SUPERIOR oblique (CN IV) and SUPERIOR rectus (CN III).

68
Q

What CN’s are affected by vestibular schwannomas

A

Cranial nerves V, VII and VIII

69
Q

Temporal arteritis vs trigeminal neuralgia

A

Temporal arteritis vs trigeminal neuralgia: the onset is subacute (2 weeks - blindness happens a lot faster), temporal arteritis causes a headache typically; severe stabbing pain in the trigeminal distribution triggered by shaving is very typical

Trigeminal Neuralgia
-not serious
-evoke by light touch (classic)
-no eye, ear problem
-no systemic symptom

Temporal arteritis
-serious
-jaw claudication (classic)
-vision problem, tender temporal artery
-systemic symptom (eg. Fever, anorexia, night sweats)
-extra hint : Polymyalgea rheumatica : proxumal muscle pain

70
Q

Cushing reflex

A

a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in hypertension and bradycardia

71
Q

What Tx for suspected encephalitis

72
Q

CN VI palsy

A

defective eye abduction and horizontal diplopia

73
Q

Bitemporal hemianopia causes

A

UP LOC
Upper quadrant Pituitary, LOwer quadrant Craniopharyngioma

PITS mnemonic: Parietal = Inferior, Temporal = Superior

  • lesion of optic chiasm
  • upper quadrant defect > lower quadrant defect = inferior chiasmal compression, commonly a pituitary tumour
  • lower quadrant defect > upper quadrant defect = superior chiasmal compression, commonly a craniopharyngioma
74
Q

Cause of Saturday night palsy

A

caused by compression of the radial nerve against the humeral shaft, possibly due to sleeping on a hard chair with his hand draped over the back

75
Q

Tx of spasticity in MS

A

Baclofen and gabapentin

76
Q

Lumbar puncture in GBS

A

is a useful diagnostic investigation as the finding of elevated protein with normal white cell count is found in up to 90% of patients in the first week of illness, and this finding combined with a classical history is highly suggestive of GBS.

77
Q

Features of complex regional pain syndrome

A
  • progressive, disproportionate symptoms to the original injury/surgery
  • allodynia
  • temperature and skin colour changes
  • oedema and sweating
  • motor dysfunction
  • the Budapest Diagnostic Criteria are commonly used in the UK
78
Q

Gold standard test for cervical myelopathy

A

MRI of cervical spine

It may reveal disc degeneration and ligament hypertrophy, with accompanying cord signal change

79
Q

Features of Bell’s palsy

A
  • lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy - forehead affected
    • in contrast, an upper motor neuron lesion ‘spares’ the upper face
  • patients may also notice post-auricular pain (may precede paralysis), altered taste, dry eyes, hyperacusis
80
Q

Features of temporal lobe seizure

A

Lip smacking + post-ictal dysphasia

81
Q

Broca’s dysphasia

A

speech non-fluent, comprehension normal, repetition impaired. Is left inferior frontal gyrus

Be (Brocas) Expressive in (inferior) front (frontal) of Everyone

82
Q

Tx of restless leg syndrome

A

dopamine agonists such as ropinirole

83
Q

First-line treatment to children , young people and adults with absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

Sodium Valproate

84
Q

Managing tremor in drug-induced Parkinsonism

A

Procyclidine

85
Q

First line treatment for childcare, young people and adults with newly diagnosed focal seizures

A

Carbamazepine

Lamotrigine

86
Q

Gold standard investigation for suspected vestibular Schwannomas

A

audiogram and gadolinium-enhanced MRI head scan

87
Q

Painful third nerve palsy?

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

88
Q

Common cause of brain abscess

A

ascending infection from middle ear of from facial sinuses.

89
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease

A

most common hereditary sensorimotor neuropathy.

There is a clear description of the inverted champagne bottle sign and pes cavus as well as a family history which points to CMT over chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.

90
Q

Causes of ataxic gaits

A

Wide-based gait with loss of heel to toe walking

Occur following cerebellar injury

PASTRIES

P - Posterior fossa tumour
A - Alcohol
S - Multiple sclerosis
T - Trauma
R - Rare causes
I - Inherited (e.g. Friedreich's ataxia)
E - Epilepsy treatments
S - Stroke
91
Q

What is thoracic outlet syndrome

A

typically presents with muscle wasting of the hands, numbness and tingling and possibly autonomic symptoms

a disorder involving compression of brachial plexus, subclavian artery or vein at the site of the thoracic outlet.

TOS can be neurogenic or vascular; the former accounts for 90% of the cases

92
Q

What makes MG worse

A

All ( kind of ) A’s



AED: Phenytoin

Abx: Gent, Macro, Quino, Tetra
Antiarrhythmic: Quinidine, Procainamide

Anti-manic: Lithium

Anti-HR: BB

Anti-Wilson's Disease: Penicillamine
93
Q

Features of Wernicke’s dysphasia

A

speech fluent, comprehension abnormal, repetition impaired

94
Q

When can you stop AEDs

A

Can be considered if seizure free for > 2 years, with AEDs being stopped over 2-3 months

95
Q

Tx of symptomatic chronic subdural bleeds

A

Burr hole evacuation

96
Q

How to diagnose (and assess degree of stenosis) of carotid artery stenosis

A

Duplex ultrasound

97
Q

What blood tests to do if under 55 presents with no obvious cause of a stroke

A

thrombophilia and autoimmune screening

98
Q

Todd’s paresis

A

Post-ictal weakness after focal seizures

99
Q

What drug to avoid in myasthenia gravid?

A

Beta-blockers

100
Q

Hypsarrhytmia on EEG

A

infantile spasms (West’s syndrome)

101
Q

Management of MG

A
  • long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
    • pyridostigmine is first-line
  • immunosuppression is usually not started at diagnosis, but the majority of patients eventually require it in addition to long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitors:
    • prednisolone initially
    • azathioprine, cyclosporine, mycophenolate mofetil may also be used
  • thymectomy
102
Q

Causes of reduced reflexes and upping planters

A

MND, syringomelia, subacute combined degeneration of cord, Friedrich’s ataxia

103
Q

Features of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

SAH commonly presents with a thunderclap headache at the back of the head.

It is more common in the elderly or alcoholics as they have more fragile veins that will rupture more easily.

Plain CT shows a classic ‘starfish’ sign often

104
Q

Features of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

The common presentation for this is sudden onset frontal headache.

Commonly cavernous sinus thrombosis arises due to the retrograde spread of infection from the face, and this may be identifiable in the history.

105
Q

Features of subdural haemorrhage

A

This is commonly caused by trauma, but can sometimes arise as a result of an aneurysm rupture. In these cases, it will present with a thunderclap headache.

There may also be signs of mass effect such as cognitive dysfunction, visual disturbances of respiratory depression.

This will be visible on plain CT as a crescentic hyperattenuated lesion that crosses suture lines.

106
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

It occurs within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic (antipsychotics are also known as neuroleptics, hence the name) and the typical features are:

  • pyrexia
  • muscle rigidity
  • autonomic lability: typical features include hypertension, tachycardia and tachypnoea
  • agitated delirium with confusion