Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

what is the max amount of CSF fluid you can remove for a sample?

A

1ml/kg

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2
Q

what is the site of sampling for CSF

A

cerebellomedullary cistern- easier more risk

lumbar cistern - more difficult less risk

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3
Q

contraindications for CSF sample?

A

increased ICP
coagulopathy
cerebellomedullary cistern contraindicated in some conditions eg cervical trauma

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4
Q

are the following evaluation of MRI or myelography in spinal diagnostics?

more soft tissue detail
more likely to be diagnostic

more expensive/ equipment
takes 1 hour
expertise necessary for interpretation

A

MRI

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5
Q

are the following evaluation of MRI or myelography in spinal diagnostics?

risk of seizure, neuro degen, dysrthmia, resp arrest, infection, death
cervical or lumbar punctures challenging
intra-axial lesions not shown

standard x-ray eqiupment only or CT
quicker

A

myelography

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6
Q

what spinal condition does AChR ab in blood indicate

A

acquired myasthenia gravis

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7
Q

what spinal condition does 2M Ab in blood indicate

A

masticatory myositis

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8
Q

what is the neostigmine response test used for?

A

test for junctionopathies eg myasthenia gravis

prolongs action of acetylcholine- see if improves condition

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9
Q

what are electrodiagnostics used for?

A

identify denervated muscles- extent and severity

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10
Q

what does electromyography test for

A

if spontaneous activity, is abnormal muscle nervation

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11
Q

what is motor neuron conduction velocity used to test

A

assess conduction along a nerve (minimum 2 sites)

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12
Q

what is F wave electrodiagnostics used for

A

assess nerve roots, help identify conditions such as polyradiculoneuritis

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13
Q

what is repetitive nerve stimulation used to test?

A

assess neuromuscular junction for myosethenia gravis

repeatedly stimulate nerve 3-5 times

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14
Q

what neurological condition is this?
Px: sympathetic denervation
Cx: miosis, ptosis of upper eyelid, protrusion 3rd eyelid, enophthalmus, conjunctival hyperaemia
Dx: +/- radiographs (neck, chest, bullae), MRI (brain, c-spine, brachial plexus),CSF
- 1% Phenylephrine topical administration to the cornea
o 1 st order – dilation in 60-90 minutes
o 2 nd order – dilation in 20-45minutes
o 3 rd order – dilation in

A

horners syndrome

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15
Q

seisures are due to dysfunction of what area of the brain

A

forebrain

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16
Q

paresis of all or ipsilateral limbs, decerebate rigidity, depression stumpour and coma, cranial nerve deficits and possible vestibular signs

indicate dysfunction of which area of the brain?

A

brainstem

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17
Q

intention tremors, abnormal menace with normal vision and PLR, delayed initial then hypermetric postural responses indicate lesion in which part of brain

indicate dysfunction of which area of the brain?

A

cerebellum

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18
Q

disorientation with contralateral blindness, normal gait and circling with decrease postural responses in contralateral limbs

indicate dysfunction of which area of the brain?

A

forebrain

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19
Q

how is intracranial pressure calculated? (ICP)

A

vestibular eye movements/ nystagmus good early indicator of increased ICP as swelling blocks front and back of brain so eyes dont follow head movement

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20
Q

clinical signs of increased ICP?

A
mental status changes: depression, stupor, coma
bradycardia and hypertension 
altered PLR
vestibular eye movements/ nystagmus 
abnormal postures
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21
Q

What brain condition is this:

fine tremor – rapid, low amplitude, worse with stress/excitement,
+/- other deficits: head tilt, reduced menace response, ataxia

Dx: CSF – very mildly inflammatory, +/- MRI to rule out other problems

how would you treat

A
idiopathyic tremor syndrome 
Tx: 
-	corticosteroids for 4-6m 
-	+/- other immunosuppressive drugs 
-	diazepam initially 

Pgx: fair to good prognosis but possibility of relapse

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22
Q

What brain condition is this
how would you treat

infection:

Cx: usually acute CNS signs (obtundation and CN deficits most common), neck pain , pyrexia

CSF: increased protein concentration and pleocytosis; phagocytosed organisms in CSF rare

CSF/blood culture (positive sometimes) inside abscess or in small amounts

A

bacterial meningitis

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23
Q

intoxication with
Organophosphates, pyrethrin and pyrethroids, lead, ivermectin, metaldehyde, tremorgenic mycotoxins, medications (antidepressants, amphetamines, metronidazole, etc)

often leads to which clinical signs?

A

brain condition

reactive seisures

acute (<24h) onset, often GI, cardiovascular or respiratory signs before or at same time

§muscle tremors and fasciculations often seen

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24
Q

how would you assess severity of head trauma in a patient?

A

modified glasgow coma scale (higher score= better prognosis)

this is a serial neurological assessment

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25
Q

how would you treat severe head trauma?

A

Fluid therapy: restore intravascular volume to ensure adequate CPP (resuscitation then maintenance)

Isotonic or hypertonic crystalloids, colloids and blood products
o Avoid glucose containing fluids: as hyperglycaemia is associated with a poorer outcome
o 7,5% saline: reverses shock, decreases ICP, increases CBF and oxygen delivery

Reduce raised ICP
o Mannitol: ↓ blood viscosity, ↑ CBF and oxygen delivery, free radical scavenger, osmotic effect follow with crystalloid therapy to prevent dehydration  contraindicated in hypovolemia

o Hypertonic saline
hyperosmotic agent, free radical scavenger:
Contraindicated: hyponatraemia, cardiac or respiratory disease

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26
Q

how to calculate CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure)

A

CPP= MABP- ICP

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27
Q

can you give steroids in head trauma cases?

A

NEVER

asc with hyperglycaemia and lactic acid production (inc infection risk)

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28
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

abnormal dilation of ventricular system within cranium

Sx: toy breeds, young age
Cx: domed shaped head, persistent fontanelle, abnormal behaviour, cognitive dysfunction, obtundation, circling/pacing, seizures, vestibular sig

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29
Q

Hydranencephaly + Porencephaly

A

communicating with subarachnoid space and/or lateral ventricles

Cx: signs in 1st few months (circling, abnormal behaviour) or up to years few years (seizures)

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30
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy

A

any aetiology of acute or chronic liver failure - most commonly portosystemic shunt (PSS)
reversible neurological manifestations secondary.

Cx:

  • Vague signs - failure to thrive; weight loss; PU/PD; GI sign
  • Forebrain signs: behaviour changes; pacing; blindness; seizures
  • Rare brainstem or cerebellar signs reported in older dogs

Dx: relies on bile acid stimulation test, fasting ammonia, ultrasound or CT angiography

Tx: normal hepatic treatment but also neurological seizure control WITHOUT HEPATIC METABOLISM
levetiracetam, KBr, PB, propofol

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31
Q

Hypoglycaemia

A

aet: insulinoma, liver disease, insulin overdose, juvenile hypoglycaemia
Cx:
- Lethargy, ravenous appetite and anxiety
- weakness and tremors
- Reduced vision and seizures

Dx: low glucose levels (typically less than 3 mmol/l) – check insulin at same time

BRAIN USES MORE GLUCOSE THAN ANY OTHER ORGAN

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32
Q

what element derangement would cause
altered mentation, blindness, seizures, coma and death

why be careful when correcting?

A

sodium

rapid replacement will cause swelling

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33
Q

Storage disease

A

brain condition- defect of a lysosomal hydrolase enzyme

early onset, diffuse neurological dysfunction, progressive course, leading to death

Px: accumulation and storage of substrate(s) within the cytoplasm of neurons, as well as in cells in other organs

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34
Q

changes in behaviour, memory, and learning ability: disturbances in sleeping, staring into space, getting stuck in corners, loss of housetraining ability, pacing, or vocalizing at night, newly developed behaviour problems

cause by: accumulation of beta-amyloid, with senile plaque formation and neurofibrillary tangles

what is this condition?
how treated?

A

Cognitive dysfunction= pathological deterioration of the brain

Tx: Selegiline, nutritional supplementation with antioxidants and other brain protective compounds and behaviour modification/environmental enrichment

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35
Q
cerebrovascular disease
MUOs+ FIP
metronidazole toxicity
hypothyroidism and thiamine deficiency 
 brain tumours 

peripheral or central vestibular disease?

A

central

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36
Q

otitis media/ interna
idiopathic vestibular disease
facial nerve paralysis

central or peripheral vestibular disease?

A

peripheral vestibular disease

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37
Q

which breeds are predisposed to congenital deafness?

A

dog+ cat breeds with white pigmentation and blue eye colour

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38
Q

what are 2 hearing tests used in veterinary

A
BAER= brainstem auditory evoke response 
OAEs= otoacoustic emissions
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39
Q

define seizure

A

one off event, occurrence of symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronic neuronal activity in the brain

40
Q

define epilepsy

A

multiple seizures

41
Q

3 causes of seizures

how would you differentiate?

A

reactive: metabolic or toxic - usually concurrent neuro signs + history
idiopathic: genetic, no inter ictal neuro signs
epilepsy: pathology of intercranial or cerebral origin- concurrent neuro signs

42
Q

which stage of a seizure is this

any prediicting events, hours to seconds before actual seizure
varies- animal may just be acting a bit odd

A

prodome

43
Q

which stage of a seizure is this

intial manifestation of a sezure

A

Aura

44
Q

which stage of a seizure is this
seizure event 60-90 seconds
involuntary muscle tone
+/- abnormal sensations/ behaviour

A

ictal

45
Q

which stage of a seizure is this
lasts minutes to days , unusual behaviour or neuro deficits. after seizure episode.
bilaterally symmetrical

A

post ictal

46
Q

what does the ictal event most commonly occur

why?

A

sleep or rest

easier for neurones to become hyper-synchronised as already quite synchronised while sleeping

47
Q

which phenotypic category of ictal seizure is this?

consciousness impaired- dog has no awareness
tonic-clonic phases most common
involvement of both hemispheres

A

generalised ictal

48
Q

which phenotypic category of ictal seizure is this?
mostly conscious
often involves jaw chomping, twitching, picks display fly catching (licking) behaviour
involvement of one cerebral hemisphere
can have autonomic, motor or behavioural forms

A

focal ictal seizure

49
Q

what causes audiogenic reflex seizures in cats?

old or young cats?

A

response to specific noise
type of generalised myoclonic seizure
older cats>15 year

50
Q

What is a tonic phase in a seizure

A

Tonic: Muscle contraction or stiffening

51
Q

what is a clonic phase in a seizure

A

Clonic: Involuntary rapid and rhythmic muscle contractions or jerking

52
Q

what is a myoclonic phase in seizure

A

Myoclonic: Sporadic jerks or movements on both sides of the body

53
Q

what is atonic phase in seizure

A

Atonic: Often called ‘drop attacks’ these seizures will sudden cause the dog to collapse

54
Q

what is tonic- clonic phase in seizure

A

Tonic-Clonic: Tonic phase followed immediately by a clonic phase

55
Q

what seizure is a audiogenic reflex seizure usually?

A

Myoclonic progressing to generalised tonic clonic

56
Q

definition of status epilepicus

A

Status Epilepticus:
Either a single seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes,

or a number of seizures over a short period of time without regaining full consciousness between each seizure.

57
Q

what is levetiracetam used to treat

A

audiogenic relex seizures in cats

58
Q

what are some dds for epilepsy

A
Narcolepsy/ cataplexy 
Neuromuscluar collapse 
Syncope 
Movement disorder 
o	Idiopathic head tremor syndrome
o	Episodic falling of CKCS- Cx: deer stalking posture, Px: paroxysmal hypertonicity, often after exercise. 

Metabolic disease
o Paroxsysmal dyskinesia in border terriers mainly, aet: gluten intolerance. Cx: canine epiloid cramping

Vestibular disease

59
Q

what age dogs are mostly affected by idiopathic epilepsy

A

6 months- 6 years old

MRI for other causes if out of these age ranges

60
Q

which of these is not a reason to start epileptic treatment

Structural or metabolic epilepsy

Status epilepticus or cluster seizures

An interictal period of 6 months or less

Post-ictal signs are severe or last longer than 24 hours

The seizure frequency and/or duration is increasing and/or seizure severity is deteriorating over 3 interictal periods

No post ictal signs

The 1st seizure is within 1 month of a traumatic event

A

no post ictal signs

61
Q

list 3 licensed anti-epleptic drugs in dogs

A

phenobarbitone
KBr
Imepitoin - only licensed as monotherapY

62
Q

which anti-epleptic drug has side effects of bromism and it is important to keep a consistent diet?

CANNOT BE USED IN CATS

A

KBr

bromism= sedation, ataxia and pelvic limb weakness

63
Q

which anti-epileptic drug is a GABA inhibitor

A

phenobarbitone

64
Q

which anti-epileptic drug inhibits Ma+ hyperpolarisation and therefore raises seizure threshold?

A

KBr

65
Q

which anti-epileptic drug has hepatoxicity and haematologucal abnormalities, PUPD

(as well as ataxia, sedation) as side effects

A

phenobarbitone

imepitoin- fewer side effects, but can only be used in milder seizures

66
Q

are there any licensed anti-epileptic drugs in cats?

A

no

67
Q

match the side effects with the antiepleptic drug in cats

eosinophilic bronchitis
hepatic necrosis (only give in emergency)
A
eosinophilic bronchitis: KBr
hepatic necrosis (only give in emergency): phenobarbitone
68
Q

list 2 other anti-epleptic drugs than are unlicensed in dogs

when would they be useful?

A

Levetiracetam- if have liver disease, or use in the 12 weeks KBr takes to build to steady levels

Zonisamide- can be used to reduce phenobarbitone doses

69
Q

when are seizures an emergency?

when does irreversible neuronal damage occur

A

status epilepticus

stage 2: within 30-60 mins (excessive glutamate release–> cell death)

70
Q

stage 1 of status epilepticus includes what

A

tachycardia
hypertension
hyperglycaemia

71
Q

what should you give to immediately stop seizure in status epilepticus

A

diazepam 1mg/kg per rectum

can give owners some for emergencies

72
Q

what are breakthrough seizures

how should be managed?

A

break through of seizure whilst on anti-epileptic medication

continuous reinfusions of
midazolam
propofol

NOTE, IMPORTANT TO LOAD WITH PHENOBARBITOL READY FOR WHEN DOG COMES OF CRIs

73
Q

once stable and diagnostic work up done from status epilepticus, what should you treat a dog with?

A

start AED- phenobarbitone 3mg/kg, can give IV if still status or clusters
if not working- levetiracetam

74
Q

3 types of ataxia: which present as

a) subtle, shaking ass
b) off balance, rolling, motion sickness, free falling
c) drunken gait, clumsy, dysmetria, truncal sway, tequila song

A

a) proprioceptive/ spinal
b) vestibular
c) cerebellar

75
Q

is this LMN or UMN injury

muscle tone decreased caudal to the lesion
spinal reflexes decreased to absent caudal to the lesion
normal to decreased stride length
possible ‘bunny hopping’, collapse, may seem stiff

A

LMN

76
Q

is this LMN or UMN injury

muscle tone normal to increased caudal to the lesion
spinal reflexes normal to increased caudal to the lesion
normal to increased stride length
spasticity

A

UMN

77
Q
define 
tetraparesis 
paraparesis 
monoparesis 
hemiparesis

how is it graded?

A
tetraparesis = all 4 limbs have paresis 
paraparesis = pelvic limbs have paresis 
monoparesis = one limb has paresis 
hemiparesis = 2 limbs on same side have paresis 

paresis= weakness, reduced voluntary movement

  • non ambulatory= can walk if supported
  • ambulatory= cant walk

graded 1-4

78
Q

define plegia

A

complete loss of voluntary movement

79
Q

intervertebral disc protrusion

type I or II?

shifting central material> protrusion of annulus fibrosis

A

type II

80
Q

intervertebral disc protrusion

type I or II?
herniation of degenerated nucleus through annukus into spinal cord

A

type I

81
Q

are these spinal conditions asc with pain or not
ischaemic myelopathy
acute non compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion
hydrated nucleus pulposus extrusion - seagull sign
vertebral malformations
degenerative myelopathy

A

non painful

82
Q

are these spinal condition asc with pain or not painful

steroid responsive meningitis arteritis 
discospondylitis
syringomyelia
degenerative lumbosacral stenosis 
intervertebral disc degeneration 
intervertebral disc extrusion- type I and II
invertebral disc herniation 
myelomalacia
vertebral fracture/ luxation
atlantoaxial subluxation
wobbles= cervical spondylmyelopathy 
meningitis of unknown origin 
spinal neoplasia
A

pain

83
Q

what effect on bladder control

bethanecol

A

increase detrusor muscle contraction

useful if bladder large and not able to express

84
Q

what effect on bladder control

prazosin
diazepam

A

decrease urethral tone

useful if bladder large and not able to express

85
Q

are the following signs asc with neuropathy, junctionopathy or myopathy?

Cranial and/or spinal nerve(s)
Mono-/multiple mono- /generalised
Motor +/- sensory deficits (proprioception, nociception, hypo- or para-esthesia)
Severe flaccid paresis, neurogenic atrophy and reduced-absent reflexes

A

neuropathy

86
Q

are the following signs asc with neuropathy, junctionopathy or myopathy?

Generalised
Classically exercise intolerance with fatigue
Normal sensory function
Often intact tendon reflexes unless severe weakness

A

junctionopathy

87
Q

are the following signs asc with neuropathy, junctionopathy or myopathy?

Generalised or focal (usually symmetrical)
Atrophy or hypertrophy
Specific features: dimple contractures (myotonia); myalgia; restricted joint movement (contracture)
Normal sensory function
Often normal tendon reflexes but exceptions

A

myopathy

88
Q

Chronic relapsing polyradiculoneuritis

Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

Protozoal (Neospora/Toxoplasma), Viral (FeLV/FIV)

Diabetes mellitus, Cushing’s, hypothyroidism, hypoglycemia (insulinoma)
Cats: hyperchylomicronaemia; hyperoxaluria

Distal denervating disease, Chronic degenerative axonopathy, distal symmetrical polyneuropathy

Breed associated including motor neuron disease, spinal muscular atrophy, neuroaxonal dystrophy, lysosomal storage disease

neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?

A

neuro, chronic

89
Q

Polyradiculoneuritis (Distal denervating disease

neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?

A

acute neuropathy

90
Q

Myaesthenia gravis (fulminant form)
Botulism
Organophosphate toxicity (Tick paralysis)
(Snake bite)

neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?

A

acute junctionopathy

91
Q

neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?

Congenital/acquired myaesthenia gravis

A

chronic junctionopathy

92
Q

Polymyositis (severe) immune- mediated or infectious

Electrolyte abnormalities
Addison’s>hypokalaemia (Hypothyroidism)

Congenital/acquired myaesthenia gravis

neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?

A

acute myopathy

93
Q
Inflammatory polymyositis 
Infectious polymyositis 
Metabolic/Endocrine 
-	Hypothyroidism/Cushing’s 
-	Lipid storage/mitochondrial myopathies 
-	Glycogenoses
-	Nutritional myopathy 
Paraneoplastic 
Muscular dystrophies, Congenital myopathies

neuro/ juction or myopathies? acute or chronic?

A

chronic myopathy

94
Q

what in urine and what in blood indicates muscle damage

A

urine: myoglobinuria
blood: CK, creatine kinase

95
Q

what is the most common type of myositis?

which type of myositis causes hyper extension of pelvic limbs?

A

immune mediated most common

infectious myositis> hyperextension pelvic limbs