Neurological Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What are the aspects of a pediatric neuro assessment? (6)

A
  • Vitals
  • Skin
  • Eyes
  • Reflexes
  • Motor
  • Posture
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2
Q

Describe pediatric vital assessment considerations (3)

A
  • Apical pulse assessed for 1 full min
  • BP routinely assessed if > 3 years old
  • Infants are nose breathers until 3 months old
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3
Q

RR of ______ indicates respiratory distress

A

< 60

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4
Q

What areas should be assessed for skin color? (5)

A
  • Lips
  • Nose
  • External ear
  • Hands
  • Feet
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5
Q

When does the anterior fontanel close?

A

18 months

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6
Q

When does the posterior fontanel close?

A

3 months

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7
Q

Fontanels should be palpated until ______

A

1 year old

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8
Q

What can a bulging fontanel indicate? (2)

A
  • ICP
  • Meningitis
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9
Q

What can a sunken fontanel indicate?

A

Dehydration

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10
Q

Describe the age considerations for GCS use (2)

A
  • Pediatric GCS for age < 2 (nonverbal)
  • Standard GCS for age > 2 (verbal)
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11
Q

What aspects of GCS are assessed in infants? (3)

A
  • Motor
  • Muscle strength
  • Response to stimuli
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12
Q

Describe assessment of eye movement (2)

A
  • Normal = contralateral eye movement upon head rotation
  • Abnormal = eyes remain fixed upon head rotation
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13
Q

Assessment of contralateral eye movement helps detect ______

A

Strabismus - eye misalignment

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14
Q

Describe the developmental considerations regarding reflexes (2)

A
  • Infants are more reflexive
  • Toddler become more coordinated and controlled
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15
Q

What are the major motor developmental milestones? (7)

A
  • 4 months - head control
  • 4 months hand-eye coordination
  • 5 - 6 months - rolling over
  • 6 months - palmer grasp
  • 10 months - pincer grasp
  • 12 months - walking
  • 18 months - running
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16
Q

What are the major social / cognitive developmental milestones? (5)

A
  • Infants (0 - 12 months) - trust vs. mistrust
  • Toddlers (1 - 3 years) - autonomy vs. shame and doubt
  • Pre-schoolers (3 - 5 years) - initiative vs. guilt
  • School-age (6 - 12 years) - industry vs. inferiority
  • Adolescents (13 - 18 years) - identity vs. role confusion
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17
Q

When does separation anxiety / stranger anxiety begin?

A

6 months old

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18
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Excessive amount of CSF within the cerebral ventricles

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19
Q

What are the causes of hydrocephalus? (3)

A
  • Impaired CSF production / absorption
  • Blocked flow of CSF
  • Congenital malformation
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20
Q

Describe the prognosis of hydrocephalus due to a neoplasm

A

Based on type / spread of tumor

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21
Q

Describe the prognosis of hydrocephalus due to trauma, infection, or hemorrhage

A

Based on amount of brain damage before treatment

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22
Q

What treatment significantly improves survival rate from hydrocephalus?

A

Shunt placement soon after diagnosis

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23
Q

What are the manifestations of hydrocephalus in infancy? (9)

A
  • Rapid head growth
  • Frontal enlargement
  • Bulging fontanels
  • Dilated scalp veins
  • Thin skull bones
  • Sunsetting eyes
  • Sluggish pupils
  • Lower extremity spasticity
  • High-pitched cry
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24
Q

What clinical test of sound is used to assess for hydrocephalus?

A

Macewen sign

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25
Q

Describe Macewen sign (3)

A
  • Resonant sound when tapping the skull near the junction of the frontal, temporal, and parietal bones
  • Indicates separation of sutures due to intracranial pressure
  • “Cracked pot sound”
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26
Q

What are the manifestations of hydrocephalus in older children? (6)

A
  • No head enlargement
  • Headache when awakening - improves after emesis / upright position
  • Altered motor ability - ataxia, spasticity
  • Decreased visual acuity
  • Strabismus
  • Papilledema
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27
Q

Describe the diagnosis of hydrocephalus in infancy

A

Evidenced by rapid head enlargement when compared to daily measurements of cranial circumference

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28
Q

What tests are used for diagnosis of hydrocephalus? (2)

A
  • CT
  • MRI
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29
Q

Describe the treatment of hydrocephalus (2)

A
  • Surgical placement of ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt
  • Valves open at a predetermined intraventricular pressure and close when pressure falls below that level
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30
Q

What are the complications associated with VP shunt placement for hydrocephalus? (2)

A
  • Infection
  • Malfunction - symptoms of ICP
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31
Q

Describe the post-op care associated with VP shunt placement (6)

A
  • Position flat on non-operative side
  • Assess for abdominal distention
  • Assess for infection
  • Neuro assessment
  • NPO for 24 hours
  • Antibiotics
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32
Q

Why is it important to position the patient flat on the non-operative side after placement of a VP shunt? (2)

A
  • To prevent pressure on the shunt valve
  • To prevent CSF from draining too quickly
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33
Q

Abdominal distention after placement of a VP shunt could indicate ______

A

Peritonitis

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34
Q

Most causes of seizure disorders originate …

A

Outside of the brain

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35
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of seizure disorders

A

Disruption of neuron communication causes abnormal firing

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36
Q

What factors influence manifestations of seizure disorders? (6)

A
  • Age
  • Genetics
  • Brain injury
  • Medications
  • Sleep cycle
  • Areas of the brain involved
37
Q

What is a focal seizure?

A

Seizure activity in one cerebral hemisphere

38
Q

What are the manifestations of a focal seizure? (5)

A
  • May be aware, unaware, or unconscious
  • Hallucinations - buzzing sounds, flashing lights
  • Lip smacking
  • Stiffness
  • Jerking of one extremity
39
Q

What is a generalized seizure?

A

Seizure activity in both cerebral hemispheres

40
Q

What are the manifestations of a generalized seizure? (3)

A
  • Loss of consciousness
  • Stiffness
  • Jerking
41
Q

What is a febrile seizure?

A

Seizure triggered by high fever (100.4)

42
Q

When are febrile seizures most common?

A

< 5 years old

43
Q

Febrile seizures can cause body temperature to rise rapidly, reaching ______

44
Q

What are the possible causes of febrile seizures? (3)

A
  • Influenza
  • Meningitis
  • Viral infections
45
Q

Describe simple febrile seizures (4)

A
  • Affect the entire body
  • Last < 15 minutes
  • Once in 24 hours
  • Full recovery in 1 hour
46
Q

Describe complex febrile seizures (4)

A
  • Affect one side of the body
  • Last > 15 minutes
  • Multiple in 24 hours
  • Full recovery takes longer than 1 hour
47
Q

What tests are used for diagnosis of seizure disorders? (3)

A
  • CT
  • MRI
  • EEG
48
Q

Describe the pharmacologic management of seizure disorders (2)

A
  • Acute treatment - lorazepam, diazepam
  • Maintenance - carbamazepine, valproic acid, phenytoin
49
Q

What type of seizures can be treated using anti-epileptics?

A

Non-febrile seizures

50
Q

Describe the nursing interventions associated with seizure disorders (2)

A
  • Control temperature
  • Consider physical growth and therapeutic drug monitoring
51
Q

What factors are important to assess / monitor regarding seizure disorders? (6)

A
  • Seizure duration
  • Movement
  • Behavior
  • Face / eyes
  • Respiratory effort
  • Post-ictal observations
52
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Infection of the meninges of the brain / spinal cord

53
Q

What are the types of meningitis? (2)

A
  • Bacterial (septic)
  • Viral (aseptic)
54
Q

Which type of meningitis has a higher mortality rate?

55
Q

Bacterial meningitis is associated with what diseases? (4)

A
  • Meningococcus
  • Pneumococcus
  • Streptococcus
  • H. influenzae
56
Q

Viral meningitis is associated with what diseases? (3)

A
  • Measles
  • Mumps
  • Herpes
57
Q

Describe the characteristics specific to viral meningitis (2)

A
  • No exudate in CSF
  • Self-limiting (lasts 7 - 10 days)
58
Q

When is meningitis most common?

A

6 - 12 months old

59
Q

How does meningitis reach the CNS? (2)

A
  • Enters through the middle ear / nasopharynx / sinuses
  • Travels through blood / lymph / CSF
60
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of meningitis (2)

A
  • Meningeal inflammation with release of purulent exudate
  • Causes cerebral edema –> ICP –> necrosis of brain cells
61
Q

What are the manifestations of meningitis? (8)

A
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Nuchal rigidity
  • Back pain
  • Seizures
  • Petechiae
  • Hyperthermia
  • Chronic ear drainage
62
Q

Petechiae associated with meningitis could indicate ______

A

Septic shock (bacterial meningitis)

63
Q

What additional manifestations of meningitis may be present in infants? (2)

A
  • Bulging fontanel
  • High-pitched cry
64
Q

What clinical tests of pain / resistance are used to assess for meningitis? (2)

A
  • Kernig’s sign
  • Brudzinski’s sign
65
Q

Describe Kernig’s sign (3)

A
  • Lay supine
  • Extend leg and flex hip
  • Cause pain / hamstring contraction
66
Q

Describe Brudzinski’s sign (3)

A
  • Lay supine
  • Flex head
  • Causes pain / hip flexion
67
Q

Describe the diagnosis of meningitis (5)

A
  • Lumbar puncture (CSF)
  • Blood culture
  • Urine culture
  • Throat culture
  • Nasal swab
68
Q

What CSF analysis findings are associated with meningitis? (3)

A
  • Low glucose
  • Elevated WBCs
  • Elevated protein
69
Q

Describe the nursing interventions associated with meningitis (5)

A
  • Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics (large dose)
  • Anticonvulsants
  • Audiometry testing
  • Bedrest - dark, quiet room for headache / photophobia
  • Prevent immobility
70
Q

What type of isolation is needed for bacterial meningitis?

A

Droplet isolation for 24 - 48 hours after initiation of antibiotic therapy

71
Q

Describe the education associated with meningitis (2)

A
  • Rehabilitation program may be needed
  • Prophylactic antibiotics for family members
72
Q

What is a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

A

Damage to skull / brain due to mechanical force

73
Q

What is a primary TBI?

A

Occurs at the time of injury

74
Q

What is a secondary TBI?

A

Occurs indirectly following injury

75
Q

What are the early manifestations of a TBI? (4)

A
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Vertigo
  • CSF leakage from the ears / nose
76
Q

What additional early manifestations of a TBI may be present in infants? (2)

A
  • Apnea
  • Poor feeding
77
Q

What are the late manifestations of a TBI? (6)

A
  • ICP
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Seizures
  • Posturing
  • Unequal / non-reactive pupils
  • Ecchymosis surrounding eyes / mastoid
78
Q

What is a concussion?

A

Brain collides with skull due to shearing force

79
Q

What are the hallmark manifestations of a concussion? (2)

A
  • Confusion
  • Amnesia
80
Q

______ is not an accurate indicator of a concussion

A

Loss of consciousness

81
Q

Concussions usually resolve within ______

A

7 - 10 days

82
Q

How often should neuro checks be conducted for a patient with a concussion?

A

Every 4 hours

83
Q

How often should the nurse assess a patient with a head injury for consciousness?

A

Every 2 hours

84
Q

Describe the nursing interventions associated with head injury (4)

A
  • GCS
  • ABCs
  • Assess for shock
  • Assess for spinal cord injury
85
Q

What tests are used for diagnosis of head injury? (2)

86
Q

What medication is used for head injury pain management?

A

Acetaminophen (NOT ibuprofen)

87
Q

Why is ibuprofen not used for head injury?

A

NSAID - risk of bleeding

88
Q

What complications are associated with concussions? (3)

A
  • Contusion / laceration
  • Epidural hematoma
  • Subdural hematoma