Neurological Flashcards

1
Q

What Is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an autoimmune disorder affect-
ing the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junc-
tion of skeletal muscle. Autoantibodies against the α-subunit
of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor nAChR (muscle type
only) cause receptor destruction and transmission failure,
resulting in skeletal muscle weakness and fatiguability. The
nAChR of the autonomic and central nervous systems are
spared.
The incidence of MG varies between 0.25 and 2 per
100,000 with increasing frequency among those older than
60 years. Women are more likely to be diagnosed in the
30–40-year-old age group, whereas men are more often
diagnosed from 60 years onwards [1].

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2
Q

What Is Seronegative Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Patients who have undetectable levels of antibodies against
nAChR are said to be seronegative. Ten percent of all MG
patients are seronegative. These patients may have nAChR
antibodies that are not detected because of insufficient test
sensitivity [2].

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3
Q

What Are MuSK Antibodies?

A

○ In a subset of MG patients without nAChR antibodies, muscle-specific tyrosine kinease (MuSK) antibodies are detected.
○ MuSK plays a crucial role in post-synaptic differentiation and clustering of nAChRs at the neuromuscular junction.
○Patients with MuSK MG are predominantly women with prominent oculobulbar weakness and dysarthria.
○ Patients with MuSK antibodies may be resistant to treatment with anticholinesterases

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4
Q

How Does MG Present?

A

○ Early symptoms are oculobulbar and include fluctuating weakness and fatiguability of the ocular muscles and muscles supplied by the lower cranial nerves (VII-XII).
○ Ophthalmoparesis, diplopia, and ptosis occur in 50% of patients.
○ Dysarthria and dysphagia follow in 15% of patients.
○ These may present with slurred nasal speech or may complain of a choking sensation, and pose an aspiration risk [5].
○ This is followed by generalized disease with fatigue spreading to the upper limbs and hands. The lower limbs tend to be less affected. Wheelchair use due to weakness is uncommon.
○ Symptoms typically worsen at the end of the day, with heat, surgery, and emotional stress.

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5
Q

How Is MG Diagnosed?

A

History and physical examination are central to diagno-
sis, especially examination of the cranial nerves. Ptosis
upon sustained upward gaze is a characteristic finding.
2. Antibody testing is performed routinely. Antibodies
against nAChR and MuSK are both specific and sensitive
for the detection of MG.
3. The Tensilon test was used in the past to confirm diagno-
sis. Edrophonium chloride was administered intrave-
nously – a short-lived (10 min) improvement confirmed
the diagnosis [6]. It has been replaced by antibody testing
and is largely of historical interest.
4. Neurophysiology. Routine neurophysiological testing
usually yields normal results. Specific testing includes the
following:
• Repetitive nerve stimulation, which has low sensitivity
(70%) for the diagnosis of MG and can be even lower
if disease is limited to the ocular muscles alone [7]
• Single fiber electromyography, which has increased
sensitivity of up to 100% but is not specific and is
greatly operator dependent [8, 9]

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6
Q

What Conditions Are Associated with MG?

A

MG can be associated with other autoimmune conditions:
• Hyperthyroidism
• Pernicious anemia
• Polymyositis
• Rheumatoid arthritis
• Sarcoidosis
• Sjogren syndrome
• Systemic lupus erythematosus
• Ulcerative colitis
• Therapy with interferons, D-penicillamine, and bone
marrow transplantation can also cause MG [10]

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7
Q

What Is the Role of the Thymus in the Pathogenesis of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

○ About 75% of patients with MG have abnormal histopathology of the thymus.
- Of these, 85% have thymic hyperplasia and 15% have thymoma.
○ Thymectomy aids symptom control and plays a preventative role in rate and severity of attacks in patients with and without thymoma.

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8
Q

How Is Disease Severity in MG Graded?

A

A number of disease progression and severity scores can be
utilized, e.g., Manual Muscle Testing (MMT) (Fig. 32.2), the
modified Osserman and Genkins classification (Table 32.1)
and Quantitative Myasthenia Gravis (QMG) scoring may be
used in the preoperative period to establish a baseline [14, 15].

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9
Q

How is MG Treated?

A
  1. Symptomatic treatment is with anticholinesterase agents,
    e.g., pyridostigmine. Most patients are on a combination
    of short-acting and slow-release agents. An intravenous
    formulation is available with the following conversion
    ratio: 1 mg IV = 30 mg PO.
  2. Immunosuppressive therapy with steroids is used when
    pyridostigmine alone does not control symptoms.
    Azathioprine is the most commonly prescribed steroid-
    sparing agent. It is frequently prescribed in addition to
    prednisone because the combination results in greater
    efficacy with fewer complications than prednisone mono-
    therapy [2]. Patients on long-term steroid treatment are at risk of hypothalamic-pituitary axis suppression. Surgical
    stress dosing is discussed in detail in Chap. 19. Patients
    taking any dose of glucocorticoid for less than 3 weeks, or
    those taking prednisone 5 mg daily for any period of time
    are not candidates for stress dosing [17].
  3. Rapid, immunomodulating treatments, e.g., plasmapher-
    esis and intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) may be
    required for acute exacerbations. Plasmapheresis or
    plasma exchange acts by removing circulating anti-AChR
    antibodies and immune complexes. It is used to treat
    myasthenic crisis or to optimize the unstable myasthenic
    patient prior to surgery. It brings about a quick improve-
    ment in symptoms (1–7 days), but the effect does not last
    beyond 2 months. Plasmapheresis has been described in
    patients who are Jehovah’s Witness followers. In these
    cases, albumin has been used in place of plasma [18].
    IVIG is pooled from thousands of donors. The therapeutic
    mechanism is unclear. It has a similar onset, offset, and
    efficacy as plasmapheresis [19]. Its use is determined by
    availability and familiarity.
  4. Thymectomy is indicated for patients with thymoma and
    those with non-thymomatous generalized MG. It
    improves symptoms and reduces the requirement for
    immunosuppressant therapy and the complications
    related to it. It can also be considered in patients with
    seronegative MG who have failed to respond to standard
    treatment or are treatment intolerant [20].
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10
Q

What Is a Myasthenic Crisis?

A

○ A myasthenic crisis is a potentially fatal condition due to the rapid deterioration of neuromuscular function.
- It is associated with respiratory compromise due to ventilatory muscle insufficiency and/or weakness of the upper airway muscles.
○ Myasthenic crisis may occur at least once in the lifetime of up to 20% of patients with generalized MG
○ Myasthenic crisis can be triggered by infection, emotional or physical stress, medication changes (especially tapering of immunosuppression), and electrolyte disturbances.
- It can be helpful to perform risk stratification pre-operatively and to discuss the risk of myasthenic crisis with the patient.
○ The Modified Osserman and Genkins classification can be used for risk assessment (Table 32.1) [21, 22].
○ In addition to the foregoing, a pyridostigmine dose >750 mg/day has been associated with increased likelihood of myasthenic crisis [23].
○ Extubation may be delayed if weakness persists at the end of surgery, and the patient may need to be transferred to ICU for ventilation.
○ Plasmapheresis or IVIG treatment may be required.

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11
Q

What Measures Can Be Taken Preoperatively to Ensure That the Patient with MG Is Optimized for Anesthesia and Surgery?

A
  1. Pulmonary function tests should be performed to deter-
    mine a baseline, to establish criteria for extubation, and to
    determine the need for postoperative ventilation.
  2. Liaise with the treating neurologist in the unstable or non-
    responding patient for consideration of more complex
    preoperative therapies, e.g., intravenous immunoglobulin,
    plasma exchange, or pulse steroid therapy [24].
  3. Plan for postoperative disposition, e.g., ICU referral.
  4. Assess aspiration risk of patients with dysphagia who
    may need further evaluation with video fluoroscopic
    assessment. This may help to establish the need for rapid
    sequence induction.
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12
Q

What Recommendations Regarding Preoperative Management of MG Medications Should Be Provided to the Patient?

A
  1. Continue anticholinesterases, including on the morning of surgery, to avoid preoperative respiratory/bulbar symptoms [25].
  2. Long-term immunosuppressants can be withheld on the day of surgery, e.g., azathioprine, but the normal steroid dose must be taken if the patient is on a regular glucocorticoid regimen.
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13
Q

What Is the Optimal Time for Elective
Surgery?

A

Elective procedures should be performed during a period of
myasthenic stability. The patient should be taking the lowest
possible dose of steroid that maintains symptom control.
Surgery should be scheduled early in the day when muscle
strength is better.

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14
Q

The Patient with MG Wants to Know If She Can Have an Epidural for Postoperative Analgesia.
What Do You Tell Her?

A

○ Neuraxial anesthesia may reduce and even eliminate the need for muscle relaxants for abdominal surgery in MG patients.
○ Epidural analgesia has been used successfully for laparotomy, as a sole anesthetic for laparoscopic cholecystectomy, and even for thymectomy.
○ Case reports are emerging of its safe use for a multitude of indications,
including in obstetric patients [28].
○ Epidural analgesia needs to be carefully titrated.
- A high epidural may compromise respiratory function by affecting intercostal muscle function, decrease forced vital capacity (FVC), and (forced expiratory volume) FEV1, and may necessitate mechanical ventilation.
- In addition, high volume local anesthetic may decrease the sensitivity of the post-junctional membrane to acetylcholine.
○ Ester local anesthetics should be avoided, as anticholinesterases may impair their hydrolysis.
○ Spinal anesthesia has been successfully used for emergency laparotomy, inguinal hernia repair, and transurethral ureterolithotripsy procedures.

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15
Q

Preoperative pulmonary function tests showed reduced
vital capacity (VC), total lung capacity (TLC), and residual volume (RV). In patients with MG, VC is reduced because of
inspiratory and expiratory muscle weakness. Spirometry in
MG patients typically shows a restrictive ventilatory defect
with reasonably well-preserved forced expiratory flow rates.
Patients with restrictive lung disease tend towards propor-
tional reduction in FEV1 and FVC with a normal or increased
FEV1/FVC. The severity of this patient’s PFT abnormality is
mild when categorized according to the American Thoracic
Society Grades for Severity of a Pulmonary Function Test
(Table 32.2) [33, 34].
The patient was a Modified Osserman and Genkins class IIb,
which placed her at increased for myasthenic crisis and aspira-
tion. She was asked to take her pyridostigmine slow release as
usual on the night before surgery and to take her normal dose of
immediate release pyridostigmine on the morning of surgery.
She held the azathioprine but was instructed to take her predni-
sone as normal. She received hydrocortisone 100 mg IV at
induction as a surgical stress dose (Table 32.3) [17].
She did not require a muscle relaxant for intubation. If
rapid sequence induction was deemed necessary, a higher
dose of succinylcholine (1.5–2 mg/kg) would have been
required. This is possibly due to the reduced number of
ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Onset of
succinylcholine is slower and the effect may be prolonged
due to concurrent therapy with cholinesterase inhibitors,
which hinders its clearance [34]. Non-depolarizing muscle
relaxants (NMDRs) should be avoided or titrated slowly
because of extreme sensitivity and unpredictable effects.
The response to NDMR can be variable even among
patients with only ocular symptoms or those in remission.
Monitoring with quantitative train-of-four testing is rec-
ommended when NMDRs are used. Reversal with neostig-
mine should be avoided, as this can precipitate a
cholinergic crisis, which can be difficult to distinguish
from myasthenic crisis. This is a manifestation of its mus-
carinic effects, including nausea, vomiting, abdominal
cramps, diarrhea, miosis, lacrimation, bronchospasm,
increased bronchial secretions, diaphoresis, and brady-
cardia [10]. Sugammadex has been suggested as the opti-
mal reversal agent when rocuronium or vecuronium is
used, as it does not have muscarinic effects. One case
series reports successful block reversal with 2–4 mg/kg,
depending on block intensity [35].

A
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16
Q

True/False Questions
1. (a) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affect-
ing the presynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular
junction
(b) Ten percent of MG patients are seronegative for
antibodies
(c) Early symptoms of MG include diplopia and ptosis
(d) The Tensilon test is routinely performed to confirm
diagnosis
(e) Symptoms of MG are usually worse in the morning

A
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17
Q
  1. (a) Anticholinesterase agents should be discontinued 1
    week before surgery
    (b) A myasthenic crisis is caused by ventilatory muscle
    insufficiency or weakness of the upper airway
    muscles
    (c) Stage 1 of the Modified Osserman and Genkins clas-
    sification signifies the most severe disease
    (d) The Manual Muscle Testing score is best used for
    assessing disease progression rather than severity
    (e) Succinylcholine is contraindicated in MG patients
A
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18
Q

What Complications Is the Patient with Prior Ischemic Stroke Subject to in the Perioperative Period?

A

• Ischemic stroke
• Acute myocardial infarction
• Cardiovascular death
• Bleeding secondary to antithrombotic or antiplatelet agents when continued perioperatively

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19
Q

What Evidence Is There That the Patient with a History of Ischemic Stroke Is at Increased Perioperative Risk for a Repeat Ischemic Stroke?

A

• The largest study to date to evaluate the association between recent ischemic stroke and perioperative complications found a strong time-dependent relationship between prior ischemic stroke and adverse postoperative outcome [1].
- This was a retrospective cohort study of nearly half a million noncardiac procedures.
-Perioperative stroke occurred in 11.9% of patients with a history of
ischemic stroke if surgery was performed within the first 3 months of the cerebrovascular event compared to a 0.1% perioperative stroke rate in those without a history of stroke.
- This risk decreased as the interval from stroke to surgery increased, stabilizing at approximately 9 months, although still higher at this time point than in those patients with no history of stroke.
-The risk was the same regardless of whether the surgery was low, intermediate, or high risk. The authors of this large cohort study
suggested that patients with a history of recent ischemic stroke should be considered at increased perioperative risk until 9 months have elapsed since the event.
• In an analysis of 47,750 patients undergoing noncarotiid major vascular surgery, a history of cerebrovascular disease (history of stroke with or without residual deficit, TIA, or preoperative hemiplegia) was found to be the risk factor most strongly associated with postoperative stroke [2]

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20
Q

What Other Factors Are Known to Increase the Risk of Perioperative Stroke?

A

○ Analysis of 523,059 noncardiac, non-neurologic patients in the American College of Surgeons National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (ACS NSQIP®) database showed additional independent predictors for perioperative stroke: age ≥ 62 years, hypertension requiring therapy, myocardial infarction within 6 months of surgery, acute renal failure, pre-existing dialysis, COPD, and current tobacco use.

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21
Q

Does Beta-Blockade Increase the Risk of Perioperative Stroke?

A

○ According to the Perioperative Ischemic Evaluation (POISE) trial, introduction of metoprolol in the immediate preoperative period reduced cardiac death and nonfatal myocardial infarction/cardiac arrest [4]. However, the incidence of all-cause mortality and stroke increased.
○ Subsequent retrospective studies have looked at patients on
chronic beta-blocker therapy.
- In a large retrospective study, continued use of metoprolol preoperatively in noncardiac surgery was associated with a fourfold increase in periop-
erative stroke [5]. There was a significantly higher incidence of stroke in patients taking preoperative metoprolol compared with those taking atenolol [5].
- A single-center cohort study of 44,092 consecutive patients demonstrated
that perioperative metoprolol and atenolol were both associated with an increased risk of perioperative stroke when compared to the more β1-specific bisoprolol [6].
- A recent Cochrane review concluded that in noncardiac surgery, the
evidence shows an increase in death and a potential increase in stroke rate with the use of beta-blockers [7].
○ Overall, the evidence was deemed to be low to moderate in quality, not
allowing definitive conclusions to be established. Knowing the risks associated with acute beta-blocker withdrawal, current practice is to continue beta-blockade in the perioperative period in those patients on established therapy. De novo initiation of beta-blockade preoperatively is not recommended.

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22
Q

What Is the Precise Definition of Perioperative Stroke?

A

○ Perioperative stroke includes any stroke, whether embolic, thrombotic, or hemorrhagic, occurring intra-operatively or within 30 days of surgery, that results in motor, sensory, or cognitive dysfunction that persists for ≥24 hours.
○ The majority of perioperative strokes are ischemic in nature and associated with systemic atherosclerosis.

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23
Q

What Is the Risk of Perioperative Stroke in the General Population?

A

○ The overall risk of clinically apparent perioperative stroke for noncardiac, non-neurological surgery ranges from 0.1% to 0.8%.
○ The incidence varies for type of surgery and presence of associated risk factors.
○ Data from the ACS NSQIP database found that, when cardiac and neurological surgical procedures were excluded, the overall incidence of
perioperative stroke to be 0.1% [3].
○ Another investigation using ACS NSQIP data found that patients undergoing non-carotid major vascular surgery had a 0.6% incidence of peri-operative stroke

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24
Q

Is Perioperative Stroke Always Clinically Obvious?

A

○ Covert perioperative strokes have no clinical symptoms or signs but are evident on magnetic resonance imaging of the brain.
○ A prospective cohort study of patients undergoing elective noncardiac surgery found that 7% of patients had a perioperative covert stroke.
○ Given the lack of clinical signs, these may be erroneously mistaken for insignificant events. However, in this study, 42% of patients with a covert
stroke experienced cognitive decline at 1 year following surgery compared to 29% of those in the control group.
○ Increased postoperative delirium and overt stroke or transient ischemic attacks at 1 year were also associated with presence of perioperative covert stroke.

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25
Q

What Are the Consequences of a Perioperative Stroke?

A

○ The occurrence of a perioperative stroke has significant effects on morbidity and mortality.
○ The ACS NSQIP review of noncardiac non-neurological procedures demonstrated that perioperative stroke caused significant morbidity and mortality and was associated with an eightfold increase in mortality within 30 days.
○ Review of noncarotid major vascular surgeries from the ACS NSQIP database found that perioperative stroke was associated with a threefold increase in 30-day mortality as well as increased length of hospital
stay.
○ More recently in a retrospective analysis of 4,264,963 surgical procedures identified from the Nationwide Inpatient Sample (NIS) over an 11-year period, perioperative stroke was an independent predictor of 30-day in-hospital morbidity and mortality.
- It was also an independent predictor of length of hospital stay beyond 14 days, cardiovascular and pulmonary complications as well as in-
hospital mortality

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26
Q

What Is the Optimal Time Interval Between Ischemic Stroke and Surgery?

A

○ As highlighted in the large cohort study from Jørgensen et al. outlined above, the first 3 months following the cerebrovascular event pose the greatest risk for further stroke in the perioperative period.
○ At 9 months post event, the risk appears to have stabilized but is still higher than for those with no prior history of ischemic stroke. The recently published consensus statement from the Society for Neuroscience in Anesthesiology and Critical Care (SNACC) supports considering delaying elective surgery for 9 months after the stroke event.

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27
Q

How Should Patients with a History of Stroke or Transient Ischemic Attack Be Evaluated Preoperatively?

A

○ It is standard practice following a nondisabling stroke or transient ischemic attack for patients to be evaluated by a physician with stroke expertise.
○ Investigations undertaken as part of this assessment which should be reviewed preoperatively include brain imaging with noninvasive vascular imaging, laboratory tests including screening for diabetes and dyslipidemia, and a 12-lead ECG.
○ Holter ECG monitoring and an echocardiography may have been undertaken if a cardiac embolic mechanism was suspected.
○ Review of these findings, if available, is helpful in determining the mechanism and extent of injury.
○ For patients with a remote history of stroke and who have been stable for many years, a discussion of recurrent stroke risk is appropriate and should be documented.
○ Patients who have had a stroke within the previous 9 months should be fully informed of risk, with the timing and urgency of the elective procedure the subject of multidisciplinary consensus.
○ Thorough preoperative evaluation will enable risk factors for perioperative stroke to be identified and optimized within the given time frame, e.g., hypertension, hyperlipidemia, myocardial ischemia, renal impairment, diabetes, COPD, and smoking.

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28
Q

What Is the Optimal Blood Pressure Target in the Ischemic Stroke Patient?

A

○ Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor for stroke. ○ The American Heart Association currently recommends a target blood pressure below 140/90 mmHg in previously untreated hypertensive patients who suffer a stroke/TIA, while a systolic blood pressure target of <130 mmHg may be reasonable in adults who have suffered a lacunar stroke.

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29
Q

Should Aspirin Be Held Perioperatively in the Patient with a History of Stroke or Transient Ischemic Attack?

A

○ The decision to stop or continue aspirin in the perioperative period depends on the indication for aspirin, the risk of thromboembolism, the proposed surgery, and its associated risk of postoperative bleeding.
○ Previous concerns regarding the preoperative cessation of aspirin were based on concerns about the prothrombotic effect of surgery and the rebound procoagulant response to abrupt termination of therapy.
○ The POISE-2 trial, however, found that perioperative aspirin administration did not affect the primary outcomes of death or myocardial infarction after noncardiac surgery.
○ There was no difference in the incidence of stroke: 0.3% in the aspirin treatment group versus 0.4% in the placebo group (p = 0.62). On the other hand, major bleeding occurred in 4.6% of the aspirin group versus 3.8% of the treatment group (p = 0.04).
○ Currently, there is no evidence to support the continuation of perioperative aspirin to reduce perioperative stroke in noncardiac surgery.
○ Present guidelines recommend discontinuing aspirin 7–10 days prior to elective or nonurgent noncardiac surgery, except in patients with recent coronary stenting or those undergoing carotid endarterectomy .
○ Perioperative guidelines for aspirin in patients undergoing carotid endarterectomy are outlined in Chap. 10.

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30
Q

How Is Perioperative Anticoagulation Managed in Patients with Atrial Fibrillation Being Treated with a Direct Oral Anticoagulant After Ischemic Stroke?

A

○ Direct (non-vitamin K) oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are preferred over warfarin for nonvalvular atrial fibrillation.
○ A pragmatic approach to perioperative DOAC interruption takes account of surgical bleeding risk (Table 33.1) [19–21], renal function, and DOAC type.
○ Patients with creatinine clearance greater than 50 ml/min should have DOACs held for 2 days before surgery with a high risk of bleeding and for 1 day before surgery with a low bleeding risk.
○ Patients with a creatinine clearance of 30–50 ml/min and having surgery with a high bleeding risk should have dabigatran held for 4 days before surgery and anti Xa inhibitors, e.g., rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban held for 2 days.
○ Patients with a creatinine clearance of 30–50 ml/min and having surgery with a low bleeding risk should have dabigatran held for 2 days before surgery and anti Xa inhibitors held for 1 day. The difference can be accounted for by the longer half-life of dabigatran, i.e., up to 18 hours with normal renal function and up to 23 hours with reduced creatinine clearance.
○ Timing of DOAC interruption corresponds to three to four half-lives for surgical procedures with low bleeding risk and four to five half-lives for high
bleeding risk procedures.
○ Bridging with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is not required in most cases due to the much more rapid offset and onset times for DOACs compared with warfarin.
- Furthermore, an observational study of patients with atrial fibrillation being treated with dabigatran showed significantly more major bleeding in the group who were bridged with LMWH perioperatively compared to those who did not receive bridging therapy, and there was not a significant difference in thromboembolic events.

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31
Q

How Is Anticoagulation with Warfarin
Managed Perioperatively?

A

Warfarin is the anticoagulant of choice in patients with a
mechanical heart valve and moderate to severe mitral steno-
sis [18]. The bleeding risk for the surgical procedure should
first be decided and the need for bridging therapy evaluated.
Patient stratification for thromboembolic risk adapted from
the American College of Chest Physicians Clinical Practice
Guidelines is shown in Table 33.2 [21, 24, 25]. If warfarin is
indicated for atrial fibrillation, the need for heparin bridging
therapy will be dependent on the CHADS2 score (see Chap.
6 on atrial fibrillation).
Where cessation of warfarin therapy is deemed appropri-
ate, it should be omitted for 5 days preoperatively. If bridg-
ing therapy with subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
or intravenous unfractionated heparin is indicated, this
should be commenced on the third preoperative day. The last
dose of subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin should
be administered on the morning of the day before surgery.
Only half of the daily dose should be administered.

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32
Q

Should the Patient’s Ramipril Be Continued
Perioperatively?

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and angiotensin
II receptor blockers should be held on the day of surgery due
to their well-documented association with perioperative
hypotension [

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33
Q

Should Statin Therapy Be Continued Perioperatively?

A

○ The use of statins in primary and secondary prevention of stroke is irrefutable.
○ Statin therapy is therefore started or recommenced following all ischemic strokes or TIAs.
○ Benefits of perioperative statin therapy in patients undergoing carotid endarterectomy include reduced in-hospital mortality, stroke, and long-term protection against MI .
○ The discontinuation of statin therapy has been shown to increase risk of myocardial infarction following major vascular surgery [29].
○ The VISION study, a large international, prospective, cohort study in patients undergoing noncardiac surgery, demonstrated that preoperative statin therapy was independently associated with a lower risk of cardiovascular outcomes at 30 days. The relative risk of stroke at 30 days was 0.83 in patients being treated with a statin.
○ Although there are no large randomized trials, it seems prudent, in light of what has been shown, to continue statin therapy through-out the perioperative period including on the day of surgery for those patients already established on therapy.

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34
Q

The patient had been commenced on ramipril after her
stroke and was consistently meeting BP targets for a nondia-
betic patient. Aspirin was being used as a first-line agent for
long-term secondary prevention of stroke. Other antiplatelet
agents and combinations may be seen, e.g., clopidogrel or
aspirin plus dipyridamole. However, aspirin alone was prob-
ably a reasonable choice when the stroke was not cardioem-
bolic in nature. Even though the patient was 7 months from
the optimal time between ischemic stroke and surgery, the
need to address the underlying pathology in this instance
was somewhat exigent. Aspirin was held 1 week before sur-
gery, ramipril was held on the day of surgery and the patient
was asked to continue taking rosuvastatin throughout the
perioperative period. The surgery proceeded uneventfully 2
weeks after this preoperative visit.

A
35
Q

True/False Questions
1. (a) The risk of repeat perioperative ischemic stroke is
highest when surgery is performed within the first
3 months after the index stroke event.
(b) The risk of repeat perioperative ischemic stroke
returns to normal 9 months after an ischemic stroke.
(c) A previous history of stroke is the risk factor most
commonly associated with postoperative ischemic
stroke.
(d) Beta-blockade medication should be discontinued
preoperatively due to its positive association with
postoperative stroke.
(e) A perioperative stroke is defined as any stroke occur-
ring within 1 week of surgery.

A
36
Q
  1. (a) Based on current best evidence, it is recommended
    that an interval of at least 9 months should elapse
    between ischemic stroke and elective surgery.
    (b) Aspirin should be continued throughout the periop-
    erative period for most noncardiac surgeries.
    (c) Patients having carotid endarterectomy should be
    advised to continue aspirin therapy up to and includ-
    ing the day of surgery.
    (d) Covert perioperative stroke is commoner than clini-
    cally evident perioperative stroke.
    (e) The risk of perioperative clinically evident stroke for
    noncardiac, non-neurological surgery ranges from
    0.1 to 0.8%.
A
37
Q

What Is Parkinsons disease?

A

○ PD is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta (SNpc).
○ It is a complex multifaceted disease with a prolonged prodromal period (up to 14 years).
○ During the prodromal period, symptoms of sleep dysfunction, anosmia, constipation, and depression predominate.
○ The appearance of the motor symptoms of tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity and impaired posture, balance, and gait herald the onset of classic PD. While early onset can occur, advanced age and male sex are key risk factors for developing PD.
○ There are two major clinical presentations: a tremor-dominant form with minimal involvement of other motor faculties, or a non-tremor-dominant variant that is associated with significant bradykinesia, rigidity, postural instability, and gait issues. The disease has a prolonged and progressive
course.
○ Exacerbation of non-motor symptoms and signs occurs in the advanced stages of the disease. These include urinary frequency, incontinence, fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, and cognitive impairment/dementia.

38
Q

Are Patients with PD More at Risk Than the General Population of Perioperative Morbidity and Mortality?

A

○ Patients with PD are more likely to be admitted to hospital, have a prolonged length of stay, and suffer greater morbidity and mortality during hospitalization than matched controls.
○ The major reasons for admission are treatment of pneumonia, motor decline, urinary tract infection, and hip fracture.
○ During hospitalization, patients with PD are five times as likely to suffer from delirium, three times as likely to suffer adverse drug events and syncope, and twice as likely to fall and have GI complications than other patients [3].
○ PD is a dynamic illness where life-threating events can acutely occur within minutes, particularly if timing of medications is altered or inappropriate drugs administered.
○ Personalized and responsive tailored management is key to minimizing
adverse outcomes.

39
Q

What Drugs Are Used to Treat the Motor Symptoms of PD?
Dopamine Replacement Therapy

A

○ Levodopa is the most commonly prescribed drug for PD. The half-life of levodopa is only 1–2 hours. It is taken orally, absorbed, and converted in the brain by the remaining dopaminergic neurons to dopamine (by the time motor symptoms develop in PD, it is estimated that there is a 60% loss of dopaminergic neurons in the SNpc).
○ Levodopa undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism (95%) in the gut. It is converted to dopamine through a process of decarboxylation by aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase (AADC) as well as methylation by catechol-O-
methyltransferase (COMT).
○ Levodopa is coadministered with inhibitors of these enzyme systems thereby reducing peripheral conversion of levodopa. The inhibitors do not cross the blood-brain barrier allowing free conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the brain.
- This combination strategy facilitates a reduction in the dose of levodopa and and the associated side effects of excess peripheral dopamine (vasoconstriction, dysrhythmias, and nausea).
Carbidopa inhibits AADC peripherally and is available in combination with levodopa (Sinemet; Merck & Co., Whitehouse Station NJ, USA or Parcopa; Azur Pharma, Philadelphia PA, USA).
Levodopa is also available combined with benserazide (Madopar; Hoffman La Roche,Basle, Switzerland or Prolopa; Hoffmann-La Roche, Mississauga, Ontario, Canada), the latter also an AADC inhibitor.
Entacapone (Comtan; Novartis, East Hanover NJ, USA) inhibits COMT and is often prescribed to enhance the duration of the levodopa effect.
○ A combination formulation of carbidopa, levodopa, and entacapone (Stalevo; Novartis, East Hanover NJ, USA) is commonly used. Regardless of the specific formulation, dosing must be individualized to optimize motor function as the clinical response is variable and alters over the course of the disease.

40
Q

What Drugs Are Used to Treat the Motor Symptoms of PD?
Dopamine Agonists

A

○ Dopamine agonists (DAs) are synthetic drugs that directly act on the dopamine receptor, typically have a longer duration of action than levodopa, and may be associated with less motor fluctuations (a decline in the usual benefit from a dose of levodopa). They are frequently used as monotherapy in younger patients (<60 years) or in combination with levodopa in advanced PD to treat motor fluctuations and dyskinesia.
○ DA therapy is associated with an increased incidence of impulse control issues and psychiatric disturbances, which limit their utility [6]. In addition, dopamine agonist with-drawal syndrome (DAWS) can occur if DAs are discontinued.
It is associated with anxiety, apathy, diaphoresis, orthostatic
hypotension, agitation, and altered motor function. Treatment
of DAWS is difficult and may be prolonged [7].
The following DAs are available in North America: bro-mocriptine, pramipexole, ropinirole, rotigotine (delivered
transdermally via patch), and apomorphine (injectable).
Apomorphine is derived from morphine but has no opioid
agonist effect. It is an effective drug to manage akinesia or
“off” episodes (when levodopa is not working optimally, and
symptoms return) [8]. If administered subcutaneously, it has
a rapid onset of action (6–14 min) and relatively short dura-
tion of action (30–60 min). It is associated with postural
hypotension and nausea. The latter should be managed by
domperidone (Motilium; Janssen-Cilag Pty Ltd., North
Ryde, Australia), a DA with a predominantly peripheral
mechanism of action that crosses the blood-brain barrier in
very limited quantities and seldom causes extrapyramidal
effects or alteration of movement status in patients with
PD. The use of ondansetron is contraindicated in patients
taking apomorphine, as severe hypotension has been reported
with this combination.
Apomorphine has been successfully used to manage PD
in patients undergoing DBS insertion—oral PD medications
are withdrawn and subcutaneous apomorphine infusion
simultaneously initiated 3 days prior to surgery. Termination
of the infusion temporarily facilitates awake trial stimulation
of the DBS system. This approach may reduce the risk of
neurologic and respiratory issues during DBS surgery [9].

41
Q

What Drugs Are Used to Treat the Motor Symptoms of PD?
Monoamine Oxidase-B Inhibitors

A

○ These are selective inhibitors of monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B), an enzyme that catabolizes dopamine in the brain 7y and prevents reuptake of dopamine; they prolong the effect of dopamine and consequently decrease off-time in PD. Commonly used MAO-B inhibitors include selegiline, rasagiline, and safinamide. These drugs in recommended doses are selective for MAO-B but in supra-therapeutic doses may lose selectivity and inhibit MAO-A, the enzyme for metabolizing serotonin.
○ This possibility raised theoretical concerns about the use of SSRIs to treat depression, a common issue in PD patients taking MAO-B inhibitors. - A combination of MAO-B inhibitors and SSRIs can result in increased serotonergic effects leading to serotonin syndrome (fever, hallucinations, tachycardia, and GI symptoms). These worries have not been borne out by clinical data [10].
○ Meperidine, methadone, propoxyphene, and tramadol all modestly inhibit serotonin reuptake and are contraindicated in patients on MAO-B treatment.

42
Q

Amantadine

A

○ Amantadine is a noncompetitive N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist and has been approved as a treatment for dyskinesia in patients with PD receiving levodopa management.
○ Presynaptically, it acts by enhancing release of dopamine and inhibiting reuptake and, postsynaptically, by upregulating dopamine D2 receptors.
○ As abrupt cessation can result in acute delirium and hallucinations, amantadine should be restarted as soon as practical postoperatively

43
Q

What About the Non-motor Effects of PD?

A

○ It is vital to recognize that PD is not just a motor disease. A comprehensive review of this less recognized aspect of the disease is helpful to review [11].
○ Briefly, the symptoms may be grouped into the following: neuropsychiatric, autonomic, gastrointestinal, sensory, and sleep issues including vivid dreams, insomnia, and excessive daytime sleepiness. Some
of these symptoms are improved by dopamine augmentation, others not.
○ The PD patient may be on a plethora of medications sequentially added in an attempt to manage these issues.

44
Q

What Are the Issues with Levodopa for the Patient Scheduled to Undergo Surgery?

A

○ A delay in usual levodopa or combination dose timing can result in significant consequences.
- These include exacerbation of symptoms, immobility, respiratory difficulties, and aspiration of gastric contents.
- Abrupt withdrawal of levodopa can, on rare occasions, precipitate Parkinson-hyperpyrexia syndrome, a state of rigidity, fever, dysautonomia, and/or mental status alteration mimicking a septic state. It has been described in the perioperative period in a patient in whom the DBS pulse generator battery system became depleted.
- This is a neurological emergency requiring urgent re-institution of levodopa therapy.
○ The preoperative evaluation should detail the patient’s usual schedule of levodopa dosing, and if oral intake cannot be sustained and/or gastrointestinal absorption will be compromised postoperatively, alternatives to oral levodopa must be initiated. One option is to use an carbidopa/levodopa enteral suspension (Duopa; AbbVie, North Chicago, IL, USA) delivered via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) with jejunal extension tube (J-PEG) that has recently been approved.
- This formulation, delivered directly into the duodenum, has the theoretical advantage of overcoming the delayed gastric emptying that occurs in advanced PD.
- The suspension may have a role in patients undergoing surgery where postoperative ileus is anticipated, but no studies have investigated this approach to management.

45
Q

Describe a General Approach to the Perioperative Management of Medications Used to Control the Symptoms of PD

A
  1. A complete listing of all PD-related drugs and the timing of same should be detailed.
  2. Schedule the patient as the first case to optimize timing of medications.
  3. All PD medications should be continued according to the patient’s individualized schedule until the time of induction.
  4. Let the patient self-medicate his/her PD drugs pre- and postoperatively if possible.
  5. If ileus is likely postoperatively or the planned procedure >3 hours in duration, involve a physician with specialist knowledge of PD regarding intraoperative and postoperative management.
46
Q

Are There Any Issues in Preoperative Assessment Specifically Related to the Presence of a DBS System in This Patient?

A

○ An active DBS system will render analysis of an ECG difficult due to interference. Request the patient to bring the remote DBS patient programmer (Fig. 34.1) to the clinic so that therapy can be temporarily discontinued during the ECG exam. Prolonged QTc is not uncommon in patients with PD [14] and should be assessed preoperatively, as many drugs
used during the course of anesthesia can exacerbate QTc prolongation [15]

47
Q

If This Patient with PD Was Scheduled to Undergo a Bowel Resection, What Other Management Steps Should Be Considered?

A

○ Levodopa alone or in combination with other agents (as in this patient) remains the mainstay of PD therapy.
○ If poor absorption of oral medications is anticipated (postoperative ileus), monotherapy with a DA that can be delivered subcutaneously/transdermally (apomorphine or rotigotine) should be considered.
- In these circumstances, involvement of a neurologist/movement disorders specialist in perioperative management is indicated.

48
Q

True/False Questions
1. Patients with PD
(a) Are more likely to have complications following surgery than matched controls
(b) Should have their levodopa held on the day of surgery to avoid hypertension
(c) Have no major issues with cessation of levodopa for up to 12 hours
(d) Not uncommonly have delirium after surgery
(e) Who develop Parkinson-hyperpyrexia syndrome are usually asymptomatic

A

1a. T
1b. F
1c. T
1d. F
1e. T

49
Q
  1. A PD patient scheduled for surgery should
    (a) Be scheduled as the first case of the day
    (b) Be let self-medicate if at all possible
    (c) Be very unlikely to have a prolonged QTc on his ECG
    (d) Be prescribed amantadine for pain control routinely
    (e) Be given tramadol for pain if on MAO-B inhibitor therapy
A

2a. T
2b. T
2c. F
2d. F
2e. F

50
Q

What Is Multiple Sclerosis?

A

○ MS is a chronic immune-mediated inflammatory disease causing focal or multifocal demyelination of axons within the central nervous system.
○ It follows one of two courses: relapsing-remitting or progressive.
- The majority of cases (approximately 90%) are relapsing-remitting, which is characterized by relapses separated by periods of recovery, either full or incomplete.
- There is little or no disease progression during remission.
- However, residual disability may persist and accumulate after a relapse [1].
○ Progressive MS may be primary progressive or secondary
progressive.
- Primary progressive MS is characterized by a progressive deterioration of neurological disability from disease onset.
- Secondary progressive disease starts as relapsing-remitting MS before becoming progressive [1, 2]. Most cases of relapsing-remitting MS evolve into a secondary progressive pattern over time.

51
Q

What Are the Epidemiological Features
of MS?

A

• Prevalence varies with country and population. It is more
prevalent in northern Europe, Canada, the northern United
States, south-east Australia, and New Zealand. Prevalence
in these geographical areas varies between 100 and 400
per 100,000.
• It is more common in females; approximately 75% of
people with MS are female [3].
• Typical age of onset is 25–45 years, but it can occasion-
ally be diagnosed in the eighth decade of life.
• The cause of MS is unknown. Current thinking points
towards a genetic predisposition combined with environ-
mental triggers. More than 200 gene variants have been
associated with MS. People with a first-degree relative
with MS have a 2–4% risk of developing the condition
compared with the 0.1–0.4% risk in the general
population.
• In addition to temperate latitude, environmental risk fac-
tors that may be trigger agents include smoking, obesity,
and Epstein-Barr virus mononucleosis

52
Q

How Is MS Diagnosed?

A

• Clinical diagnosis is supported by MRI and CSF findings.
• Clinical features suggestive of MS are outlined in Table 35.1 [2, 4].
• The McDonald criteria are a set of clinical, radiological, and laboratory diagnostic guidelines for diagnosis of MS
○ These criteria can be used to diagnose both relapsing-remitting at the first clinical attack or primary progressive MS [5].
• Lesions separated in space (radiographically) and time are essential elements of the McDonald criteria.
• MRI features used to diagnose MS include one or more lesions, representing demyelinated plaques, disseminated in space in regions susceptible to demyelination, e.g., periventricular white matter, cerebral cortex, cerebellum, or spinal cord.
• CSF analysis for presence of oligoclonal bands can be used to confirm the diagnosis if there are doubts regarding dissemination in space and time

53
Q

What Drugs Are Used for Management of MS?

A

Pharmacological therapy for MS is non-curative.
However, MS patients may be on a variety of agents for
(a) symptom control;
(b) treatment of acute exacerbations;
(c) reduction of relapse frequency, duration, and accumulation of brain lesions for patients with relapsing remitting disease; and d) treatment
of progressive MS. A general approach to these drug categories and specific agents is outlined in Table 35.2 [6, 7].

54
Q

For How Long Are Disease-Modifying Agents Continued in Patients with Relapsing-Remitting MS?

A

○ If the disease remains stable and there are no side effects or safety concerns, these agents can be continued indefinitely.

55
Q

What Are the Perioperative Implications of Drugs Used for Treatment of MS?

A

Disease-modifying drugs have numerous associated side
effects that may have perioperative implications. These are
summarized in Table 35.3

56
Q

Should Disease-Modifying Medications Be Continued Perioperatively patients with MS?

A

○ In the presence of complications associated with disease-modifying agents, it is best to make this decision with a neurologist. Outside of the perioperative sphere, there are a number of reports of the appearance of new symptoms or deterioration of existing disease after discontinuing treatment.
○ A common feature of these reports is the occurrence of relapses after discontinuation of disease-modifying agents in the presence of high disease activity.
○ Therefore, the decision to temporarily discontinue MS medications in the
perioperative period is dependent on the presence and potential perioperative impact of drug complications.
○ If stopped, these medications should be restarted as soon as possible.

57
Q

What Complications is the Patient with MS Subject to in the Perioperative Period?

A

• Perioperative stress associated with anesthesia and surgery may lead to disease exacerbation in the form of relapse occurrence or exacerbation of symptoms.
-There is no clear evidence of a link between perioperative stress and disease exacerbation, but it is prudent to counsel the patient with regard to the possibility of such an occurrence.
- Of course, the unpredictable nature of remission and relapse makes it difficult to definitively associate perioperative deterioration with events related to the surgical procedure rather than to a natural progression of the disease state.
• Hyperthermia is frequently cited as being a trigger for perioperative exacerbation of symptoms.
- This may be due to a complete conduction block in demyelinated axons after a period of heat exposure.
- An elevation in temperature of as little as 1 °C has been associated with disease exacerbation [10].
- Continuous temperature monitoring and control of hyperthermia are strongly recommended through the appropriate deployment of cooling devices, cooled fluid administration, ambient temperature control, and antipyretic and antibiotic administration.
• Response to non-depolarizing neuromuscular relaxants can be unpredictable.
- Resistance to the effects of these agents may be due to an increase in the number of postjunctional receptors.
- Increased sensitivity and a resultant prolonged response may be caused by decreased skeletal muscle mass.
- Of greater concern, arguably, is the response of the MS patient to depolarizing muscle relaxants.
- Use of succinylcholine can lead to life-threatening hyperkalemia secondary to an upregulation of skeletal muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.
- The hyperkalemic risk has been associated with acute exacerbations of MS and progressive disease.
- Succinylcholine should be avoided in MS patients if at all possible, while non-depolarizing muscle relaxants should be titrated using a peripheral nerve stimulator in a non-affected or least affected extremity [2].
- Rocuronium with sugammadex reversal has been posited as a safe alternative [13]. The reversal of rocuronium by sugammadex is not affected by MS.
• Respiratory dysfunction may be present secondary to cervical or thoracic lesions and subsequent respiratory muscle weakness and diaphragmatic paralysis, or derangements in the response of the respiratory center to carbon dioxide homeostasis. The net effect may be hypoventilation and
atelectasis. These issues can be compounded by residual neuromuscular blockade as discussed above.
• Obstructive sleep apnea due to either MS lesions of the respiratory center, obesity, or drug side effects, e.g., GABA-B receptor agonist activity of baclofen [2].
• Hemodynamic instability resulting from autonomic nervous system involvement. This is manifest as profound hypotension with reduced response to fluid bolus or vasopressor administration.

58
Q

What Are the Objectives of Preoperative Evaluation of a patientwith MS?

A

• From the history and physical examination, identify MS type, presence of acute exacerbation, history of relapse occurrence, current medications, and degree of neurological impairment.
• Determine the degree of respiratory dysfunction from clinical assessment and spirometry. Respiratory dysfunction is common even in the early stages of MS, especially during relapse [14]. Patients with severe MS can have
profound respiratory dysfunction and should be evaluated for the presence of respiratory infection. Elective procedures may need to be postponed until this has been appropriately treated.
• Patients with severe MS who exhibit signs of severe weakness, respiratory distress, and swallowing abnormalities will likely need high dependency or intensive postoperative care and respiratory support.
• Assess for autonomic nervous system involvement; is there a history of orthostatic hypotension, bladder, or bowel dysfunction; gastroparesis; sexual dysfunction; arrhythmias; or vasovagal episodes?
• Evaluate cardiac function to detect cardiotoxic effects of the drugs being used for treatment of MS.
• Abrupt baclofen withdrawal can lead to seizures and hallucinations. There is no intravenous form—it can be transitioned to diazepam over a 2-week period.

59
Q

Is There Evidence for Preferred Anesthetic Agents When Administering General Anesthesia to an MS Patient?

A

○ There is no evidence that any inhalational or intravenous technique or agent is preferential.
○ The safe use of propofol, etomidate, fentanyl, remifentanil, sevoflurane, and desflurane has been described [15–17].

60
Q

Should Premedication Be Prescribed for This Patient with MS?

A

○ Preoperative administration of a benzodiazepine may be beneficial in reducing stress, a known trigger for disease exacerbation.
○ Midazolam has been linked with reduction of core body temperature through a mechanism that involves inhibition of tonic thermoregulatory vasoconstriction.
○ Premedication should be used with caution in the presence of respiratory compromise.

61
Q

Is Neuraxial Anesthesia Contraindicated in This Patient with MS?

A

○ This is controversial—there is no definitive answer.
○ The successful and safe use of subarachnoid blockade has been described in case reports without prolongation of block or neurologic complications [19, 20].
○ Conversely, a deterioration (frequently transient) in neurological symptoms or unmasking of MS symptoms has also been described after
spinal anesthesia [21].
○ In theory, demyelinated nerves are more susceptible to the toxic effects of local anesthetics.
○ Another source of concern in this regard is the integrity of the blood-brain barrier, which may be disrupted in MS patients. At this juncture, there is no clear cause-effect relationship between spinal anesthesia and MS deterioration.
○ Epidural anesthesia is considered a safer option to spinal anesthesia due to the lower concentration of local anesthetic entering the subarachnoid space—the concentration of local anesthetic in the white matter of the spinal cord is three to four times higher following spinal compared with epidural
anesthesia [22].
○ Repeat dosing via an epidural catheter may decrease the size of this protective effect.
- On balance, if after a thorough conversation with the patient spinal anesthesia is deemed preferential, consider using a lower dose and concentration of local anesthetic or performing an epidural

62
Q

Is Insertion of a Popliteal Sciatic Nerve Block Catheter Contraindicated in patients with MS?

A

○ MS is a disease of the central nervous system. However, some patients also have demyelination of peripheral nerves.
○ There is no consensus on the incidence of peripheral involvement, and the few studies that have investigated the phenomenon are too small to allow derivation of any meaningful conclusion,.
○ A case of severe brachial plexopathy (with incomplete reversal) after ultrasound-guided single-shot interscalene brachial plexus blockade has been reported.
○ The authors opine that the decision to perform a peripheral nerve block in a patient with MS should be based on the perceived benefits of avoiding opioid-based analgesia or general anesthesia. It is also worth adding that the quality of a peripheral block for analgesia is likely to be superior to that
provided by opioid-based analgesia, thus going a considerable way toward reducing unwanted perioperative stress.
○ The patient proceeded to have ankle fusion surgery performed under general anesthesia. She received a successful popliteal sciatic continuous block for postoperative analgesia without neurological sequelae.

63
Q

True-False Questions
1. (a) Multiple sclerosis is primarily a disease of the peripheral nervous system.
(b) Most MS cases belong to the relapsing-remitting disease category.
(c) Optic neuritis is a common presenting sign of MS.
(d) Disease-modifying agents are continued indefinitely in MS unless intolerable complications develop.
(e) Glatiramer acetate is frequently used as a first-line disease-modifying agent for relapsing-remitting MS.

A

1a. F
1b. T
1c. T
1d. T
1e. T

64
Q
  1. (a) Spinal anesthesia is absolutely contraindicated in MS.
    (b) Epidural anesthesia is likely safer than spinal anesthesia in MS.
    (c) There is no risk associated with peripheral nerve blockade in the MS patient.
    (d) Baclofen can be safely stopped on the morning of surgery.
    (e) Response to non-depolarizing muscle relaxants can be unpredictable in MS
A

2a. F
2b. T
2c. F
2d. F
2e. T

65
Q

What Is a Seizure?

A

○ A seizure involves involuntary muscle contraction due to an unregulated focus of electrical activity in the brain.
○ A seizure may be generalized (consciousness is lost) or focal (consciousness preserved).

66
Q

What Is Status Epilepticus?

A

○ This definition has varied, but it usually involves a generalized seizure lasting 30 minutes.
○Since this is impractical and assertive treatment should be initiated sooner than that, a more common definition is a single seizure of 5 minutes duration or two ictal events within 5 minutes without complete recovery between events.
○ Status epilepticus is a serious emergency, as it is associated with high mortality in the range of 10% or higher, although this includes the mortality associated with the underlying condition.
○ The severe metabolic acidemia that occurs during status epilepticus often results in brain injury.

67
Q

What Causes Seizures?

A

○ A seizure is due to an unregulated focus of electrical activity in the brain.
○ Seizures are typically differentiated as being due to structural or non-structural causes.
- Examples of structural causes include brain tumors (more common with primary than secondary tumors), traumatic head injury, infection,
hemorrhage, and ischemic stroke.
- Examples of non-structural causes include drug and medication use, and severe metabolic disturbances, e.g., hypoglycemia and hyponatremia.

68
Q

What Medications Are Commonly Used to Control Seizures in Patients with Brain Tumors?

A

○ Monotherapy with the lowest effective dose of a first-line anticonvulsant medication should be commenced after a first seizure.
- Levetiracetam and topiramate are frequently chosen due to their minimal effect on hepatic enzymes and subsequently are associated with fewer drug interactions.
- This is especially germane in patients receiving chemotherapeutic agents.
- Valproate is also frequently used as an anticonvulsant in patients with brain tumors. Even though it is a strong inhibitor of hepatic enzymes, there are few known adverse drug interactions between valproate and chemotherapeutic
agents. However, there is a dose-dependent risk of thrombocytopenia with valproate use.
- Phenytoin has historically been used and remains the mainstay for the management of status epilepticus.
- Benzodiazepines are commonly used for acute management.
- Barbiturates, propofol, and volatile anesthetic agents are used for refractory situations that are resistant to the foregoing therapies.

69
Q

Which Antiseizure Medications Induce Hepatic Metabolism?

A

○ Induction of hepatic metabolism is a common effect of anticonvulsants and is associated with multiple drug consequences.
○ The most general effect is a reduction in the measured effectiveness of a drug and a consequent increase in the dose necessary to produce the desired effect.
- For example, phentoin classically induces hepatic metabolism.
- The effect of other drugs that are hepatically metabolized will be changed when phenytoin is used.
- Such drugs that are affected this way include coumadin, most other anticonvulsants, many antibiotics, oral contraceptives, and several narcotics, among others.
○ Barbiturates, phenytoin, and carbamazepine are commonly associated with hepatic enzyme induction.
- These drugs are occasionally added to control seizures when first-line medications that are less potent enzyme inducers have not controlled seizures successfully.

70
Q

Is There a Role for Glucocorticoids in the Management of Patients with an Intracranial Mass?

A

○ Peritumoral cerebral edema may cause severe headaches and dizziness, can contribute to increased intracranial pressure, and can make surgical resection of the tumor more difficult.
○ High-dose dexamethasone has long been used to reduce this cerebral edema.
- However, there are few prospective studies that support this use of dexamethasone.
- The long-term side effects of steroid use, e.g., immunosuppression, truncal obesity, myopathy, hyperglycemia, fluid retention, and mood changes, necessitate that glucocorticoids be used only for patients with peritumoral edema who are symptomatic

71
Q

Is Premedication Contraindicated In patients with an intracranial mass?

A

○ The principal factor when deciding whether to prescribe premedication for the patient with an intracranial mass is the presence and/or severity of raised ICP.
○ Sedating premedication can conceal changes in mental status that may be indicative of worsening raised ICP.
- Moreover, sedation-induced depression of respiratory drive and associated hypercarbia will lead to vasodilatation and amplification of increased ICP.
○ Small doses of a benzodiazepine premedication can be used with caution in patients who are asymptomatic for raised ICP.
- Otherwise, it is best to wait until the patient is fully monitored prior to administering sedative premedication.

72
Q

What Is Intracranial Hypertension?

A

○ Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the head.
○ Normally, the pressure within the head is atmospheric at rest in the supine position but is less than zero with deep inspiration or with standing.
- With positive pressure ventilation, some of the pressure within the thorax is transmitted to other body parts, including the head.
○ Pathology in the head, whether due to tumors, bleeds, or infection, often increases the ICP as does positive pressure ventilation.
- Concern occurs when the pressure in the brain is high enough that arterial blood flow into the head is reduced, leading to brain injury.
- The positive pressure of mechanical ventilation may also be sufficient when added to the intracranial process to produce the same effect on ICP.
○ Pressures within the head that are greater than 20 cm of water are generally the danger point at which blood flow into the brain is reduced unless the blood pressure is artificially elevated using vasopressors

73
Q

Does the Patient with an intracranial mass and seizures Require a Preoperative Electroencephalogram (EEG)?

A

○ Once an intracranial mass has been diagnosed on neuro-imaging, preoperative EEG will not change management and is not necessary.
○ Intraoperative EEG, on the other hand, is frequently used to detect ischemia and seizure activity, and this has implications for how anesthesia is
conducted.

74
Q

Does the Patient Require Preoperative Consultation with a Neurologist?

A

○ This is not necessary. However, a baseline neurologic assessment should be performed at the preoperative visit to include recording of neurological deficits and appraisal of signs and symptoms of raised ICP.

75
Q

How Can the Risk of Venous Air Embolism Be Modified Preoperatively?

A

○ Preoperative echocardiography can be conducted if the risk of venous air embolism is high, e.g., sitting position or for surgery close to the venous sinuses.
○ It may be prudent to avoid the sitting position for patients with an intracardiac shunt, e.g., patent foramen ovale, atrial septal defect, or ven-
tricular septal defect.

76
Q

Are Seizures Commonly Associated
with a Brain Mass?

A

Yes. Brain masses are commonly associated with a seizure
disorder, more so with lower grade neoplasms than with the
higher grades. On the other hand, most seizure disorders are
not associated with a brain mass.
Of the brain masses associated with a seizure disorder,
seizures are much more common with primary brain neo-
plasms than with brain metastases from other sources.

77
Q

What Are the Anesthetic Options for Craniotomy?

A

○ Surgery may require a responsive patient for a careful resection during an “awake” craniotomy.
- An awake craniotomy is frequently chosen when cortical mapping is to be performed for a tumor sited close to functionally eloquent cortex, e.g.,
primary sensory and motor cortex, Broca and Wernicke areas, and the primary visual and auditory cortex.
- More commonly, general anesthesia is requested.
○ An “awake” craniotomy requires a cooperative patient and is generally done to facilitate very precise resection of brain tissue.
- Sedation may not be necessary, but if used, options include dexmedetomidine or remifentanil as well as propofol.
○ General anesthesia for craniotomy can be done using volatile or intravenous-based techniques.
- The craniotomy itself is seldom as painful as major joint or visceral surgery, and narcotics can be used judiciously.
- Blood loss is always possible and can easily involve a blood volume or more reliable intravenous access is essential.
- Monitoring of blood pressure is commonly done continuously with an in situ arterial access.

78
Q

What Additional Preoperative Preparation Is Necessary for the Patient Scheduled for Awake Craniotomy?

A

○ Patient selection is critical.
- The patient needs to be motivated and understand what is expected of them during the procedure.
- Patients with anxiety disorder, confusion, or severe claustrophobia are not suitable.
- Those with anticipated difficult airway or at risk of airway compromise are also not good candidates.

79
Q

Are Intraoperative Mannitol and Hypertonic Saline Required for a craniotomy SOL?

A

No. Both mannitol and hypertonic saline are options that may facilitate surgical exposure.
○ Both medications are osmotic diuretics and function by reducing total body water from all cells.
○ They are commonly used as aids in brain surgery because the brain is part of the vessel-rich group of organs and will preferentially shrink promptly after the osmotic diuretic is given.
○ Both mannitol and hypertonic saline can cause flux in sodium levels and serum osmolarity that can interfere with electrical conduction in the heart and the brain, although this is usually only seen in extreme situations.

80
Q

Is Intraoperative Hyperventilation Required?

A

No.
○ Carbon dioxide is a vasodilator, and the relationship between carbon dioxide and cerebral blood flow is linear between partial pressures of 25 and 60-mm Hg.
- Lower partial pressure of carbon dioxide reduces the cerebral blood flow and may also facilitate surgical exposure. However, this also reduces the blood flow globally to all body tissues and is not recommended for extended periods.

81
Q

The Surgeon Decides to Do the Craniotomy Under MRI Guidance. How Does This Affect Anesthetic Management?

A

○ Certain centers have the capacity for intraoperative MRI.
○ This is a complex undertaking for the anesthesiologist.
○ All monitors, infusion devices, and anesthetic equipment must be MR safe, i.e., not ferromagnetic.
- Anything within the MRI suite that becomes magnetized may become a projectile and represents a hazard for both people and equipment.
- Of note, cellular telephones, credit cards, and computers can be erased by the magnetic field of the MRI and cannot be taken into the MRI suite.
- Finally, the MRI itself is very noisy when in operation, and precautions should be taken to protect the ears of staff and patients using soft snug earplugs.

82
Q

True/False Questions
1. (a) Phenytoin is the commonest first-line anticonvulsant medication for seizure control in the patient with an intracranial mass.
(b) Phenytoin is a mainstay in the management of status epilepticus.
(c) Levetiracetam is a first-line antiseizure medication in patients with intracranial mass due to its minimal effect on hepatic enzyme metabolism.
(d) Dexamethasone is used to reduce peritumoral cerebral edema regardless of symptom profile.
(e) Sedative premedication is contraindicated in patients with signs of raised ICP

A

1a. F
1b. T
1c. T
1d. F
1e. T

83
Q
  1. (a) Preoperative EEG is a prerequisite in the preoperative workup for craniotomy for intracranial mass resection.
    (b) Presence of intracardiac shunt is a relative contraindication for a sitting position craniotomy.
    (c) Intracranial masses are commonly associated with seizure disorder.
    (d) Seizures are more common with primary brain neoplasms than with brain metastases.
    (e) Pathologic intracranial hypertension is present at a pressure ≥15 mm Hg.
A

2a. F
2b. T
2c. T
2d. T
2e. F