Neurologic Diseases (Exam III) Flashcards

1
Q

What vessels provide the blood flow to the brain?

A
  • 80% via the carotid arteries
  • 20% via the vertebral arteries
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2
Q

Name the pertinent vasculature of the circle of Willis.

This card is just to look at the picture on the other side.

A
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3
Q

5 factors

How is cerebral blood flow modulated?

A
  • CMR (cerebral metabolic rate)
  • CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure) MAP-ICP
  • ICP
  • PaCO₂
  • PaO₂
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4
Q

How much O₂ is required by the brain per minute?

A

3 mlO₂ / 100g / min

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5
Q

What is the average cerebral blood blow?

A

50ml/100g/min
~750ml/min
15% of CO

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6
Q

What drugs and/or metabolic states will decrease CMR?

A
  • Hypothermia
  • Anesthetic drugs (VAA, prop, etomidate, etc)
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7
Q

What drugs and/or metabolic states will increase CMR?

A
  • Hyperthermia
  • Seizures
  • Ketamine
  • N₂O
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8
Q

What temperature range do we generally want to keep our patients in?

A

36 - 38° C

This card previously said 42 which is 107.6F lol

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9
Q

How is Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) calculated?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP

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10
Q

Name the three components of the brain that form the Monroe-Kellie Doctrine.

A
  • Brain 80%
  • Blood 12%
  • CSF 8%
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11
Q

What is the Monroe Kellie Doctrine?

A

Any increase in one component of the intracranial space (blood, brain tissue, CSF) must be met with an equivalent decrease in another to prevent increased ICP.

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12
Q

What is the normal CPP range?

A

80 - 100 mmHg

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13
Q

An ICP > ____ mmHg will compromise CPP.

A

30

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14
Q

What pathologic processes or disease states are known to cause an increase in ICP?

A
  • Tumors
  • Hematomas
  • Blood in CSF
  • Infection
  • Aqueductal Stenosis
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15
Q

Tx? Shunts? Shunt malfunction happens when?

Hydrocephalus

A
  • CSF accumulation causing high ICP
  • Tx w/ lasix and acetazolamide
  • VP shunt or
  • endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV)
    -catheter placed into lateral ventricle –> drains into peritoneal space, r. atrium, or pleural space
  • Shunt malfunction occurs most frequently in first year
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16
Q

What range is normal for ICP?

A

5 - 15 mmHg

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17
Q

What symptoms are seen with abnormally high ICP?

A
  • Headache
  • N/V
  • Papilledema
  • ↓LOC
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18
Q

What does Cushing’s Triad indicate?
What is the triad?

A

↑ICP

  • ↑sBP
  • ↓HR
  • ↓RR (Cheyne-Stokes)
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19
Q

Uncal Herniation

A
  • Subtype of transtentorial herniation
  • Medial portion of temporal lobe (uncus) herniates over the tentorium cerebelli
  • Sx: Pupillary dilation, ptosis, lateral deviation of affected eye, brain stem compression
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20
Q

What is CN I?

A

Olfactory - smells

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21
Q

What is CN II?

A

Optic - vision

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22
Q

What is CN III?

A

Oculomotor - vision (convergence, pupillary accomodation)

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23
Q

What is CN IV?

A

Trochlear - vision (convergence, pupillary accommodation)

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24
Q

What is CN V?

A

Trigeminal - Face

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25
Q

What is CN VI?

A

Abducens - vision (convergence, pupillary accommodation)

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26
Q

What is CN VII?

A

Facial -symmetry, smile, anterior tastes

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27
Q

What is CN VIII?

A

Acoustic - hearing

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28
Q

What is CN IX?

A

Glossopharyngeal - Gag; posterior taste

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29
Q

What is CN X?

A

Vagus

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30
Q

What is CN XI?

A

Spinal accessory - shrugging shoulders

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31
Q

What is CN XII?

A

Hypoglossal - Tongue protrusion

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32
Q

Injury to this cranial nerve results in bell’s palsy.

A

CN 7

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33
Q

Eye movement in controlled by what cranial nerves?

A

3, 4, 6

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34
Q

What level of the spinal cord is affected with diaphragmatic paralysis?

A

Above C5

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35
Q

What is spinal shock?

A

Loss of vascular tone w/ flaccid paralysis below site of injury.

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36
Q

Are more strokes ischemic or hemmorrhagic?

A
  • Ischemic (88%)
  • Hemmorrhagic (12%)
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37
Q

Which type of stroke is more likely to cause death?

A

Hemmorrhagic (4x more likely)

38
Q

What are specific risk factors for hemmorrhagic stroke?

A
  • HTN
  • Cigarettes
  • Cocaine
  • Female
39
Q

5 listed

What are specific risk factors for ischemic stroke?

A
  • HTN
  • Cigarettes
  • HLD
  • DM
  • EtOH
40
Q

Where is bleeding located with an epidural hematoma?

A

Inbetween the dura and the skull

41
Q

What intracranial bleed is characterized by:

lucidity → unconscious → conscious → unconscious

A

Epidural hematoma

42
Q

Where is bleeding in subdural hematomas located?

A

Between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.

43
Q

What intracranial bleed is often characterized as the “worst headache of one’s life”?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

44
Q

What location is often the site of bleeding in subarachnoid hemmorhaging?

A

Circle of Willis (usually aneurysmal rupture)

45
Q

Cerebral _______ is one of the complications often caused by subarachnoid hemorrhage.

A

vasospasm

Often occurs 3rd day post bleed and peaks 5-7 days in.

46
Q

How is cerebral vasospasm treated?

A

Triple “H” Therapy

  • HTN
  • Hypervolemia
  • Hemodilution

Intraarterial CCB injection

47
Q

What type of hemorrhage occurs within the brain tissue itself?

A

Intracerebral (intra-parenchymal) hemorrhage.

48
Q

What anti-cholinergic is best for Alzheimer’s patients?
Why is this?

A

Glycopyrrolate (doesn’t cross the BBB)

49
Q

5

What factors possibly increase the risk of developing Parkinson’s?

A
  • Welding
  • Herbicides
  • Pesticide
  • Genetics
  • Advanced age
50
Q

What drugs will counteract levodopa and are contraindicated in Parkinson’s patients?

A
  • Metoclopramide
  • Haloperidol
  • Droperidol
  • Promethazine
51
Q

Onset age? Risk factors? Triggers? S/s? Tx?

What is MS?

A
  • Progressive, autoimmune demyelination of central nerve fibers
  • Onset: 20-40
  • Risk factors: Female, 1st degree relative hx of, Epstein-Barre Virus, smoking, other autoimmune dx
  • Triggers: Stress, high temperature, post-partum
  • Sx: Motor weakness, sensory disorders, visual impairment, autonomic instability
  • No cure; manage symptoms w/ steroids, immune modulating drugs (azathioprine), IVIG
52
Q

Respiratory concerns? Labs? Give steroids? Types of anesthesia?

Anesthesia Considerations for MS

What is critical in maintaining? Which NMB do we avoid?

A
  • PFT if respiratory compromise
  • Labs: CBC, BMP, LFT (depending on drugs taken)
  • Consider pre-op steroids
  • Temperature management is critical
  • General, regional, and peripheral nerve blocks are acceptable
  • Avoid succs
53
Q

What induction agent is a good first-line agent for treatment of acute seizures?

54
Q

What are the s/s of seizures whilst under anesthesia?

A
  • ↑HR
  • HTN
  • ↑ ETCO₂
55
Q

Under normal conditions, what is the combined volume contained within the brain?

A

Brain tissue, intracranial CSF, intracranial blood have a combined volume of 1200-1500ml

56
Q

Falx Cerebri

A

Dura that separates the two cerebral hemispheres

57
Q

Tentorium Cerebelli

A
  • Dura that lies rostral to the cerebellum
  • Marks the border between supra & infratentorial spaces
58
Q

Subfalcine Herniation

A
  • Herniation of hemispheric contents under the falx cerebri
  • Typically compresses branches of the anterior cerebral artery leading to a midline shift
59
Q

Transtentorial Herniation

A
  • Herniation of supratentorial contents past the tentorium cerebelli
  • Causes brainstem compression —> leading to AMS, gaze & ocular reflex defects, hemodynamic & respiratory compromise
60
Q

Cerebellar Tonsil Herniation

A
  • Can occur due to elevated infratentorial pressure
  • Causes cerebellar structures to herniate through the foramen magnum
  • Cardiorespiratory instability & death
61
Q
A
  1. Subfalcine
  2. Transtentorial
  3. Cerebellar contents through foramen magnum
  4. Traumatic event causing herniation out of cranial cavity
62
Q

8 methods listed

Methods we can use to decrease ICP?

A
  • Elevate HOB, keep head midline; promotes venous drainage
  • Hyperventilation
  • EVD
  • Hyperosmotic drugs- mannitol, 3%, 23%
  • Diuretics
  • Corticosteroids
  • Propofol
  • Surgical decompression
63
Q

Which nerves are susceptible? Triggers? Tx?

Myasthenia Gravis

Hyperplasia of which organ is common?

A
  • Autoimmune; antibodies generated against n-AChr at neuromuscular junction
  • Cranial nerves are susceptible-
    -Ocular: Diplopia, ptosis
    -Bulbar: Laryngeal/pharyngeal weakness –> aspiration risk
  • Thymic-hyperplasia is common
  • Triggers: pain, insomnia, infection, surgery
  • Tx: ACh-E inhibitors, immunosuppresive (azt), steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG
64
Q

Respiratory tests? Labs? Steroids? What prolongs succs?

Anesthesia Considerations for MG

May need post-op…?

A
  • PFT if respiratory compromise
  • Labs: CBC, BMP, LFT (depending on drugs taken)
  • Consider pre-op steroids
  • ACh-E inhibitors will prolong succs and ester LA’s
  • May need post-op ventilation
65
Q

Risk factor? Sx? Tx?

Eaton-Lambert Syndrome

A
  • Autoimmune antibodies created against to voltage gated Ca++ channels
    -Reduces Ca++ influx into cells –> decreases release of ACh into synapse @ NMJ
  • > 60% of cases are assoc. w/ small cell lung carcinoma
  • Sx: Progressive limb-girdle weakness, dysautonomia, oculobulbar palsy
  • Tx: K+ channel blocker (3-4 diaminopyridine), ACh-E inhibitors, AZT, steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG
66
Q

Senstive to what? May need post-op…?

Anesthesia Considerations ELS

A
  • The most sensitive to non-depolarizing & depolarizing NMB
  • Extreme caution w/ paralytics & opioids
  • May need post-op ventilation
67
Q

How many types? Most common type? Sx?

Muscular Dystrophy

A
  • Hereditary disorder; breakdown of dystrophin-glycoprotein complex –> essentialy leads to skeletal muscle atrophy
  • Duchenne is most common (boys, 2-5yrs)
    -6 types total
  • Sx: Progressive muscle wasting without motor/sensory abnormalities, kyphoscoliosis, long bone fragility, resp. weakness, ekg changes, frequent pneumonia
  • Elevated serum creat kinase due to muscle wasting
68
Q

Pre-op exam needed? High risk for what? Avoid which drugs?

Anesthesia Considerations- Muscular Dystrophy

Anesthesia type preferred?

A
  • Same as everything else w/
  • Pre-op Ekg
  • High risk for MH
  • High risk for hypermetabolic syndrome (similar to MH, tx’ed same way)
  • Have MH cart
  • Avoid succs, VA
  • RA preferred, TIVA for GA
69
Q

Triggered by what? These conditions are managed with?

Myotonia

A
  • Prolonged contraction after muscle stimulation
  • Seen in several muscle disorders
  • Triggered by stress & cold temp
  • Managed w/ Quinine, Procainamide, Steroids
70
Q

Myotonic Dystrophy

A
  • Most common myotonia
  • Onset 20’s-30’s
  • Can affect pharyngeal, laryngeal, diaphragmatic muscles
  • Cardiac conduction can be affected
71
Q

Myotonia Congenita

A
  • Most mild form of myotonic dystrophies
  • Only involves skeletal muscles
72
Q

Central Core Disease

A
  • Rarest form of myotonic dystrophies
  • Core muscle cells lack mitochondrial enzymes
  • Progressive muscle weakness and scoliosis
73
Q

Avoid what? Temp management?

Anesthesia Considerations for Myotonic Dystrophies

A
  • Same as all other neuro disorders
  • Avoid succs- triggers myotonia
  • Keep them warm
74
Q

Three types? Consent? High risk for what? Anesthesia preferred?

Dementia

A
  • Alzheimers- 70%
  • Vascular dementia- 25%
  • Parkinsons- 5%
  • Look for advanced directive; may not be able to consent
  • Pre-op meds could affect anesthetics (AChE-I, MAOI’s, psych meds)
  • High risk for post-op delirium (don’t give versed)
  • Regional anesthesia preferred
75
Q

Triad of sx? Tx?

Parkinson’s

A
  • Degeneration of dopaminergic fibers in basal ganglia —-> lack of dopamine
  • Causes dysregulation of extrapyramidal motor system –> overstimulated motor neurons
  • Skeletal muscle tremor, rigidity, akinesia
  • Tx: Levodopa, anticholingergics, MAOI, deep brain stimulator
76
Q

Need to continue which med? Avoid what? Need to disable?

Parkinson’s Anesthesia Considerations

A
  • Need to continue levodopa
  • Avoid reglan, phenothiazines, butyrophenones
  • Avoid demerol if taking an MAOI
  • DBS needs to be disabled or use bipolar cautery
77
Q

Astrocytomas

A

Can be primary or metastatic
Most common glial tumor

Glioma
* Primary tumor. Least aggressive. Often seen in young adults w/ new onset seizures

Pilocyctic astrocytoma
* Mostly benign. Seen often in children & young adults

Anaplastic astrocytoma
* Poorly differentiated –> evolve into glioblastoma

Glioblastoma Multiforme
* High mortality. Usually requires surgery & chemo

78
Q

Meningioma

A
  • Usually benign
  • Arise from dura or arachnoid tissue
  • Good prognosis
79
Q

Pituitary Adenoma

A
  • Noncancerous
  • Transsphenoidal resection or open crani
80
Q

Acoustic Neuromas

A
  • Usually benign schwannoma involving the vestibular component of CN VIII in auditory canal
  • Good prognosis
81
Q

Metastatic Carcinoma

A
  • Varies widely in origin & symptoms
  • Prognosis not favorable
82
Q

Pre-op meds will be dictated by? Imaging?

Brain Tumor Anesthesia Considerations

A
  • Steroids to minimize cerebral edema
  • Pre-op steroids and anticonvulsants per surgeon
  • CT/MRI pre and post-op
  • Mannitol
83
Q

5 Classes

TOAST Classification for Ischemic Strokes

A
  1. Large artery atherosclerosis (carotid)
  2. Small vessel occlusion (lacunar)
  3. Cardioaortic embolic (a. fib)
  4. Other (hypercoagulable states)
  5. Undeterminded
84
Q

Two most reliable predictors of outcome in a hemorrhagic stroke

A
  1. Estimated blood volume of hemorrhage
  2. Degree of change in LOC
85
Q

If started on anticoags, when can they have elective surgery?

CVA, Anticoags, & Surgery

Bridge warfarin with? Regional anesthesia? CVA prophylaxis?

A
  • No elective cases within 3 months if started on an anticoagulant for thrombus
  • If taking anticoagulants for CVA prophylaxis, need to consult with prescribing provider
  • If taking Warfarin, will need to bridge with Heparin or Lovenox
  • Caution with regional- ensure anticoagulants are d/ced in an appropriate timeframe
86
Q

Cerebral Aneurysms

A
  • Only 1/3rd diagnosed prior to rupture
  • Rx factors: HTN, smoking, female, oral contraceptives, cocaine
  • Dx: CT/angio, MRI, lumbar puncture
  • Need to intervene w/in 72hours of rupture
  • Tx: Coiling, stenting, trapping/bypass
87
Q

two systems

Aneurysm Grading for Prognosis

A

Two classification systems

Hunt & Hess
* 0-5
* 0 being unruptured, least mortality
* 5 being deep coma, highest mortality

World Federation of Neurosurgeons System
* 0-5. Uses GCS to classify
* 0 being unruptured
* 5 having a GCS of 3-6

88
Q

What is the grading system?

AVM

A
  • Arterial-venous connection
  • Creates an area of high-flow
  • Believed to be congenital

Spetzler-Martin AVM Grading System:
Predicts surgical outcome based on points assigned (based on size, pattern of venous drainage, eloquence of adjacent brain??)

89
Q

Four types

Chiari Malformation

A

Congenital displacement of the cerebellum

  • Type 1: Downward displacement
  • Type 2: Arnold Chiari. Downward displacement of cerebellar vermis, often seen w/ myelomeningocele
  • Type 3: Rare. Occiptal encephalocele w/ downward cerebellar displacement
  • Type 4: Cerebellar hypoplasia. Not compatible w/ life
90
Q

Tumors are often where?

Tuberous Sclerosis

A
  • Bourneville Disease
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Disease causing benign hematomas, angiofibromas, other lesions
  • Brain lesions can include: cortical tumors & giant cell astrocytomas
  • Often involves tumors of face, oropharynx, heart, lungs, liver, kidneys
  • Presents w/ mental retardation and seizure disorders
91
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau Disease

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Benign tumors of CNS, eyes, adrenals, pancreas, kidneys
  • May have pheochromocytoma
92
Q

How many types? Will likely see what?

Neurofibromatosis

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Three types: 1 (most common), 2, Schwannomatosis
  • Possibility of pheochromocytoma
  • Likelihood of spinal tumors- avoid neuraxial