NeuroICU Board Review Question Book Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment for cerebellar hemorrhage with clinical deterioration and evidence of brainstem compression (shift/herniation)?

A

Decompressive surgery

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2
Q

ICH Score

A

GCS: 2: 3-4, 1: 5-12, 0: 13-15
ICH volume 30 or more: 1
IVH: yes:1
Age: 80 or older: 1
Infratentorial: yes: 1
Otherwise = 0
5 or 6 = 100% 30 day mortality

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3
Q

Right middle cerebral artery stroke with ischemic cerebral edema and mass effect treament?

A

Decompressive hemicraniectomy

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4
Q

Location of ischemia causing ipsilateral dilated pupil, contralateral hemiparesis (sometimes bilateral), and abnormal extensor posturing

A

Middle cerebral artery (can have transtentorial herniation)

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5
Q

Kernohan Notch Phenomenon

A

Ipsilateral weakness to side of stroke,
“false localizer”

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6
Q

Charles Bonnet Syndrome

A

Partial or severe blindness resulting in complex visual hallucinations
“Visual release hallucinations”

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7
Q

Foster-Kennedy Syndrome

A

Frontal lobe masses
Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilledema

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8
Q

Terson Syndrome

A

Intraocular hemorrhage associated with SAH
Usually associated with sudden aneurysm rupture

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9
Q

Anton Syndrome

A

Cortical blindness/visual agnosia from bilateral occipital damage
Patients unaware of visual deficit and confabulate visual scenes

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10
Q

Diagnosis of headache, blurred vision, seizures with severe hypertension with MRI with focal regions of confluent symmetric hemispheric vasogenic edema most commonly in occipital and parietal lobes?

A

Posterior reversible encephalopathic syndrome
Reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome

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11
Q

Presumed etiology of PRES

A

Failed autoregulation resulting in hyperperfusion and endothelial dysfunction/injury

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12
Q

Conditions associated with PRES

A

Eclampsia
Renal failure
Sepsis
Autoimmune disorders
Transplantation
Immunosupprassive therapies: cyclosporine and tacrolimus

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13
Q

Diagnosis

A

Posterior reversible encephalopathic syndrome - PRES
Reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome

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14
Q

Diagnosis: headache, seizures, temporal lobe hemorrahges or infarctions?

A

Thrombosis of the vein of Labbee

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15
Q

Side effect of IV alteplase and who is at increased risk of developing this complication?

A

Angioedema
Patients taking ACE-inhibitors

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16
Q

Treatment of IV alteplase angioedema?

A

Histamine antagonists: ranitidine and diphenhydramine
Corticosteroids

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17
Q

Lemierre syndrome

A

Thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and bacteremia preceeded by recent oropharyngeal infection/abscess

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18
Q

Type of stroke in Sickle Cell patients by age

A

<10 - ischemic
20-30 - hemorrhagic - ruptured cerebral aneurysm
>30 - ischemic

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19
Q

Management of acute stroke in Sickle Cell patients

A

Thrombolytics and anticoagulation avoided but can be considered on a case-by-case basis
Exchange transfusion to lower % of sickle cell hb to 30% or less of total hemoglobin with total hb level 10 or less

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20
Q

Factor associated with thrombosis of dural sinus and/or cerebral veins? How many have seizures? What is the treatment?

A

Hereditary or acquired thrombophilias
Inflammatory conditions
Transient conditions: pregnancy, puerperium, dehydration, parameningeal infection
Some meds: tamoxifen, steroids, IV Ig, OCP
Head trauma
40% have focal or generalized seizures
Anticoagulation

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21
Q

Ischemic Stroke + Livedo reticularis diagnosis, pathology, etiology, Ab?

A

Sneddon syndrome
Rare noninflammatory thrombotic vasculopathy
Primary idiopathic or associated with primary autoimmune disorder: SLE, antiphospholipid antibody (up to 78% with these antibodies)

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22
Q

Reversal agent for dabigatran

A

Idraucizumab

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23
Q

Treatment/reversal of IV alteplase hemorrhagic conversion

A

Cryoprecipitate

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24
Q

Rivaroxaban reversal agent

A

Andexanet alfaH

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25
Q

Heparin reversal agent

A

Protamine sulfate

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26
Q

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy etiology

A

beta-amyloid deposits in small arteries of the leptomeninges and cerebral cortex
MCC lobar intraparenchymal hemorrhage in elderly (esp alzheimers)

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27
Q

Severe thunderclap headache with or without other acute neurologic symptoms and diffuse segmental constriction of cerebral arteries diagnosis, can have hemorrhagic or ischemic strokes

A

Reversible cerebral vasoconstrictive syndrome
Convexity/sulcal SAH
Imaging: segmental constriction of cerebral arteries, normalizes within 3 months on imaging
Controversial: use of nimodipine, verapamil and/or magnesium
Recovery within days to weeks

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28
Q

Cerebral small-vessel arteriopathy (nonhypertensive) with subcortical infarcts with alopecia and spondylosis diagnosis

A

Cerebral autosomal recessive arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy (CARASIL)
Early adulthood onset
HTRA1 gene

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29
Q

CVA in 40’s and 50’s with migraines with subcortical infarcts diagnosis

A

Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcotial infarcts and leukoencephalopathy (CADASIL)
KRIT1 gene
Familial cerebral cavernous malformations

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30
Q

Fabry disease multation

A

GLA

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31
Q

Retinal vasculopathy with cerebral leukodystrophy mutation

A

TREX1

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32
Q

DAWN trial

A

Endovascular thrombectomy reduced poor outcome and disability in select patients up to 24 hours after ischemic stroke in patients with mismatch between clinical deficit and infarct volume (worse deficit then CVA volume would suggest)

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33
Q

Lindegaard ratio

A

Middle cerebral artery velocity / internal carotid artery velocity
Mean flow velocities >120 cm/s = abnormal
Ratio <3 = normal
>6 = distinguishes severe from moderate vasospasm

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34
Q

Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, neurologic symptoms, rneal failure and fever

A

Thrombocytopenic thrombotic purpura
ADAMTS13 activity reduced
Tx: plasma exchange transfusion

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35
Q

Most common segment involved in a spontaneous vertebral artery dissection

A

Distal V3 segment - relatively mobile and unfixed, susceptible to tearing with sudden motion and stretching

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36
Q

World Federation of Neurologic Surgeons Scale of SAH

A

GCS 15, no motor deficit = 1
13-14, no = 2
13-14, yes = 3
7-12, either = 4
3-6, either = 5

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37
Q

Hunt and Hess Scale for SAH

A
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38
Q

Who get screened for unruptured aneurysms?

A

Families with 2 first-degree relatives with know IA
Patients with a family history of IA
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Type IV Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Microcephalic osteodysplastic primordial dwarfism
Consider in patients with 1st degree relative and conditions with increased risk of IA - ex: coarctation of aorta or bicuspid aortic valve

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39
Q

Modified Fisher Scale

A
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40
Q

Rare complication of rTPA

A

Angioedema from activation of complement and kinin cascade from increased concentrations of plasmin especially in patients on ACEI

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41
Q

How is rTPA potentially neurotoxic?

A

Cross blood-brain barrier and increase ischemic injury via potentiation of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) -induced cell death and increase in NMDA-mediated intracellular calcium levels

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42
Q

Treatment of acute ischemic stroke under 4.5 hr from onset (NIHSS <25, <1/3 MCA involvement, no prior CVA and DM, any anticoagulant use)

A

IV r-tPA

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43
Q

Treatment of acute ischemic stroke under 8 hours from onset, with terminal carotid, MCA (M1 or M2) or basilar artery occlusion with <1/3 hemisphere territory infarcted with ability to perform arterial puncture within 8 hours from stroke onset)?

A

Intra-arterial prourokinase, r-tPA or mechanical clot extraction

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44
Q

Indications for IABP

A
  • Acute congestive heart failure exacerbation with hypotension
  • As prophylaxis or adjunct treatment in high risk percutaneous coronary intervention
  • Myocardial infarction with decreased left ventricular function leading to hypotension
  • Myocardial infarction with mechanical complications causing cardiogenic shock, i.e., acute mitral regurgitation due to papillary muscle rupture or ventricular septal rupture
  • Low cardiac output state after coronary artery bypass grafting surgery
  • As a bridge to definitive treatment in patients with any of the following conditions; intractable angina or myocardial ischemia, refractory heart failure, or intractable ventricular arrhythmias
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45
Q

Contraindications for IABP

A
  • Uncontrolled sepsis
  • Uncontrolled bleeding diathesis
  • Moderate to severe aortic regurgitation
  • An aortic aneurysm or aortic dissection
  • Severe peripheral artery disease unless pretreated with stenting
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46
Q

Indications for ventricular assist device

A
  • High-risk percutaneous intervention, there is no precise definition for high-risk percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), and many factors should be taken into consideration like impaired LV function, left main stenosis, ostial stenoses, heavily calcified lesions, and cardiogenic shock.
  • Acute myocardial infarction. Some patients with (STEMI) and non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) would benefit from circulatory support to unload the LV and improve the coronaries’ perfusion; however, no evidence of the benefit of the mechanical circulatory support in decreasing the myocardial injury in the setting of acute occlusion.
  • Cardiogenic shock and advanced heart failure stabilize critically ill patients and serve as a bridge to recovery, surgical, mechanical circulatory support, or transplant.[4]
    Selected high-risk patients undergoing percutaneous aortic valvuloplasty or aortic valve replacement.[8]
  • Patients with severe LV dysfunction undergoing electrophysiologic procedures as these high-risk patients will be intolerant to prolonged ventricular arrhythmia during the procedure.[9]
  • Right ventricular failure using percutaneously inserted RVD. RECOVER RIGHT trial demonstrated the safety and the immediate hemodynamic stabilization in patients with acute RV failure.[6]
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47
Q

Contraindications to percutaneous inserted ventricular assist device

A
  • Significant peripheral vascular disease
  • Aortic stenosis (less than 1.5 cm) or insufficiency
  • Ventricular septal defect. The percutaneously inserted LVD increases the left to right shunt significantly
  • Left ventricular thrombus [3]
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48
Q

Inclusion criteria for extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation

A
  • Age <70 years
  • Cardiopulmonary arrest to first CPR <5 minutes
  • Witnessed arrest
  • Ventricular fibrillation (VF) or paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia (pVT) or pulseless electrical activity (PEA) as initial cardiac rhythm
  • Recurrent VF or intermittent ROSC
  • Absence of comorbidities like end-stage heart failure/chronic obstructive pulmonary disease/liver failure/end-stage renal failure or terminal irreversible illness
  • No known aortic valve incompetence
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49
Q

Indications for VA ECMO

A
  • VA ECMO is used to provide both respiratory and cardiac support.[15]
  • Cardiac conditions with low cardiac output (cardiac index < 2L/min/m) and hypotension (systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg) despite inotropic and intra-aortic balloon pump support.
  • Cardiogenic shock secondary to either acute coronary syndrome, refractory cardiac arrhythmia, sepsis leading to cardiac depression, myocarditis, pulmonary embolism, drug toxicity, cardiac trauma, anaphylaxis, acute decompensated heart failure, septic shock; where cardiac activity is compromised and unable to pump out the adequate blood to meet the body’s demand.
  • Periprocedural for high-risk cardiac interventions
  • Postoperative heart failure: Inability to wean from cardiopulmonary bypass after cardiac surgery; ECMO is very useful post-operatively to provide rest for the heart and helps in recovery after the surgery.
  • Post heart transplant: after heart or lung-heart transplantation in cases of primary graft failure
  • Bridge to long-term VAD support or bridge to heart/lung transplant.
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50
Q

Indications for VV ECMO

A
  • VV ECMO is used for respiratory support in those who do not respond to mechanical ventilation or any acute potentially reversible respiratory failure.[15]
  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome secondary to either severe bacterial or viral pneumonia, including COVID-19 or aspiration pneumonitis. ECMO bypasses the compromised activity of the lungs and maintains oxygenation and ventilation with the removal of CO2.[2]
  • Covid-19 Severe Respiratory Failure: ARDS due to SARS-CoV-2 infection when prolonged mechanical ventilatory support fails. In some cases, when ventilation fails, ECMO support (venovenous ECMO) has been initiated.[5]
  • Extracorporeal assistance to support lung in cases of airway obstruction, pulmonary contusion (barotrauma), smoke inhalation, drowning, air leak syndrome, hypercapnia, or hypoxic respiratory failure
  • Status asthmaticus
  • Massive hemoptysis or pulmonary hemorrhage
  • Bridge to lung transplant
    Support for lung resections in unstable patients.
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51
Q

Contraindications (absolute and relative) to ECMO

A

Absolute
* Unwitnessed cardiac arrest
* Prolonged CPR without adequate tissue perfusion
* Not a transplant or VAD support candidate
* Unrepaired aortic dissection
* Severe aortic regurgitation
* Unrecoverable severe brain injury
* Disseminated malignancy
* Severe organ dysfunction, for example, emphysema/cirrhosis/renal failure
* Peripheral vascular disease in cases of peripheral VA ECMO
* Lethal chromosomal abnormalities
* Pulmonary hypertension (mean pulmonary artery pressure >50 mmHg) or cardiogenic failure: VV ECMO is contraindicated

Relative
*Obesity
*Advanced age
* Pre-existing chronic illness with long term poor prognosis
* Prolonged mechanical ventilation >14 days

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52
Q

Neurologic Complications to LVAD

A

Ischemic stroke - most common neurologic complication
Hemorrhagic stroke
TIA
Generalized hypoxic-ischemic event
Mycotic aneurysms
Cerebral abscess
Seizures
Encephalopathy

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53
Q

Neurologic Complications to ECMO

A

ICH - SAH, IPH, SDH - most common neurologic complication
Ischemic stroke
Seizures
Hypoxic-ischemic brain injury
Brain death
Harlequin syndrome: LV starts to recover while lungs are poorly oxygenated

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54
Q

Management of pulmonary hypertension

A

Diuretics for fluid retention and right ventricular failure
ACE inhibitors, b-blockers, angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitors or ivabradine - NOT recommended for PAH unless other indications exist
Long term Oxygen if PaO2 <60
CCB - first line - amlodipine or nifedipine if bradycardic at baseline, dilt if tachy at baseline
Ambrisentan - endothilian receptro type A antagonist, bosentan and macitentan type A and type B
PDE type 5 inhibitors - sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil
Epoprostenol - prostacyclin analog

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55
Q

RTA diagnosis

A

Type 1 - impaired distal NH4 secretion, HCO3 <-15, low K, urine pH >5.5, + urine anion gap, common nephrocalcinosis
tx: correct electrolytes
Type 2 - reduced proximal HCO3 resorption, HCO3 -6 to -15, low-normal K+, urine pH <5.5 (increased urine HCO3), urine anion gap negative, rarely nephrocalcinosis
Tx: replace bicarb, citrate, potassium and sodium
Type 4 - decreased aldosterone secretion or resistance, HCO3 >15, high K+, urine pH <5.5, urine anion gap +, nephrocalcinosis: rare
tx: stop K+ retaining drugs, can give loop (lose K+) diuretics

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56
Q

FeNa calculation

A

AKI vs ATN
(Urine Na x Serum Cr) / (Serum Na x Urine Cr)
<1% = prerenal
>2% = ATN
Not accurate in mild AKI, AKI on CKD, recent diuretics

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57
Q

FeUrea calculation

A

AKI vs ATN
(Urine Urea x Serum Cr) / (Serum Urea x Urine Cr)
< 35% = prerenal
>35% = ATN

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58
Q

AIN vs ATN

A

AIN: allergic reaction causing interstitial inflammation, fever, rash, flank pain, arthralgia
ATN: no inflammation, kidney tubules
Bx for diagnosis

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59
Q

Renally eliminated anti-epileptic drugs

A

Levetiracetam
Gabapentin
Pregabalin
Topiramate
Eslicarbazepine
Lacosamide
Vigabatrin

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60
Q

IMPACT and CRASH trial looked at what?

A

Steroids in TBI

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61
Q

When to intubate MG patients?

A

VC < 20 mL/kg
NIF < -30
Maximal expiratory pressure <40 cm H20 or >30% or more decline in measurements on serial testing
Some use: VC <15 mL/kg or NIF < -20

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62
Q

What is discontinued during a myasthenic crisis? What is given?

A

Pyridostigmine
Tx: Corticosteroids, IvIg and Plasmapheresis

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63
Q

Contraindications to IvIg

A

Renal failure
Hypercoagulable states

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64
Q

Contraindications to plasmapheresis

A

Sepsis due to hemodynamic issues and bacterial colonization of plasmapheresis catheter

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65
Q

OD of pyridostigmine can trigger what?

A

Cholinergic crisis in MG (generalized weakness, miosis, excess pulmonary secretions, muscle fasciculations, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, diaphoresis, bradycardia)
Tx: support, stop pyridostigmine, tx myasthenic crisis (steroids, IvIg, Plasmapheresis)

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66
Q

Neurologic complications of stem cell transplant

A

Drug-related toxicities: Immunosuppressive drugs can cause direct toxicity, such as posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES), or facilitate opportunistic infections.
Infections: Bacterial, fungal, viral, and protozoan pathogens can cause infectious complications.
Seizures
Encephalopathy
Neuropathy
Myopathy
Chronic graft-versus-host disease
Akinetic mutism
Osmotic demyelination
Multifocal cerebral infarction
Hemorrhage
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Post-transplant malignancies

67
Q

HUS vs TTP

A
68
Q

CSF normal, bacterial, viral, fungal

A

Bacterial: turbid, elevated opening pressure, most WBCs, low glucose
Viral: lymphocytes, low protein
Fungal: lowest WBC, high protein, normal or low glucose

69
Q

Toxidromes

A

Pupils
*Dilated: antichol and symatho
*Pinpoint: cholingergic, opiods
HR-BP:
Up: antichol, sympath
Low: opoids, sed
Resp
Up: sympath
Low: opoid, sed
Temp:
Up: antichol, sympath
Low: opoid, sed
Bowel tones:
None: antichol, opoid, sed
Hyperactive: chol, sympath
Diaphoresis: chol, sympath

70
Q

Serotonin syndrome versus neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
71
Q

Aneurysm that causes ptosis

A

PC Comm -> compression of CNIII
Pupillary involvement = pathognomonic for aneurysm (esp if >5 mm)

72
Q

Terson’s syndrome

A

Blindness from vitreous hemorrhage in setting of ICH with elevated ICP

73
Q

Statin benefit in DCI

A

Decrease glutamate-mediated excitotoxicity
Moderates inflammatory response by upregulating CK
Increases NO levels

74
Q

Abulia and LE motor deficits can occur in vasospasm of which artery?

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery

75
Q

Aphasia and motor deficit of upper and lower extremities can occur in vasospasm of which artery?

A

MCA - can also cause temporal lobe seizures or hemiparesis

76
Q

Is increased tone or hyporeflexia indicative of cerebral vasospasm?

A

Increased tone

77
Q

In SAH, what is the relationship between vasospasm and location of blood?

A

SAH > 1mm = increased risk
Intraventricular and intracerebral hematoma does NOT increase risk of vasospasm

78
Q

Systemic complications of SAH

A

Cardiac: stunned, neurogenic, takotsubo -> LV apical thrombus and death, elevated catecholamines -> myocardial contraction band necrosis -> LV dysfunction -> inc trop and BNP
EKG: ST elevation and depression, QT prolongation (not shortening), peaked or inverted T, large U, peaked P, pathologic Q, afib, aflutter and sinus bradycardia
Increased ICP -> hypothalamic injury and xs catecholamine release

79
Q

SAH with aneurysm risk of rebleeding?

A

> 1 cm
Poor neurologic presentation initially
Seizure at onset
Prevention: early intervention, antifibrinolytic therapy

80
Q

Nitroprusside and ICP

A

Avoid
Dilated intracerebral venous and arterial vasculature causing elevated ICP
Unreliable dose-response profile
Rebound hypertnesion
Cyanide toxicity

81
Q

Aneurysms that can cause bitemporal hemianopsia, homonomous hemianopsia and quadrantanopsia?

A

Opthalmic segment of carotid artery
Anterior communicating Artery
Caverous sinus

82
Q

Aneurysm that can cause Horners

A

Cavernous segment of carotid artery (compresses postganglionic symathetic pathway)

83
Q

Aneurysm that can cause exopthalmus

A

Carotid cavernous fistula with rupture into cavernous sinus

84
Q

Posterior Circulation aneurysms can cause what?

A

Weber syndrome
Brainstem compression syndromes
CN III, and CN VI
Lower cranial nerve palsy

85
Q

What symptoms can anterior communicating aneurysms cause?

A

Dementia
Abulia
Pituitary dysfunction

86
Q

Theories of neurogenic pulmonary edema

A

Blast theory: sympathetic surge
Permeability theory: damage to capillary endothelium that contains alpha and beta receptors and edema

87
Q

SAH blood in 3rd ventricle, suprasellar cistern and AComm aneurysms are associated with what electrolyte abnormality?

A

Hyponatremia (SIADH and CSW)

88
Q

Fludrocortisone and hyponatremia

A

Refractory SIADH and CSW

89
Q

Preferred drug to increase BP in cerebral vasospasm?

A

Phenylephrine
Caution in CAD, glaucoma and thyroid disease
SE: reflex bradycardia

90
Q

Mechanism of mannitol’s effect on ICP

A

Rheologic: alters RBC shape

91
Q

Indications for OR for EDH

A

> 30 cm3
Thickness >15 mm
Shift >5 mm
Pupillary anisocoria

92
Q

Denver criteria

A
93
Q

Seizure diagnosis

A

Lasts 5 min or more
2 or more with incomplete LOC recovery between

94
Q

Calculation for phenytoin dose and valproic acid

A

(Target level - current corrected total level) x (dose weight x 0.8)
Valproic acid uses 0.4

95
Q

3.0 to 3.5 Hz irregular generalized spike and wave or polyspike and wave diagnosis, precipitating drugs and what medication to avoid?

A

Absence seizures
Precipitating drugs: phenytoin, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine and tiagabine
Avoid phenytoin in kids

96
Q

Mixed 4 to 7 Hz theta with 12-16 Hz spindle activity diagnosis and hallmarks? Differentiation between two? When else can it be seen? What does it indicate?

A

Spindles
Spindle coma (high mesencephalic/midbrain lesions) versus stage II sleep - can arouse from sleep, not spindle coma
Can also see in post traumatic or post encephalitic encephalopathies
Harbinger of favorable prognosis for some meaningful recovery

97
Q

Monotonous diffuse alpha activity diagnosis and assocation? Location of lesions or etiologies?

A

Alpha coma
Poor prognosis
Brainstem lesion or just caudal to pontomesencephalic junction
Toxic or metabolic abnormalities including barbiturate OD and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar coma

98
Q

Virus linked to AIDP

A

POW - tick-born, northeast part of US, Canada and Russia, causes devastating encephalitis or meningoencephalitis
ZIKV
Denguae fever
West Nile VIrus

99
Q

Antibiotic choice for bacterial meningitis stratified by age

A

1-23 months: vanc + 3rd cephalosporin for S Pneumo, N meningitidies, S agalactiae, HJ flu and E coli
2-50 years: vanc + 3rd cephalosporin: N meningitities. S Pneumo
> 50 years: vanc, ampicillin and 3rd cephalosporin: S Penumo, N meningities, L monocytogenes, aerobic gram-negative bacilli

100
Q

Tx VZV CNS infections?

A

Acyclovir for min 14 days

101
Q

What should be given in wide complex tachyarrythmias of TCA overdose?

A

Sodium Bicarbonate
Also give if wide QRS or prolonged QTc

102
Q

Does serotonin syndrome have miosis or dilated pupils?

A

Dilated and reactive (mydriasis)

103
Q

Does MDMA or PCP overdose have ataxia, nystagmus and cholinergic symtpoms?

A

PCP overdose

104
Q

Organophosphate excess causes what?

A

Cholinergic crisis via inhibiting acetyl-cholinesterase inhibition

105
Q

Treatment for organophosphate toxicity?

A

Pralidoxime

106
Q

What is physostigmine used for?

A

Anticholinesterase inhibitor - treat OD of anticholinergic agents

107
Q

Eptifibatide mechanism and reversal and clearance?

A

GPIIb/IIIa inhibitor
T1/2 20-40 mins, hold and will reverse 2/2 short half life
Renal clearance

108
Q

Mechanism of negative pressure pulmonary edema? Hallmark symptom?

A

Negative intrathoracic pressure against closed glottis or upper airway obstruction
Pulmonary capillary beds trigger hypoxemia, catecholamine release, systemic and pulmonary hypertension
Pink frothy sputum

109
Q

Management of post traumatic vasospams

A

Neuro IR for intra-arterial vasodilator
Nimodipine DOES NOT demonstrate benefit in SAH in TBI

110
Q

Treatment of ring enhancing lesions in HIV+ patient

A

Toxoplasmosis
Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

111
Q

What can HSV encephalitis trigger?

A

Anti-NMDA receptor autoimmune encephalitis with seroconversion of Anti-NMDA antibodies

112
Q

Ketogenic diet used to treat new-onset super refractory status epilepticus mechanism and contraindications?

A

Decanoic acid inhibits excitatory AMPA receptors, anti-inflammatory action and improvement of mitochondrial function leads to antiseizure properties
Contraindicated in patients on Propofol within last 24 hours (can lead to Propofol infusion syndrome), metabolic derangements, fatty acid oxidation disorders, hemodynamic instability, liver failure, pregnancy and poor enteral absorption
Side effects: metabolic acidosis, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, hyponatremia, constipation

113
Q

Lurasidone effect on QTc

A

Minimal effect (relative to other antipsychotics)

114
Q

Treatment of health-care associated meningitis and ventriculitis?

A

Vancomycin + antipseudomonal beta-lactam agent (cefepime, ceftazidime, merrem)
Anaphylaxis to beta-lactam: aztreonam or cipro

115
Q

Encephalopathy, gait ataxia and oculomotor palsy diagnosis?

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

116
Q

Acute ischemic stroke in sickle cell disease treatment?

A

Exchange transfusion
If unable, transfuse to hb 10

117
Q

Headaches and nuchal rigidity with CSF with lymphocyte pleocytosis who develops flaccid paralysis 2 weeks into hospitalization

A

West Nile Virus Induced Motor Neuro Disease

118
Q

Renal failure in patients with transplant on prograf who take CCB, calcineurin inhibitors, antibiotics or grapefruit juice?

A

BK nephropathy - Diagnosis with biopsy
Can also cause PRES, polyomavirus (JC and BK virus)

119
Q

Unilateral Subfalcine herniation causes compression of what artery and what symptom?

A

Ipsilateral ACA -> contralateral leg weakness

120
Q

Temporal herniation causes what?

A

Ipsilateral pupikary constriction then dilatation

121
Q

Descending transtentorial herniation leads to what?

A

Decerebrate and decorticate posturing

122
Q

Preserved nerve conduction distal to injury with no evidence of fibrillation potential indicates what kind of nerve injury?

A

Neurapraxia

123
Q

Treatment of listeria meningitis

A

Amoxicillin and gentamycin

124
Q

Kernohan notch phenomenon

A

Herniated uncus compressed contralateral corticospinal tract against tentorium -> ipsilateral anisocoria from uncal herniation and hemiparesis from Kernohan notch phenomenon

125
Q

Tonsillar herniation leads to what?

A

Respiratory paralysis

126
Q

CT or MRI for acute vestibular disorder or acute cerebellar ischemic event?

A

MRI

127
Q

Treatment of severe/thunderclap headache after smoking marijuana with negative imaging?

A

Verapamil/CCB for reversible vasoconstriction syndrome

128
Q

Do triphasic morphology on EEG influence risk of seizure?

A

No

129
Q

EEG features with neuroprognostication implications?

A

Epileptiform activity - presence of absence
Abnormal variability
Abnormal reactivity
Burst suppression

130
Q

Neurologic decline once HD started?

A

Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome

131
Q

Presence of midline/vertex predominant epileptiform discharges correlating with myoclonus in a reactive continuous background is associated with what?

A

Favorable prognosis

132
Q

Opthalmoplegia, ataxia and hyporeflexia with DESCENDING paralysis

A

Miller Fischer Syndrome (variant of GBS)

133
Q

Drugs that can worsen weakness in MG

A

Aminoglycosides
Telithromycin
Fluoroquinolones
Ciprofloxacin

134
Q

MS meds for relapsing and remitting disease

A

Fingolimod
Terifluonimide
Dimethyl fumarate

135
Q

NMO

A

Optic neuritis and acute transverse myelitis
Periventricular medulla - area postrema and medial lateral portion of nucleus tractus soltarius
NMO IgG (IgG aquaporin 4) antibody
Normal MRI or nonspecific white matter lesions
Tx: IV corticosteroids, oral azathioprine and chimeric anti-CD20 monoclonal protein rituxumab

136
Q

Brain stem and diencephalon
Vasculitis
HLA-B5 and HLA-B1

A

Bahcet’s disease

137
Q

HLAs and diseases

A

HLA-B5 and HLA-B1 = Bahcet’s
HLA-DR15 = MS
HLA-DQB1-0602 = Narcolepsy
C-ANCA = Wegener’s granulomatosis
HLA-B27 = ankylosing spondylitis

138
Q

Antibiotics associated with aseptic meningitis

A

Penicillin
Cephalosporins

139
Q

Meds associated with benign intracranial hypertension

A

Amphotericin B
Nalidixic acid

140
Q

Antibiotic that can cause cochlear and vestibular damage

A

Vancomycin

140
Q

Medications associated with cerebellar ataxia andoptic neuritis

A

Ethambutol

141
Q

Treatment of PML from natalizumab?

A

Plasma exchange (removes the natalizumab from system)

142
Q

PML vs MS MRI lesions

A

PML: confluent demyelination at juxtacortical white matter or near deep gray matter
MS: periventricular white matter

143
Q

Marburg’s variant

A

Rapidly progressing demyelination
Multifocal lesions in cerebral hemispheres, brainstem and optic nerves
Pseudotumor variant possible
Path: extensive necrosis, massive macrophage infiltration, severe and extensive demyelination
CSF: mononuclear pleocytosis
Tumefactive MS vs Marburgs (Marburgs has homogenous contrast uptake)

144
Q

Infusion reaction from rituximab initial first infusion management?

A

CK release
Wait 30-60 minutes, give corticosteroids and restart infusion at 1/2 rate and titrate to tolerance

145
Q
A
146
Q

Patchy sensory involvement, mild to moderate weakness of asymmetric distribution, occasional bladder dysfunction, can convert to MS diagnosis

A

Acute Partial Transverse Myelitis

147
Q

6 weeks after viral illness or immunization, rapid multifocal or focal neurologic symptoms (motor then sensory deficits, brainstem signs and cerebellar signs), encephalopathy, MRI: large and confluent white matter edematous lesions: multiple, bilateral but asymmetric and enhance simultaneously or nearly simultaneously with gadolinium diagnosis?

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
Most common after measles

148
Q

Recurrent steroid-dependent optic neuritis, elevated ACE in CSF and serum

A

Neurosarcoidosis
Tx: steroids
If relapsing vision loss occurs after short course of corticosteroids for presumed optic neuritis think neurosarcoidosis

149
Q

Malar rash, photosensitivity, arthritis, sclerosis, mucosal ulcers, acute confusion, psychosis and dementia with stroke, cerebral venous thrombosis, ataxia and movement disorders diagnosis?

A

SLE

150
Q

MRI with symmetric areas of abnormal high signal intensity in pons on T2-weighted images

A

Central Pontine Myelinosis

151
Q

Drugs that can induce aseptic meningitis (CSF: pleocytosis, PN predominance, increased protein)

A

NSAIDs
Amoxicillin
Cephalosporins
INH
IvIg
Monoclonal antibiotics
Vaccines

152
Q

Lithium side effects

A

Hypothyroidism

153
Q

How does etomidate cause adrenal suppression?

A

Inhibition of 11 beta-hydroxylase (converts 11 beta-deoxycortisol into cortisol)

154
Q

MRI with increased signal intensity on T2 without evidence of restricted diffusion or contrast enhancement diagnosis

A

Low-grade glioma

155
Q

Treatment for glioblastoma multiforme

A

Resection
Concurrent chemotherapy (temozolomide)
Radiation
Additional adjuvant chemotherapy
Bevacizumab slows progression of recurrence

156
Q

Treatment for metastatic epidural spinal cord compression (MESCC)

A

Corticosteroids
Surgery
Radiation therapy

157
Q

Most common symptom of carcinomatous meningitis?

A

Diplopia

158
Q

CSF of carcinomatous meningitis?

A

Increased opening pressure (>200 mmHg)
Increased leukocytes (>4)
Increased protein (>50)
Decreased glucose (<60)

159
Q

Opsoclonus-myoclonus triggers, anatomy and associated cancers

A

Infections, toxic-metabolic, paraneoplastic
Disinhibition of the fastigial nucleus of cerebellum
SCLC, breast and ovary

160
Q

Paraneoplastic cerebellar dysfunction path, location of lesions and preceding symptoms?

A

Extensive loss of Purkinje cells
Potentially associated with inflammatory infiltrates in cerebellar cortex, deep cerebellar nuclei and inferior olivary nuclei
Can be preceded by viral prodrome

161
Q

Limbic encephalitis

A

Mood and sleep disturbances, seizures, hallucinations, short term memory loss
Can progress to dementia
EEG: foci of activity in one or both temporal lobes or focal or generalized slow activity
FLAIR or T2 with hyperintense signals in medial portion of one or both temporal lobes
SCLC, testicular germ-cell neoplasms, thymoma, Hodgkin’s Lymphoma or teratoma

162
Q

What disease affects muscles of trunk, shoulder girdle, pelvic girdle and lower extremities?

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

163
Q
A