Neurogenetics Flashcards

1
Q

describe the DNA structure function.

A
  • double helix structure made from two chains of phosphate and deoxyribose.
  • four nucleotide bases - adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine
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2
Q

what is natural variations in human genetics known as?

A

single nucleotide polymorphisms.

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3
Q

what is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?

A

mitosis involves somatic cells where daughter cells are identical to parent, whereas meiosis involves gametes where daughter cells contain half the number of chromosomes.

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4
Q

defne genes.

A

long sequences of base pairs in the DNA that encode proteins.

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5
Q

what are genes turned on by?

A

transcription factors, which are activated during development or intra signalling cascades.

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6
Q

define transcription.

A

in the nucleus, the genes DNA sequence is copied into messenger RNA (mRNA).

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7
Q

mRNA is translated to form proteins, define translation.

A

a ribosome attaches to the mRNA and moves along the mRNA, reading each triplet codon and using transfer RNAs to put together the amino acid chain to make a protein.

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8
Q

describe mendel’s law.

A

peas:

  • inherited properties in pea plants - tall V short
  • height - dichotomous trait (tall or short)
  • trait is controlled by a single gene
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9
Q

in mendel’s law, when cross fertilised, F1 offspring are (tall/short).

A

tall

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10
Q

in mendel’s law the short character reappears in the in F2, what is the ratio to tall and short.

A

3 tall : 1 short (one quarter are short in offspring)

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11
Q

which out of tall and short is dominant?

A

tall is dominant, short is recessive.

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12
Q

homozygous means…

A

identical genes

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13
Q

heterozygous means…

A

non-idneitical genes

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14
Q

what is the difference between genotype and phenotype?

A

genotype refers to genetic information, whereas phenotype refers to how it is displayed.

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15
Q

define alleles.

A

variants of a gene.

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16
Q

what do single gene disorders involve?

A
  • dominant

- recessive

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17
Q

what do gene variations and mutations affect?

A

function (coding sequence) and expression (regulatory sequences).

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18
Q

describe Huntington’s disease.

A
  • dominant inheritance.
  • onset age: 35-55 years.
  • degeneration of movement, temperament and cognition.
  • if one parent has Huntington’s, 50% the offspring will.
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19
Q

what chromosome does Huntington’s effect?

A

chromosome 4, due to excessive repeat of CAG bases.

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20
Q

how is phenylketonuria caused?

A
  • recessive inheritance

- mutation is PAH gene (phenylalanine hydroxlase)

21
Q

if both parents are carriers of PKU, what is the effect on their offspring?

A

25% will have the disease, 50% will be carriers.

22
Q

what are the effects of PKU?

A
  • learning disabilities
  • behavioural difficulties
  • epilepsy
23
Q

give evidence of interplay between genes and environment in PKU.

A

genotype will show mutation, but dietary intervention can mean pheotypes appears normal.

24
Q

describe the difference between monosomy and trisomy.

A

monosomy has a single copy of chromosomes and spontaneous abortion in early pregnancy, whereas trisomy has three copies of a chromosome and a high rate of spontaneous abortion.

25
Q

name and describe a disorder caused by chromosomal abnormalities.

A

downs syndrome:

  • trisomy in chromosome 21, overexpression?
  • smaller brain size frontal lobes and cerebellum.
  • mild-moderate intellectual ability.
  • high risk of early onset alzhemiers.
26
Q

what causes X-linked conditions?

A

wrong number of chromosomes.

27
Q

xx are male or female?

A

female, XY are males.

28
Q

describe X-inactivation in females.

A
  • switches off one copy of X chromosome during embryogenesis.
  • adult female is a mosaic of clones derived from different embryonic cells, within a clone all cells inactivate the same X, but between clones the choice is random.
29
Q

define Rett syndrome.

A
  • progressive neurodevelopmental disorder almost exclusively affecting females, leading to mental impairment.
  • mutation in gene MeCP2, this transcriptional repressor turns off the expression of unwanted genes during synapse formation.
30
Q

describe fragile X syndrome.

A
  • commonly inherited form of mental retardation
  • predominantly males
  • mutation in one end of FMR1 gene, consisting of an amplification of CGG repeat (200+ copies)
  • FMR1 gene encodes the FMR protein.
31
Q

define epigenetic and state epigenetic mechanisms.

A
  • inherited change in phenotype
  • not due to changes in genotype
  • mechanisms: dev, env chemicals, drugs, ageing, diet.
32
Q

define genomic imprinting.

A

dev form of epigenetic - gene expression is influenced by other factors.

  • some genes are methylated depending on whether they inherited maternally or prenatally.
  • imprinting modification is reversible in next generation.
33
Q

blue genes mean…, red genes mean…

A

blue - maternally imprinted (paternal genes active)

red - paternal imprinted (maternal genes active)

34
Q

define chromosomal deletion.

A
  • during meiosis a spontaneous deletion of a part of a chromosome may occur
  • if deletion of a paternal chromo only maternal genes present, normal expression of red genes, no expression of blue genes.
  • if deletion on maternal chromo only paternal genes present, normal expression of blue genes, no expression of red genes.
35
Q

deletion on paternal chromosome can cause (prada- willi syndrome/ angelman syndrome)?

A

prada-willi syndrome - intellectual disability, decreased muscle tone, insatiable appetite.

36
Q

define angelman syndorme.

A
  • caused by depletion on maternal syndrome, delayed development, language impairment, sociable behaviour.
37
Q

give evidence that epigenetic modification can be affected by the environment.

A

maternal care (pup licking) switches on serotonin, action through 5-HT receptor to activate transcription factor NGFIA, which switches on gene (Nr3CI) expressed glucocorticoid receptor (GR).

38
Q

what are the outcomes of poor maternal care?

A
  • promoter methylated
  • low levels of GR
  • high anxiety
  • high corticosterone levels
  • methylation retained through lifetime, without GR loss of feedback in HPA axis (increased stress hormones and anxiety/depression).
39
Q

define transgenerational epigenetics.

A
  • environmental influences on parents can effect offspring
  • disputed histones in sperm cells - showed altered RNA profile in offspring, histones can be modified by chemicals (e.g smoking and drinking).
40
Q

what do GWAS study?

A

look for what SNPs sort with disease state.

41
Q

how is Alzheimers caused?

A
  • mutation in certain genes
  • amyloid precursor protein (chromo 12)
  • risk identified in gene association or GWAS of late onset AD.
  • one SNP difference between APOSES and APOE4.
42
Q

through conducting twin studies, which disorders and purely genetic and which are polygenic and env?

A

Huntingtons is purely genetic, schizophrenia and bipolar are polygenetic and effected by the env.

43
Q

what are the genes found to be involved in schizophrenia associated with?

A

synaptic transmission , glutamate and dopamine.

44
Q

name factors that make studying genes difficult.

A
  • defining genetic and non-genetic factors
  • understanding interactions among factors
  • allowing for individual differences
  • limited experimental control and ethical issues in human studies
45
Q

why are animal studies useful?

A
  • similarity of genes and biological factors with humans
  • create inbreed stains of animals that are genetically identical
  • control env conditions
  • manipulate genes
46
Q

which animal is the best to study on?

A

mice - 20 pairs of chromosomes, 99% of mouse genes have homologues in man, suffer from diseases similar to humans, targeted mutagenesis.

47
Q

state genetic studies using rodents.

A
  • inbreed strains
  • BXD recombinant breeding
  • genetically engineered mouse models (knockout, knock-in, transgenic mice).
48
Q

what gene has been found through mice studies to be associated with rest syndrome?

A

inactive MeCP2 mutation