Neurodiagnostic Eval Flashcards

1
Q

Uses highly collimated x-ray beams that are rotated over many diff angles to obtain a differential absorption pattern across various rays through a slice of the body

A

Computed Tomography

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2
Q

levels of density in the image in a CT scan is measured in

A

Hounsfield units

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3
Q

most hyperdense tissue according to hounsfield units

A

bone c 400+ HU

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4
Q

type of CT most useful for identifying acute hemorrhage

A

Non-contrast CT

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5
Q

non contrast CT is invaluable in

A

assessment of acute neurotrauma

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6
Q

NCCT is used for Mx of acute stroke by

A
  • determining cause of signs & Sx
  • r/o stroke mimics
  • select pts to be started on RTPA
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7
Q

The sign when there is hyperattenuating vessel filled with acute thrombus

A

dense MCA & dot sign

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8
Q

CT findings in a pt c stroke

A
  • dense MCA sign & dot sign
  • loss of gray-white matter differentiation
  • loss of insular cortex (insular ribbon sign)
  • decreased density of the basal ganglia (disappearing basal ganglia sign)
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9
Q

this enhances differences in tissue density, demonstrate vasculature and vascular pathology and detect areas of BBB breakdown

A

contrast enhanced CT

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10
Q

what imaging method to use on pts who had a recent head trauma

A

CT scan

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11
Q

a pt who is medically unstable is supposed to be checked for any brain affectation, what would be the best imaging to use?

A

CT scan

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12
Q

In CECT, allergic reactions are

A

normal

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13
Q

possible condition that may develop in pts c renal dysfunction that underwent CECT

A

contrast induced nephropathy

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14
Q

Limitations of CT scan

A
  • imaging of posterior fossa - linear artifacts
  • ionizing radiation - pregnant
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15
Q

common indications for CT

A
  • acute/chronic Functional Neurologic Disorders
  • head/facial trauma
  • headache (abrupt/worsening, SAH traumatic/nontraumatic)
  • change in mental status
  • new-onset seizure
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16
Q

this allows quantitative measures of cerebral BV, cerebral mean transit time, time to peak, and cerebral blood flow

A

CT perfusion

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17
Q

limitation of CT angiography

A

time-consuming process requiring to edit and generate renderings

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18
Q

repeating scan during a bolus of IV contrast produces dynamic set of images that are real time 4D images of blood flow through the intracranial vessels

A

CT angiography

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19
Q

produces functional images of the brain parenchymal blood floow

A

CT perfusion

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20
Q

uses hydrogen nuclei that consist of a single proton that is constantly spinning

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

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21
Q

this has the ability to distinguish different STs and identify pathologic abnormalities

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

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22
Q

contrast agent in MRI scans

A

gadolinium chelates

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23
Q

gadolinium chelates causes what?

A

deposition in tissues resulting in fibrosis in pts c renal dysfunction (nephrogenic systemic fibrosis)

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24
Q

MRI sequence used to display brain and spinal cord anatomy & evaluate subacute hemorrhage, lipids, paramagnetic metals, or proteinaceous composition of lesions

A

T1-Weighted MRI

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25
Q

MRI sequence used to display brain and spinal cord pathology as evidenced by inc tissue water content

A

T2-weighted MRI

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26
Q

in T2W, white matter is ____, gray matter is ____, and CSF is ____

A

dark; bright; bright

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27
Q

used in highlighting subtle brain pathology; specifically useful for white matter diseases and lesions near CSF compartments

A

fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR)

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28
Q

demonstrates non-enhancing tumor components, as well as associated mass effect and edema

A

fluid attenuated inversion recovery

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29
Q

MRI sequence used to eliminate signal from fat and is useful in diagnosing lipoma and dermoid cyst

A

short tau inversion recovery (STIR)

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30
Q

useful in detecting early ischemic brain injury

A

Diffusion Weighted Imaging (DWI)

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31
Q

this characterizes tissue components such as calcification or iron content; sensitivity to small amounts of blood & blood breakdown products

A

gradient recalled echo (GRE)

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32
Q

this signifies breakdown of BBB and characterize lesions from brain tumors, metastases to infectious and inflammatory

A

gadolinium contrast enhancement

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33
Q

contraindications for gadolinium contrast enhancement

A
  • severe allergy
  • renal failure; NSF
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34
Q

MRI sequence used to identify/diagnose stenosis, thrombosis, dissections, aneurysms

A

Magnetic Resonance Angiography

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35
Q

CE MRA is used to:

A

evaluate neck vasculature

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36
Q

used to evaluate for patency of dural venous sinuses in venous sinus stenosis/thrombosis

A

magnetic resonance venography

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37
Q

this uses MRI for localization of cerebral activation and is used to obtain functional info by visualizing cortical activity

A

functional MRI

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38
Q

detects subtle changes in Blood Flow/Oxygenation in response to stimuli/actions

A

Functional MRI

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39
Q

MRI technique that measures water molecule diffusion and its direction

A

diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

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40
Q

clinical application for DTI

A
  • assess white matter tract integrity
  • presurgical and pretherapeutic planning
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41
Q

used as a problem solving technique in attempt to differentiate lesions

A

MR spectroscopy

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42
Q

N-acetylaspartate signifies what:

A

normal neuronal tissue/integrity

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43
Q

what is the marker of astrocytes/astrogliosis seen in MS when undergoing MRS

A

inositol/myoinositol

44
Q

this MRI technique is done by quantifying blood flow through biologic tissues

A

MR perfusion imaging

45
Q

clinical applications of MR perfusion imaging

A
  • cerebrovascular diseases (e.g. stroke or vasospasm)
  • brain tumors and metastases
46
Q

diagnostic imaging that does not use radiation

47
Q

molecular imaging used to better understand the biochemical process that underline diseases

A

positron emission tomography (PET) and single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

48
Q

imaging done in real-time, is noninvasive, comprehensive, affordable, repeatable, harmless, and portable

A

neurovascular ultrasound

49
Q

US used to screen extracranial carotid and vertebral arteries for atherosclerosis

A

extracranial ultrasound (duplex ultrasound/color doppler)

50
Q

in extracranial US, what does plaque surface irregularity imply

A

there is an increased risk of stroke

51
Q

in extracranial US, what does echoluscent carotid plaque signify

A

increased risk of stroke/MI

52
Q

give 2 indications for extracranial ultrasound examination

A

Evaluation of:
- cerebral ischemia, stroke, or TIA
- pts c cervical bruit
- pulsatile mass in the neck
- blunt neck trauma
- post-op carotid endarterectomy/carotid stenting
- suspected carotid/VA dissection
- pre-operative eval of pts undergoing major cardiovascular or other major surgical procedures
- drop attacks or syncope
- vasculitis of extracranial arteries

53
Q

non-invasive US technology that monitors blood flow velocity and direction in large intracranial arteries

A

intracranial ultrasound

54
Q

high resolution images of extracranial and intracranial vasculature and is the gold standard for viewing cerebral blood vessels

A

cerebral angiography

55
Q

advantages of cerebral angiography

A
  • improved temporal resolution
  • functions as both diagnostic and therapeutic
56
Q

conditions diagnosed/treated by cerebral angiography

A
  • occluded/stenotic vessels
  • arterial dissection
  • aneurysms
  • ateriovenous malformation and other vascular malformations
  • vasculitic narrowing
  • dural venous sinus thrombosis
57
Q

possible complications of cerebral angiography

A
  • artery puncture
  • dislodged plaque (cerebral or systemic ischemic lesions)
  • dissection
  • thombus formation over catheter tip
  • vasospasm
  • disruption of BBB
58
Q

these measure spontaneous electrical activity generated by neural structures

A

electroencephalography and evoked potentials

59
Q

this reflects electrical currents flowing in the extracellular spaces of the brain and are summated effects of innumerable excitatory and inhibitory potentials of the cortical neurons

A

electroencephalography

60
Q

what are the 4 stages of sleep

A

N1 - low voltage slower activity, presence of vertex sharp waves

N2 - sleep spindles, K complexes, positive occipital sharp transients of sleep (POSTS)

N3 - slow waves of sleep

REM - resemble EEG of drowsiness c REM and general atonia

61
Q

clinical applications of EEG

A
  • epilepsy
  • focal brain lesion/dysfunction
  • diffuse brain dysfunction or injury
  • intraoperative neuromonitoring
62
Q

these are generated by the nervous system in response to stimuli

A

evoked potentials

63
Q

composed of stereotyped sequence of waveforms that are labelled by their polarity and their peak latency from the time of stimulation

A

evoked potentials

64
Q

absence of waveforms in evoked potentials is caused by

A

complete interruption of conduction/destruction of the neural generators

65
Q

evoked potential elicited by light electrical stimulation of peripheral nerves

A

somatosensory evoked potentials

66
Q

EP obtained by stimulation c an alternating checkerboard pattern of black and white squares

67
Q

VEPs are used in pts c

A
  • acute optic neuritis
  • demyelinating diseases
  • ischemic optic neuropathy
  • optic nerve compression
  • retinal diseases
68
Q

This EP consists of 7 waveforms and is done by delivering auditory stimulus to one ear, and is recorded through scalp electrodes and superimposed on each other

A

Brainstem Auditory Evoked Potentials (BAER)

69
Q

This tests the integrity of motor pathways

A

Motor Evoked Potentials

70
Q

this is the transcutaneous stimulation of motor/sensory nerves and recording of an elicited response in terms of CMAP/SNAP

A

nerve conduction studies

71
Q

what does NCS measure

A

speed and strength of an electrical impulse conducted along a peripheral nerve

72
Q

what produces SNAP waveforms

A

large type Ia axons

73
Q

where are the electrodes placed in assessing motor nerves

A

motor enplate region

74
Q

what does recording electrodes capture

A

electrical potential generated by depolarization of the muscle (CMAP)

75
Q

this is the latency and distance between the stimulus and recording electrode

A

conduction velocity

76
Q

time difference between the stimulus and waveform onset

77
Q

summated number of responsive axons

78
Q

latency and conduction velocity are dependent on

A

intact myelinated nerves

79
Q

amplitude depends on

A

number of functioning axons within the nervr

80
Q

what does slowed conduction velocity and prolonged latency imply

A

there is demyelination

81
Q

what does decreased CMAP/CNAP amplitude imply

A

there is axonal loss

82
Q

the cumulative time for impulses to reach SC via sensory fibers, synapse c the anterior horn cells, and to be transmitted through motor fibers to stimulate

83
Q

the supramaximal stimulus of a mixed nerve/pure motor nerve and is the result of impulses that travel antidromically in the motor nerves to the AHC

A

F response

84
Q

how is needle electromyography activated

A

voluntary contraction at different levels of effort

85
Q

brief burst of electrical activity provoked by EMG needle as it moves through the muscle

A

insertional activity

86
Q

hallmark of denervation

A

fibrillations, sharp waves

87
Q

t/f: normal resting muscle is electrically silent

88
Q

how to determine chronic neurogenic injury using needle EMG

A

reinnervation high amplitude, long duration, and polyphasic MUPs

89
Q

characteristics of myopathies under needle EMG

A

reduced MUPs, short duration, low amplitude and polyphasic; high pitched cracking sound like rainfall on a tin roof

90
Q

characteristics of denervation under needle EMG

A

reduced number but normal MUPs

91
Q

trains of 4-10 waveforms are evaluated for decrease in area and amplitude

A

repetitive nerve stimulation (RNS)

92
Q

in EMG, this is the interval between stimulus and response, varies with each stimulus

93
Q

in neuromuscular junction dysfunction, what is the seen jitter

A

increase in jitter

94
Q

EMG wherein a single muscle fiber AP is measured

A

single fiber EMG (SFEMG)

95
Q

this uses light scattering to produce cross sectional images of the retina, allowing evaluation of the different layers

A

optical coherence tomography

96
Q

normal measurement in audiograms

A

better than 8dB

97
Q

what is electronystagmography/videonystagmography used for?

A

balance testing

98
Q

give an indication for lumbar puncture

A
  • obtain pressure measurements and procure CSF sample
  • instillation of anesthetics, antibiotics, antitumor agents
  • drainage to reduce CSF pressure
  • injection of radio-opaque substances in myelography
99
Q

level for lumbar puncture

A

L3-L4 interspace

100
Q

most common complication of LP

101
Q

why is headache the most common complication of lumbar puncture

A

upright position d/t reduction of CSF pressure from leakage of fluid at the puncture site and tugging on cerebral vessels

102
Q

t/f: viral infections of the meninges and brain do not lower csf glucose

103
Q

what is checked in CSF analysis

A
  • gross appearance
  • CSF cells
  • CSF protein and glucose
  • CSF microscopy
  • CSF serology
  • CSF cytology and flow cytometry
  • CSF oglioclonal bands/content of gamma globulin
104
Q

clinical applications of nerve biopsy

A
  • vasculitis
  • sarcoid neuropathy
  • amyloidosis
  • leprous neuropathy
  • other peripheral neuropathies
105
Q

most commonly used nerve in nerve biopsies

A

sural nerve