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Neurobiology Midterm Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

2 classes of neural cells

A

Excitable and non excitable

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2
Q

Glial cells are continually ___ by precursors throughout adulthood

A

Replaced

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3
Q

Roles of glial cells (5)

A
  • modulate synaptic functions
  • maintain chemical homeostasis
  • regulate blood flow in capillary beds
  • immune functions
  • scaffolding for neuronal migration
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4
Q

Myelinations role in conduction

A

increases conduction velocity

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5
Q

Non neuronal cells of vertebrate brains

A

Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, endothelial cells, microglial cells

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6
Q

Endothelial cells that line ventricles

A

Ependymal cells

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7
Q

Ependymal cells derived from ____ and produce ____

A

radial glia, cerebrospinal fluid

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8
Q

____ are a type of ependymal cell that line the _____

A

tanycytes, 3rd ventricle

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9
Q

radial glia can serve as ____ to generate neural progenitors during development

A

stem cells

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10
Q

In adults radial glia generate neurons in _____

A

sub-ventricular zones

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11
Q

Types of myelinating cells

A

Oligodendrocytes (CNS) , schwann cells (PNS)

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12
Q

Microglia are derived from ______ stem cells

A

hemopoetic

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13
Q

Actrocytes are an essential component of the _____ and help maintain _______

A

blood brain barrier, brain water homeostasis

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14
Q

Astrocytes have a role in sequestration/redistribution of ___

A

K+

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15
Q

Blood flow in the brain is locally regulated by

A

Neuronal Activity (more activity more blood flow)

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16
Q

Smooth muscles on _______ contract/relax based on signalling from ______

A

arterioles, astrocytes

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17
Q

Intrinsic imaging uses red and green reflectance. Green reflectance doesn’t change with ______ but does change with ______

A

Changes in oxygenation, chnages in total blood flow (more blood, more absorbance, less reflectance)

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18
Q

MRI based on _____, fMRI based on _____

A

water distribution, paramagnetic properties

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19
Q

Red reflectance in intrinsic imaging influenced by ratio of ______

A

oxy : deoxy Hb

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20
Q

Decreased reflectance can come from

A

shift from oxy to deoxy Hb

oxyHb = oxyhemoglobin (oxygen bound state of hemoglobin)

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21
Q

More reflectance as more

A

oxy Hb is introduced (not a good absorber)

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22
Q

Neurons are distinguishable by proteins they express. (heterogeneity at a cellular level) proteins mentioned in class:

A
  • NPY (neuropeptide Y)
  • Parvalbumin = Ca
    binding
    protein/buffer
  • nNOS (neuronal
    nitric oxide
    synthase ~enzyme)
  • Galanin (a
    neuropeptide)
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23
Q

Purkinje cells are _____ neurons found in the ______

A

inhibitory, cerebellum

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24
Q

Thalamic relay neuron firing: _____ when awake, _____ when asleep

A

tonic, burst

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25
Q

Externally recognizable parts of a neuron:

think basic anatomy of a neuron

A
  • soma (cell body)
  • dendrites (spiny or smooth)
  • axon and axon collaterals (branches
  • terminals (presynaptic release sites)
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26
Q

Why does soma have 1. lots of ER and 2. lots of mitochondria at synapse?

A
  1. protein synthesis
  2. signalling is electrically expensive
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27
Q

Number of inputs received by a neuron depend on

A

size/complexity of dendritic arbor

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28
Q

Dendrites contain actin filaments for

A

transport/motility functions (extend and retract spines)

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29
Q

Neurons are elctro-chemical units, meaning ions do not _____ along axon

A

Diffuse

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30
Q

Why are synaptic clefts so small?

A

NTs can only diffuse very short distances (~15nm)

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31
Q

In order for synapse to occur there must be

transmitters can be released, but synapse will not occur without

A

transmitter receptors on postsynaptic side

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32
Q

Directed synapses

characteristics

A
  • ionotropic
  • NT released directly into cleft onto receptors
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33
Q

Non-directed synapses

characteristics

A
  • hormonal, neuromodulatory
  • transmitter released onto receptors further away
  • metabotropic
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34
Q

______ built the first _______ microscope

A

Winfried Denk, 2-photon (taking small sections and putting them together with a computer)

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35
Q

Fluorescence

A

photons that sluff off of photonic light after it reaches an excited state

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36
Q

Parvalbumin acts as a __ buffer

A

Ca2+/calcium

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37
Q

Dendritic spines can _______ biochemical processes driven by _____

A

compartmentalize, calcium

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38
Q

NMDAR driven ____ signals increase in _____ when they reach the thin dendritic tip end

A

Calcium, amplitude

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39
Q

Convergence

A

Number of neuronal inputs converging on one neuron (receive)

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40
Q

Divergence

A

Number of neurons onto which one neuron synapses (give)

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41
Q

Serial Electron Mircoscopy

A
  • diamond knife
  • many slices with imaging of surface after each slice
  • winfried denk
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42
Q

Dendritic spine neck contains ____, narrow neck = _____

A

ER, high resistance

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43
Q

When a neuron synapses all along an axon it’s known as a(n)

A

En passant synapse

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44
Q

_____ are phagocytotic cells in brain, ______ cells act as scaffold for neurons to migrate along

A

microglia, radial glia

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45
Q

Concentration of nervous tissue at front of animal is called _____

A

cephalization

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46
Q

Archicortical brain tissue organization is retained in mammals in the _____. Evolving from rodent to primate ______ neocortex expanded more than primary sensory cortex

A

Hypothalamus, association

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47
Q

Voltage gated __ channels are formed from 4 subunits while single polypeptide folds on utself to form __ and ___ types of ion channels

A

K+, Na+, Ca2+

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48
Q

MS patients can have periods of remission because

A

myelination is ongoing and can build back up

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49
Q

Myelinating an axon increases conduction velocity by increasing __ and decreasing __

A

Rm, Tau

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50
Q

Why does burst stop in bursting neurons?

A

build up of Ca2+ inside the cell activates the collocalized KCa2+ channels to repolarize cell

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51
Q

How to determine time constant

A

find place on curve where the capacitor is charged to ~67% of it’s maximum value

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52
Q

In mouse retina ______ cells respond preferentially to objects passing __________

A

direction selective ganglion, across retina in one direction

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53
Q

Neuron doctrine

A

Nerve cells are discrete entities, they communicate by specialized contact sites and there is not continuity between the cells
*Ramon y Cajal, Golgi, Sherrington

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54
Q

Active zone

A

place where synaptic vesicles discharge NT into synaptic cleft,
lots of docked vesicles collocalized with Ca channels

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55
Q

Vesicle vs Secretory granules

A

Both are membrane bound areas, vesicles hold and release NT, granules are electron dense
Vesicles- small molecule
Granules - neuropeptides

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56
Q

Postsynaptic density (PSD)

A

A cytoskeletal junction in developing synapses that may serve to organize postsynaptic receptors and speed their response to neurotransmitter

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57
Q

Spinous vs Aspinous

A

Spinous = neurons that exhibit dendritic spines
Aspinous = smooth dendritic neurons
* pyramidal cells are always spiny

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58
Q

4 types of dendritic spines

A

mushroom, thin, stubby, and filopodia

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59
Q

Stellate cells

A

inhibitory neurons in cerebellum that project onto purkinje cells

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60
Q

Telencephalon

A

The part of the brain derived from the anterior part of the embryonic forebrain vesicle (cerebral hemispheres)
*most highly developed part of the forebrain

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61
Q

Diencephalon

A

Portion of the brain derived from the posterior part of the embryonic forebrain vesicle that lies just rostral to the midbrain (thalamus/hypothalamus)

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62
Q

Cephalization happened at the same time as ____

A

bilateral symmetry

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63
Q

Cnidarians have _____, which is a collection of ____ instead of a brain

A

the nerve net, ganglion

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64
Q

With segmentation came _______

A

segmental ganglia
* can be nociceptive or sex specific

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65
Q

Arthropods have ____ and _____of segments

A

fusion, specialization
*ie. circumesophageal ganglia (around esophagus)

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66
Q

Gastropods have _____ that can fire APs

A

large somata

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67
Q

In invertebrates, smaller neurons process ______ signals

A

olfactory/olfacto-spatial info

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68
Q

Squid vs Human eye

A

Squid: photoreceptors have axons, no complex local processing
Humans: no axons/APs from photoreceptors, complex processing at retina

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69
Q

What are central pattern generators?

A

neuronal circuits that when activated can produce rhythmic motor patterns such as walking, breathing, flying, and swimming in the absence of sensory or descending inputs

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70
Q

2 ways to set up central pattern generators

A
  1. half-centre oscillator (two cells connected by reciprocal inhibition)
  2. neurogenic (rhythm generator)
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71
Q

In central pattern generators all synapses are _____

A

inhibitory

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72
Q

Central pattern generator removal of inhibition leads to _____

A

firing (disinhibition)

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73
Q

Polymorphic Networks

A

anatomical circuits that can
dynamically re-wire to
have different functions – due to
modulators OR different
sensory input.

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74
Q

Mammalian locomotion is organized by _________ in the _________

A

central pattern generators, spinal cord

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75
Q

Limitations in invertebrate body plan arise from

A
  • limitations of respiratory/circulatory systems
    (ability to diffuse through thick tissues)
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76
Q

In evolutionary progression (birds and mammals) of chordate brains, _______ enlarged, and became a centre for _________, __________, ________

A

cerebellum, balance, equilibrium, coordination

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77
Q

________ became specialized as the optic lobes

A

midbrain

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78
Q

Anterior of the forebrain makes up the _______ while the posterior houses the _______ and _______

A

cerebrum, thalamus, hypothalamus

telencephalon= cerebrum
diencephalon = thalamus/hypothal

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79
Q

This area of the brain expanded disproportionately in chordate evolution

A

Forebrain

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80
Q

Electric fish have large _______ because it is essential in generating & interpreting _______

A

cerebellums, electrical fields

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81
Q

Hippocampus has a __ layered _________

A

3, archicortex

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82
Q

Mammalian evolution characterized by expansion of __ layered ______

A

6, neocortex

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83
Q

Thalamic (sensory) neurons project a lot into layers __ & __ of the neocortex

A

3 & 4

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84
Q

Interneurons mainly make _____ connections, most being _______

A

local, inhibitory

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85
Q

________ is an excitatory type of interneuron, _______, ________ are inhibitory subtypes

A

spiny stellate, basket, chandelier

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85
Q

in chordate evolution a increased proportion of __________ and a decreased proportion of _________ is seen

A

forebrain, midbrain

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85
Q

Most dense part of the brain

A

Granule layer of cerebellum

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85
Q

6 layer cortex is evolutionary addition to preexisting _______

A

allocortex

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85
Q

Purpose of Gyrification

A

to increase surface area of brain within the skull

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86
Q

Subthreshold current injected into one part of the axon spreads _______ until the current is dissipated by ________

A

passively, leakage

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87
Q

Length constant is

A

measure of steady-state voltage decay with distance in a neuron, decay to ~37% of max voltage (leakier axon = shorter length constant)

88
Q

Length constant is improved by increasing ___, and decreasing __ & __

A

Rm, Ri, Ro

89
Q

Time constant is defined as

A

the time when the voltage response (Vt) rises to 63% of the voltage max (Vinf)

90
Q

The time constant characterizes how rapidly _________ changes the ________

A

current flow, membrane potential

90
Q

Time constant depends on physical properties ____ & ____

A

membrane resistance (Rm) and capacitance (Cm)

91
Q

Larger cells have lower _______ and larger _______

A

resistances, capacities

92
Q

Small cell = ______ time constants (and vice versa)

A

large

smaller neurons have higher membrane resistance (less leak)
tau = Rm*Cm

93
Q

A receptor potential large enough to drive an ______ is considered a __________

A

action potential, generator potential

94
Q

passive = voltage change ________ current
active = voltage change __________ current

A

directly proportional to, determined by but not proportional to

95
Q

Receptor potential: (active or passive)
Synaptic potential:
Action potential:

A

passive, passive, active

96
Q

Membrane potential is produced by movement of K+ from ______ to _______ of neuron via _______ channels. This generates a _______ charge inside relative to outside.

A

inside, outside, leak, negative

97
Q

How are changes in membrane potential produced?

A

Changing of selective permeability

98
Q

While squid and mammals have very different ion concentrations inside and outside the cells, what is similar about the ion balance?

A

the ratios of inside to outside are very similar

99
Q

Ion channels allow ions to diffuse _________ ________ gradient

A

down the electrochemical
* and are selectively permeable

100
Q

Permeability is required to

why are permeability changes useful

A

“harvest” voltage from a concentration gradient

101
Q

To balance ionic pressure ________ do not diffuse membrane

A

non-ionic compounds

102
Q

Resting ______ potential of giant squid axon is primarily determined by ___________

A

membrane, K+ concentration gradient

103
Q

________ is more effective than ________ at changing voltage because K+ has greater resting permeability than Na+

A

potassium, sodium

104
Q

membrane potential can change from resting when: (3 points)

A
  1. membrane permeability changes (quick)
  2. activity of an electrogenic pump changes
  3. concentration of an ion the mem is permeable to changes (much slower change)
105
Q

An electrogenic pump is

A

an ion pump that generates a net flow of charge

example: Na/K pump brings in 2 K for every 3 Na out, creates (-) charge

106
Q

The key to electrical signalling by rapid voltage changes:

A

controlled opening/closing of ION CHANNELS

107
Q

If conductance/permeability increases for a certain ion, the membrane potential will

A

get closer to the ions nernst equilibrium (and vice versa)
* less influenced by decrease in an ions conductance

108
Q

Direction of net flux

A

Will be such that membrane potential is nearer to Nernst potential of ion

negative ions with positive driving force = influx,
negative df = efflux

109
Q

Tau away from the beginning of graph = ___%
Tau away from peak of graph where voltage starts dissipating = ___ %

A

63, 37

110
Q

Because as currents flow through channels the voltage is impacted by the changes in permeability and in turn the voltage changes the channel opening… this is studied using ______

A

a voltage clamp

111
Q

In order to flow, all currents depend on a ___________

A

driving force acting on the ions
* this driving force changes with Vm

112
Q

If no voltage gated channels are open, current (I) is determined by (equation), but __ is not constant due to __________ always being open

A

I=V/R, R, leak channels

113
Q

tetrodotoxin from a puffer fish gets rid of all ___ channels so current can only be carried by ___ channels

A

Na+, K+

114
Q

___ channels are quick to open, ___ channels open later

A

Na+, K+

115
Q

Vm > Eion = net flux ___

A

out

116
Q

More depolarized = _____ likely for channel to open

A

more

117
Q

Na+ current is ______ K+ current is ______

A

inward, outward

118
Q

Na+ conductance rises and falls more _______ than K+ conductance due to the speed at which their respective channels open/close

A

quickly/rapidly

119
Q

________ increases K+ and Na+ conductances

A

depolarization

120
Q

An action potential requires a __________ inward Na+ conductance that ________, and a _________ K+ that _________

A

fast-acting, turns off, slower, persists

121
Q

_______ refractory is followed by _______ refractory

A

absolute, relative

122
Q

Why do we need K+ channels to repolarize if Na+ channels shut off on their own?

A

K+ channels speed up membrane potential repolarization and allow for repetitive neuronal firing at high frequencies

123
Q

Action potential conduction requires both:

A

active and passive current flow

124
Q

Propagation of AP is followed by wave of ___________. This is caused by the inactivation of __ channels and the opening of __ channels, and prevents ________________.

A

refractoriness, Na+, K+, backward propagation

125
Q

Voltage gated Na+ channel are localized to the _____________

*signal transduction

A

nodes of ranvier

126
Q

Loss of myelin (like in MS) can lead to __________ of Na+ channels. Less density = less _________

A

redistribution, excitability

127
Q

__________ is an experimental MS treatment, which induced differentiation of __________________ and enhanced ____________

A

benztropine, oligodendrocyte precursor cells, remyelination

128
Q

K channels are composed of ________

A

4 different subunits

129
Q

To pass through a potassium channel, an ion must remove most of its surrounding _________ leaving only ___. The selectivity filter for a sodium channel is slightly _______ and may accommodate an Na+ ion with __ attached water molecules

A

water molecules, 2, larger, 3

130
Q

______ blocks SK channels but not IK channels
* types of calcium activated K channels

A

apamin (from bee venom)

131
Q

Cl-channels have __ pores

A

2

this might be a lie, don’t know what slide i pulled it from

132
Q

Voltage gated calcium channels have many types:
P-type, T-type, N-type, R-type, L-type

A

P: blocked by agatoxin from funnel web spiders
T: blocked by Ni2+ ions
N: blocked by conotoxin GVII from cone snails
R: “resistant” to blockers of P and N
L: blocked by dihydropyridines
*doubt we’ll need to know these specs

133
Q

Of the types of voltage gated calcium channels, 4 are high voltage activated and 1 is low voltage activated. The low voltage type is

A

T-type (transient)

- can be activated by baby depols
- triggers burst

134
Q

Simple bursting neurons need 3 currents:

(from3 different ions)

A
  1. persistent Na ~drives neuron to threshold
  2. Voltage gated Ca ~ open with each AP
  3. Ca dependent K ~ grows as Ca builds
135
Q

Na channel toxins (from slide)

A
  • tetrodotoxin (puffer fish)
  • saxitoxin (marine dinoflagellates)
  • alpha-toxin (scorp, delays inactivation)
136
Q

K channel toxins (from slide)

A
  • dendrotoxin (snake)
  • batrachotoxin (frog)
  • charybdotoxin (scorp)
137
Q

__________ are diseases caused by mutations in voltage gated channels

A

channelopathies

138
Q

Slowing of Na channel _________ leads to neuronal hyperexcitability, implicated in _________________

A

inactivation, generalized epilepsy

139
Q

Why is there such diversity of K channels?

A

Diverse subunits and subtypes of subunits, 4 alpha-subunits combine to make a channel, nearly 100 KCN genes are known with differing properties (activation, gating, and inactivation)

140
Q

Why can’t Na pass through K channels and vice versa?

A

SELECTIVITY FILTERS. In order to shed the correct amount of water molecules to fit, the charges have to interact very closely with the filter. K is too big with 3 waters, but too small to have close interactions with Na channel to shed third water, same goes for Na in a K channel.

141
Q

Examples of Amino acid small molecule transmitters

A
  • glutamate
  • aspartate
  • GABA
  • glycine
142
Q

Examples of biogenic amines

*think basic neurotransmitters

A
  • dopamine *catecholamines
  • norepinephrine *
  • epinephrine *
  • serotonin (indoleamine)
  • histamine (imidazoline)
143
Q

Small molecule NTs

examples

A
  • ACh
  • Purines
  • Amino acids
  • Biogenic amines
144
Q

Small molecules that are not contained in vesicles (4)

A
  • endocannabinoids (lipid soluble)
  • Nitric oxide (gas)
  • carbon monoxide (gas)
  • adenosine (made from ATP in extracellular space)
145
Q

Aceytlcholine is broken down by _________ into ________ & ________

A

acetylcholinesterase, acetate, choline

146
Q

________________ catalyzes the synthesis of acetylcholine from ________&_________

A

choline acetyltransferase, acetyl CoA, choline

147
Q

nACh receptors consist of __________, and have been isolated using ________

A

5 subunits, alpha-bungarotoxin (from snake venom)

148
Q

At the neuromuscular junction nACh receptors contain 2 ________, both of which need to be bound to ____ for the receptor to be activated. the subunit ratio is: ______

A

alpha-subunits, ACh, 2alpha:1beta:1sigma:1gamma/epsilon

149
Q

Small molecules have Ionotropic or metabotropic receptors?

A

trick question it’s both

150
Q

Peptides have only ___________ receptors

A

metabotropic

151
Q

Main difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors:

A

Metabotropic are made up of one protein, whereas ionotropic are made up of multiple protein subunits

152
Q

____________ converts glutamine to glutamate in the ________________. _______________ converts glutamate to glutamine in the ______________.

A

Glutaminase, presynaptic terminal. glutamine synthetase, glial cells.

153
Q

3 types of ionotropic Glu receptors

A

AMDA-type, NMDA-type, kainate-type

154
Q

NMDA-type Glu receptor has Ca permeability. Only 1 subtype of AMDA-type has Ca permeability. What is the difference between these two receptor types?

A

Ca-AMPA has no voltage dependance

155
Q

AMPA receptors are made up of protein subunits. If AMPA receptor lacks _______ subunit, it is Ca permeable

A

gluR2

156
Q

NMDA-type glutamate receptors are _______ dependant, and have ____ “blockers”. Depolarization pushes this block out of the pore.

A

voltage, Mg2+

157
Q

___ is a marker of GABA-synthesizing terminals. _________ uptake excess GABA

A

GAD/GAD67, glial cells

158
Q

One enzyme (serine hydroxymethyltransferase) converts glucose to ________

A

glycine

159
Q

GABA receptors have depolarizing responses in _________ neurons, and hyperpolarizing in _________ neurons

A

Immature, mature

160
Q

Biosynthetic pathway for catecholamines begins with _________ which is converted into _______ by a RATE LIMITING enzyme ____________

A

tyrosine, DOPA, tyrosine hydroxylase

161
Q

L-DOPA is a drug used to increase the amount of ________ synthesized by neurons in ____________ patients

A

dopamine, parkinson’s

162
Q

DOPA is converted to dopamine via _______________ (enzyme)

A

DOPA decarboxylase

163
Q

Dopamine is released from the _________ &________

A

substantia nigra, ventral tegmental area

164
Q

Norepinephrine is released by the _______________

A

locus coeruleus

165
Q

Epinephrine is released from the __________________

A

medullary epinephrine neurons

166
Q

Serotonin is released by ___________

A

Raphe nuclei

167
Q

Histamine is released by ___________________

A

tuberomammillary nucleus of hypothalamus

168
Q

Precursor of serotonin is ______________

A

tryptophan

169
Q

Advantages of storing transmitters in vesicles: (3)

A
  • SPEED ~ more rapid transmitter release all at once
  • OSMOLARITY ~ high stored conc. in terminal without throwing off osmolarity of cytoplasm
  • STABILITY ~ transmitter protected from degradation
170
Q

Endocannabinoids act by modulating neurotransmission. Effect of CB1 receptor is reducing release of ______ and therefore reducing _________

A

GABA, inhibition (endocannabinoids inhibit inhibition)
* retrograde control of release

171
Q

Roles of CB1 (receptor involved in endocannabinoid signaling)

*cannabinoid receptors are GPCRs

A
  • decreases cAMP
  • inhibits N and P/Q Ca channels
  • facilitates GIRK channels, stabilizes resting Vm

GIRK= G protein-gated inwardly rectifying potassium channel

172
Q

Nitric oxide (NO) is very important for regulating vascular tone, it promotes __________

A

relaxation

173
Q

Glutamate and catecholamines are ____________
GABA and glycine are ___________

A

excitatory, inhibitory

174
Q

Increased intracellular ___ is required for exocytosis of vesicles

A

Ca2+

175
Q

Endocannabinoids are a family of ___________ signals that interact with __________ receptors such as _____ & _____

A

endogenous, cannabinoid, CB1, CB2

176
Q

Electrical synapses have no transmission delay, making them useful in _________ circuits. Electrical synapses are very common in __________.

A

escape, invertebrates

177
Q

Fast chemical synapses

(multi point answer)

A
  • have very short delay between presyn depol and postsyn response (<1msec)
  • Always small molecule (GABA, ACh, Glu etc)
  • Postsyn receptor is Ionotropic (metab is slower/lasts longer)
178
Q

Temporal fidelity for fast transmission requires __________ between presynaptic depolarization and transmitter release. To achieve this, presyn ___ channels must be close to ___________ being released

A

tight temporal coupling, Ca, vesicles

179
Q

Depolarization of presynaptic terminal causes opening of ___ channels, which causes ______ of vesicles with the presynaptic membrane. After transmitter release, vesicular membrane must be _____________

A

Ca, fusion, retrieved/recycled

180
Q

When a Ca channel blocker is in place, the postsynaptic membrane potential graph is ________

A

flat ~ this is evidence that calcium is necessary for transmitter release, without it there’s no response in the postsynaptic cell

181
Q

Many naturally occurring toxins such as ________ & ________ are calcium channel blockers

A

funnel web spider toxin (agatoxin), cone snail (conotoxin)

182
Q

Lyrica is a drug designed to block specific calcium channels in pain relay neurons. It is similar to the structure of ______ though it has no impact on those receptors.

A

GABA

183
Q

When [Ca] is increased, the frequency of ____________ depolarization increases, but the ________ of these events does not increase

A

spontaneous, size

184
Q

If extracellular calcium is increased are MEPPs affected?

A

there is basically no effect because extracellular calcium only has an impact if channels are open, and MEPPs are caused by random release of small amounts of transmitter (a single quanta)

185
Q

Docked vesicles define the maximum _________ amount of releasable vesicles available when an __________ arrives.

A

potential, action potential
* any vesicles undocked when an AP arrives don’t have time to get to the membrane and release

186
Q

the number of immediately releasable vesicles is always _________ the number of docked vesicles

A

less than or equal to

187
Q

Triskelion protein that binds to vesicle membrane (forms coat) __________
Protein that pinches of membrane in a ring _________

A

Clathrin, dynamin

188
Q

3 molecules are core of SNARE complex that primes vesicles for release, *1 associates with core but is not part of the complex

A
  1. synaptobrevin
  2. SNAP 25
  3. syntaxin
    *1. Synaptotagmin
189
Q

Vesicles are brought to presynaptic membrane by _________ of SNARE helices (non-fused, docked), PRIMING then requires ____. Final fusion step requires ___.

A

zippering, ATP, calcium

190
Q

ATP is required for 3 functions in transmitter release:
ATP is NOT required for *_________

A
  1. fill vesicles
  2. finish off exocytosis
  3. prepare vesicle for recycling
    *triggering release
191
Q

Botulinin toxin (botox) affects _______ proteins involved in vesicle fusion

A

SNARE
*this is why it kills people

192
Q

Docked vesicles are arranged in an ___________ and colocalized with _____________ and other proteins needed for release

A

“active zone”, calcium channels

193
Q

What calcium channel type is used by auditory hair cells?

A

CaV1.3
*they are activated sooner in depolarization than CaV1.2 channels

194
Q

Dense core vesicles (DCVs) are replenished at the _______ and mobilized to the membrane by continuous elevation of internal ________

A

soma, calcium

195
Q

DCVs are not clustered at the membrane and have no __________, they are released in all directions. __________ are stored in large DCVs/granules

A

Active zone, neuropeptides

196
Q

Small molecules packaged in _________________
Neuropeptides packaged in __________________

A

small clear core vesicles, large dense core vesicles

197
Q

3 factors relating postsynaptic response to release event

(variables in an equation)

A
  1. k (size of quantal response)
  2. p (probability of a vesicle releasing)
  3. n (number of potentially releasable vesicles)
    ~P* is the product of (nxp), release is approx = k x P*
198
Q

_________________ refers to the decrease in strength of connection at a particular synapse

A

synaptic depression

199
Q

sensitization is a _____________ term, not necessarily a defining term for ______________

A

behavioural, cellular change
*and cellular change doesn’t exactly mean sensitization

200
Q

In crayfish neuromuscular junctions, the active zones have _______ probability of release, thus a ______ epsp will _______ a lot

A

low, small, facilitate

201
Q

presynaptic activity-dependant facilitation persists for about:

A

1 second

202
Q

Synaptic facilitation is the rapid increase in synaptic strength that occurs when:

~temporal summation

A

2 or more APs invade the presynaptic terminal within a few milliseconds of each other

203
Q

Post tetanic potentiation

A

train of high frequency stimuli followed by enhancement lasting several minutes

enhancement:presyn APs that occur 1-2 mins after tetanus release more NT

204
Q

Increase in p would lead to

A

more release

205
Q

Increase in n would lead to

A

more release

206
Q

At frog neuromuscular junction, _________ is causes by ________ in n

A

depression, reduction

207
Q

Facilitation is almost certainly due to

A

increase in p (of already docked vesicles)

208
Q

Augmentation and post-tetanic potentiation is due to

A

Increased P* (increase in p for sure, n in some cases)

209
Q

Aplysia gill-withdrawal affect demonstrates

A

dishabituation
~ response to siphon touch decreases with each repetition until tail shock/siphon combo

210
Q

Why does tail shock impact gill-withdrawal response?

A

Tail nociceptors are connected to modulatory interneuron that synapses onto & excites siphon sensory neuron at presynaptic terminal = motor neuron activation in gills

211
Q

What are the cellular changes responsible for short term behavioural facilitation?

A
  • post translational changes of K channel (phosphorylation = slower repol)
    = increased release from sensory nerve presyn terminal
212
Q

release is proportional to nxp, p is increased by _________

A

increasing Ca2+ influx

213
Q

How does short term become long term sensitization?

6 points

A
  1. multiple shocks = sustained PKA activation
  2. this phosphorylates (activates) CREB
  3. CREs are activated that regulates DNA
  4. CREB gene regulation creates ubiquitin hydroxylase
  5. ub hydro. removed regulatory subunits of PKA
  6. CREB stimulates genes to grow new terminals & increase # of synapses

*PKA is enzyme that phos. CREB

214
Q

What does CREB do

A

regulates the expression of genes

215
Q

Ubiquitin hydroxylase removes _________ subunit from _____ resulting in ___________

A

regulatory, PKA, persistent PKA

216
Q

Short term sensitization is defined by

A

post translational modifications to pre existing proteins

217
Q

Long term sensitization is defined by

A
  • changes in gene expression
  • new protein synthesis
  • possible growth of new synapses
218
Q

During habituation transmission at the glutaminergic synapse is ______________, this is thought to be the cause of __________ gill contraction response to siphon stimuli

A

depressed, decrease

219
Q

Short term depression is due to

A

reduction in the amount of vesicles available for release

220
Q

Short term sensitization seen after the tail shock is due to recruitment of additional circuit elements, namely:

A

modulatory interneurons

221
Q

Net effect of PKA is to

A

reduce probability of K channels opening, which prolongs presyn AP, opening more Ca2+ channels, finally increasing amount of transmitter released on motor neurons (gill moves)

Biology (2 decks)

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