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GBE > Neuroanatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Neuroanatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

A neurological disorder characterized by the inability to recognize faces caused by damage to the cerebral cortex.

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2
Q

What abilities do apraxia, achromatopsia and akinetopsia affect?

A 
Apraxia = reach
Achromatopsia = colour
Akinetopsia = movement
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3
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for decision making?

A

Frontoparietal

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4
Q

What causes strong asymmetry in brain function?

A

Language

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5
Q

Where are the two areas of enlargement in the spinal cord?

A

At the cervical and lumbar vertebral regions. These are where the nerves innervating the upper and lower limbs branch off.

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6
Q

What are some of the functions of the hypothalamus?

A
  • Circadian rhythm
  • Energy metabolism
  • Reproductive behaviour
  • Body temperature
  • Defensive behaviours
  • Blood pressure/electrolytes
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7
Q

Why is the thalamus important in learning?

A

It has reciprocal connections with every part of the cortex.

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8
Q

What do the corticobulbar tracts connect?

A

The motor cortex to the medullary pyramids in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem.

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9
Q

What is unique about the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts?

A

They bypass the thalamus relay centre.

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10
Q

What embryological structure gives rise to the majority of the peripheral nervous system?

A

Neural crest

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11
Q

What are the two forms of spina bifida?

A

1) Occulta = mildest form where outer part of some of the vertebrae is not completely closed.
2) Cystica = meningocele (least common) or meningomyelocele (worst).

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12
Q

What are the differences between meningocele and meningomyelocele?

A

Meningocele = where meninges only herniate.

Meningomyelocele = where meningese and spinal cord herniate.

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13
Q

Are neurons polarised?

A

Yes

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14
Q

What is arborisation?

A

A fine branching structure at the end of a nerve fibre.

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15
Q

Where is 60% of the brain’s energy consumed?

A

At the Na+ pumps pumping Na out after an AP.

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16
Q

What happens at synapses that aids learning?

A

The efficiency of transfer can be modulated.

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17
Q

How are myelinated axons stained in spinal cord slices?

A

In black

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18
Q

What are double cortex sydrome, X-linked lissencephaly and heterotopias all examples of?

A

Diseases of cortex layering.

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19
Q

What are the advantages of nuclei in the brain?

A
  • They group together neurons with similar function.
  • They facilitate local circuit control.
  • Maximises the efficiency of connections between nuclei.
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20
Q

What are the two ways in which cell bodies are arranged in grey matter?

A

Nuclei or layers.

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21
Q

What are projection neurons?

A

Nerves that have long axons. They tend to be myelinated and very large. Cell bodies found in cortex layer 5.

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22
Q

Which layer do all the output cells of the cortex sit?

A

5

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23
Q

Where are motor neurons found in the spinal cord?

A

Anterior (ventral) part.

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24
Q

Where are peripheral sensory neurons found in the spinal cord?

A

Posterior (dorsal) root ganglia.

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25
Q

How is the brain formed in development?

A

By radial and tangential neuron migration.

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26
Q

What is the role of radial glia in the adult?

A

It is a structural scaffold.

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27
Q

What is the role of radial glia in the developing brain?

A

They are a guide for migrating neurons.

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28
Q

What is the role of radial glia in the injured brain?

A

Source of astrocytes.

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29
Q

How do astrocytes refine signalling in the brain?/

A
  • Remove excess K at nodes of Ranvier.
  • Remove synaptic neurotransmimtters.
  • Insulate the synapse.
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30
Q

What do astrocytes do during brain injury?

A
  • The K and water absorption leads to brain swelling.

- Reactive astrocytes form glial scars which is a potential trigger for epilepsy.

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31
Q

What is the neurocranium?

A

Skull cap (calvaria), cranial base (basicranium) and an intracranial region i.e. the inner surface of the base of the skull.

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32
Q

What is the viscerocranium?

A

Facial bones.

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33
Q

What are the three parts of the brainstem?

A

From top to bottom = midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata.

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34
Q

Which parts of the brain sit in the anterior, middle and posterior cranial fossas?

A

Anterior = frontal lobe

Middle = temporal lobe

Posterior = cerebellum

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35
Q

What is the dura mater composed of?

A

Collagen fibres

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36
Q

What are the layers of the brain from the skin inwards?

A
  • Skin
  • Periosteum
  • Skull bone
  • Periosteal layer of dura
  • Meningeal layer of dura
  • Subdural space
  • Arachnoid layer
  • Subarachnoid space
  • Pia mater
  • Cerebral cortex
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37
Q

What is the middle meningeal artery a branch of and which foramen does it travel through?

A

Branch of the maxillary artery and a terminal branch of the external carotid artery.

Runs through the foramen spinosum.

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38
Q

What are the two branches of the middle meningeal artery?

A

Anterior = runs close to coronal suture.

Posterior = goes to back of parietal bone.

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39
Q

What is the cisterna magna?

A

One of three openings in the subarachnoid space between the arachnoid and pia mater layers of the meninges. CSF in the fourth ventricle drains into the cisterna magna by lateral and median apertures.

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40
Q

What are the five modalities of somatosensation?

A
  • Touch
  • Proprioception
  • Pain
  • Itch
  • Visceral (not pain)
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41
Q

Under what circumstances would perception not occur?

A

General anaethesia.

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42
Q

What are the submodalities of somatic sensations mediated by?

A

Dorsal root ganglion (DRG) neurons OR trigeminal sensory neurons (TSN).

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43
Q

What are the roles of the DRG and TSN in somatic sensations?

A

1) Transduce/encode stimuli into electrical signals.

2) Transmit those signals to the CNS.

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44
Q

What are the two principal subgroups of primary sensory neurons?

A

A = large

C = small

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45
Q

How do sensory receptors show receptor specificity?

A

Different sensory neurons have different transduction molecules which respond to different stimuli.

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46
Q

What is the receptive field of a sensory neuron?

A

The spacial domain where the simulation excites or exhibits the neuron.

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47
Q

What are the four types of mechanorececptor responsible for touch?

A

In order of their receptive field size (small to large):

SA1 = Merkel cells
RA1 = Meissner corpuscle
RA2 = Pacinian corpuscle
SA2 = Ruffini endings
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48
Q

Which sensory receptors are found in the joint capsule?

A
  • Free endings
  • Ruffini endings
  • Paciniform receptors
  • Golgi endings
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49
Q

What is the role of joint capsule receptors?

A

Transduce tension

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50
Q

Which nerves control the perception of the angle of a joint?

A

Afferent signals from muscle spindles and efferent motor commands.

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51
Q

What are golgi tendon organs?

A

They lie in series with main muscle fibres and are sensitive to changes in muscle tension.

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52
Q

What type are most cold-sensitive fibres in humans?

A

Small myelinated Aδ axons.

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53
Q

What response is shown in cold fibres at high temperatures?

A

Paradoxical response (PR) (opposite effect to what is expected).

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54
Q

What type are most warm-sensitive fibres in humans?

A

Small unmyelinated C axons.

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55
Q

What do nociceptors respond to?

A

Damaging or potentially damaging stimuli.

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56
Q

What are the four main modalities of nociceptor?

A
  • Thermal
  • Mechanical
    (Both Aδ fibres)
  • Polymodal
  • Silent
    (Both C fibres)
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57
Q

What causes nociceptor diversity?

A

The transduction molecules expressed.

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58
Q

Which pathways convey mechanosensory information from the limbs and trunk to the cortex? What do they go via?

A

Dorsal columns/medial lemniscal system.

Goes via the VPL thalamus.

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59
Q

What pathway transmits itch, temperature and visceral information to the cortex via the brainstem and thalamus?

A

Anterolateral system =

  • Spinorecticular
  • Spinomesencephalic
  • Spinothalamic tracts.
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60
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

Where sensory information of different types remains segregated in the brain.

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61
Q

What are the three main divisions of the somatic sensory cortex?

A

S1 = primary
S2 = secondary
Posterior parietal cortex

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62
Q

What is S1 divided into?

A

Four cytoarchitectonic regions called Brodmann’s areas =

3a
3b
1
2

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63
Q

What is the ‘pain matrix’?

A

A collection of brain regions that are accessed during nociceptive processing.

64
Q

What is the capillary density of the human brain?

A

2500-3000/mm^2

65
Q

Which has a higher trans-endothelial electrical resistance peripheral or brain capillaries?

A

Brain capillaries by 50-500x more.

66
Q

Out of morphine, codeine and heroin which is most easy transported across the BBB?

A

Heroin

67
Q

How do cerebral capillary endothelium compare to peripheral?

A

They have a high number of different transporters and less vesicles/fenestrations for transport.

68
Q

What is transcytosis?

A

Where macromolecules are captured in vesicles on one side of the cell, drawn across the cell, and ejected on the other side.

69
Q

What are the functions of choroid plexuses?

A
  • Produces CSF
  • Sythesises polypeptides

These both contribute to regulating brain interstitial fluid.

70
Q

What is the fluid production rate of CSF and ISF in the brain?

A

CSF = 350µl/min

ISF = 7µl/min

71
Q

What is the total CSF and total ISF in the brain?

A

CSF = 140 mls (30 in ventricles, 80 in brain and 30 in spine)

ISF = 280mls

72
Q

Describe the steps involved in an EPSP synaptic potential.

A

1) AP in the pre-synaptic terminal causes the release of neurotransmitters within a vesicle.
2) Vesicle fuses with the synaptic cleft releasing their contents and the NT diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
3) NT binds to the receptors causing voltage-gated ion channels to open. Na moves in causing depolarisation.
4) Channels close as the NTs unbind and diffuse away or taken up by glial cells.

73
Q

What are the causes of the delay in the synaptic potential?

A
  • Unbinding
  • Diffusion
  • Uptake
  • Desensitisation
  • Degradation (enzymatic destruction)
74
Q

What does the amplitude of EPSPs depend onn?

A
  • Amount of neurotransmitter released.
  • Number of receptors.
  • State of receptors.
75
Q

What do EPSPs contribute to?

A

Somatic depolarisation which leads to the generation of an action potential at the axon hillock of a neuron.

76
Q

What are the limitations of EPSPs?

A

They are metabolically expensive and are vulnerable to chemical attack (drugs and toxins).

77
Q

Describe the steps involved in an IPSP synaptic potential.

A

1) AP in the pre-synaptic terminal causes the release of neurotransmitters within a vesicle.
2) Vesicle fuses with the synaptic cleft releasing their contents and the NT diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
3) NT binds to the receptors causing voltage-gated ion channels to open. Cl- enters the cells down its concentration gradient causing hyperpolarisation.
4) Channels close as the NTs unbind and diffuse away or taken up by glial cells.

78
Q

What is the role of IPSPs?

A

To prevent somatic depolarisation and generation of an AP at the axon hillock.

79
Q

What is convergence?

A

Where different presynaptic neurons will send inputs to a single post-synaptic neuron. An AP will fire in this neuron dependent on whether the EPSPs and IPSPs at any moment add together to causes sufficient depolarisation of the axon hillock.

80
Q

How do neuronal networks act as functional hierarchies?

A

Signals from multiple inputs can converge on neurons within a nucleus and be integrated.

Integrated output signals then diverge to provide inputs to the next level in the hierarchy (the next nucleus).

81
Q

What is divergence of neural networks controlled by?

A

Interneurons

82
Q

What are Eric Kandel’s 5 principles about?

A

They describe the relationship between genes, the brain and behaviour.

83
Q

What are quantitative genetic designs used for?

A

They are used to identify to what extent a phenotype is influenced by genes or the environment but cannot reveal which genes are responsible for the phenotype in question.

84
Q

What are molecular genetic designs used for?

A

Used to find which gene is responsible for the phenotype. They cannot reveal to what extent a phenotype is influenced by genes or the environment.

85
Q

What are the two assumptions in twin studies?

A

1) That mono- and di-zygotic twins will have equally similar environments.
2) That results from twin studies can be generalised to the rest of the population.

86
Q

What is heritability?

A

A statistic used in the fields of breeding and genetics that estimates the degree of variation in a phenotypic trait in a population that is due to genetic variation between individuals in that population.

87
Q

What is epistasis?

A

The interaction of genes that are not alleles (e.g. one suppressing another).

88
Q

What is a functional explanation of behaviour?

A

Considering the behaviour’s evolutionary advantage in terms of survival.

89
Q

What does a causal explanation mean?

A

Finding causal links between two events (when you manipulate one event to see whether this is followed by changes in other events).

90
Q

What are the regions of the brain associated with aggression?

A

Orbitofrontal cortex and amygdala.

91
Q

What are the neurotransmitters associated with aggression?

A

Serotonin
Noradrenaline
Dopamine

92
Q

How is the MAO-A gene linked to aggression?

A

The MAO-A gene codes for the MAO-A enzyme which acts to break down serotonin and dopamine and regulate their levels.

The high activity gene variant has up to 10x greater activity than the low activity variant so may be more effective at removing excess dopamine and serotonin and preventing aggression.

93
Q

What was the predominated concept of pain for 2000 years?

A

The Aristotelian concept that the heart was the seat of feelings and pain was a feeling.

94
Q

Who was the first person to think that pain was a sensation in which the brain and nerves played an important role?

A

Galen

95
Q

What is the specificity theory?

A

That the intensity of pain is directly related to the amount of associated tissue injury.

96
Q

What is pain?

A

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage or described in terms of such damage.

97
Q

Where are the cell bodies of nociceptors found?

A

Dorsal root ganglia.

98
Q

What are the two ascending pathways that transmit pain?

A

1) Spinothalamic = discriminative aspect of nociception, fast pain.
2) Spinoreticular = responsible for arousal and affective (unpleasantness) aspects, dull pain.

99
Q

Where do most neurons involved in pain signals terminate?

A

Laminae I and II at the top, or dorsal, end of the spinal cord contacting cells transmitting information in regions of the brain involved with the responses to pain and its perception.

100
Q

What is the component of an opioid that is responsible for analgesia?

A

Morphine

101
Q

Which part of the brain is associated with analgesia?

A

PAG = periaqueductal gray.

Region is rich in opioid receptors and produces analgesia when stimulated.

102
Q

What is the gate control theory of pain?

A

Malzack and Wall suggested in 1965 that the small interneurons in the dorsal horn acts as a gate which controls the amount of excitation of the transmission cells.

Messages descending from the brain (emotions, boredom etc.) are able to influence these interneurons meaning psychological factors are able to influence pain perception.

103
Q

What are the three components of pain?

A

1) Sensory-discriminative = sense of intensity, location and duration.
2) Affective-motivational = unpleasantness and desire to escape.
3) Cognitive component = involving judgements, beliefs, memories, perception of environment and patient’s own history.

104
Q

How potent can telling a patient that a painkiller is being injected when only saline is be?

A

As potent as 6-8mgs morphine.

105
Q

What are the two types of pain and their subtypes?

A

1) Adaptive = nociceptive, inflammatory.

2) Maladaptive = neuropathic, dysfunctional (pathological pain).

106
Q

How does pain hypersensitivity arise?

A

Pain pathways increase in sensitivity when they relay pain messages.

107
Q

What are the two forms of pain hypersensitivity?

A

Allodynia = very low pain threshold.

Hyperalgesia = responsiveness to pain is exaggerated.

108
Q

What is peripheral sensitisation?

A

A reduction in threshold and increase in responsiveness to peripheral ends of nociceptors leading to pain hypersensitivity.

This sensitisation arises due to the action of inflammatory chemicals.

109
Q

What is central sensitisation?

A

An increase in the excitability of
neurons within the central nervous
system, triggered by a burst of activity in
nociceptors, which alters the strength of
synaptic connections
(activity-dependent synaptic plasticity) between
nociceptors and spinal cord neurons.

110
Q

How long must you have had pain for it to be deemed chronic?

A

> 3-6 months.

111
Q

What is catastrophising in relation to pain?

A

Where a set of negative emotional/cognitive processes that involve rumination or pessimism and perception of helplessness cause a magnification of pain-related symptoms.

112
Q

What parts of the nervous system are activated as a result of stress?

A

SNS

Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis

113
Q

What is stress?

A

Stress is a physical, mental, or emotional factor that causes bodily or mental biological response. This can be a positive or negative factor.

114
Q

What are the main areas involved in the HPA axis?

A
  • Amygdala
  • Hypothalamus
  • Pituitary gland
  • Pre-frontal cortex
  • Hippocampus
115
Q

What is the role of the amygdala?

A

It is concerned with emotion, motivation and fear and receives information on events in the world and assesses danger. The emotional information is then conveyed to other brain regions and a defence action may be organised (fight or flight).

116
Q

What does the amygdala release?

A

CRF = corticotropin releasing factor.

117
Q

What is the hippocampus involved in?

A

Organising memory storage in the cortex and retrieving memories stored in the cortex.

118
Q

What is the pre-frontal cortex involved in?

A

Planning and organising behaviour based upon the use of working memory.

119
Q

What glad is associated with the HPA axis?

A

Adrenal gland

120
Q

What does the adrenal gland do in response to ACTH?

A

Releases cortisol and corticosterone (both are glucocorticoids).

They bind to glucocorticoid receptors located on the hypothalamus, hippocampus, pre-frontal cortex and pituitary gland.

121
Q

What is the pathway of activity in the HPA axis as a result of acute stress?

A

1) Amygdala receives a stimulus and releases CRF which stimulates the hypothalamus.
2) The hypothalamus then releases CRF which stimulates the pituitary.
3) The pituitary then releases ACTH into the bloodstream which stimulates the adrenal cortex.
4) The adrenal cortex releases glucocorticoids into the system which inhibits the pituitary and hypothalamus, but stimulates the hippocampus and the pre-frontal cortex.
5) The hippocampus and pre-frontal cortex send an action potential to the hypothalamus and inhibits it.

This is a negative feedback system.

122
Q

What is the HPA baseline?

A

A small amount of cortisol is secreted continuously from the adrenal cortex into
blood stream. It is broken down by enzymes in the blood so levels remain low creating a low level of stimulation.

123
Q

What happens in chronic stress?

A

There is a constant release of cortisol meaning blood levels are elevated (as there is not enough enzyme to break it down). Because cortisol is toxic to glucocorticoid receptors, their numbers decrease. This results in less inhibition to the hypothalamus, more CRF and ACTH are released leading to more cortisol.

This is positive feedback.

124
Q

How does the fight or flight response link to stress?

A

The hypothalamus also activates the adrenal medulla which secretes adrenaline and the peripheral SNS which releases noradrenaline. When the hypothalamus is activated due to stress adrenaline release is a byproduct.

125
Q

What are the effects of cortisol on the system (not the brain)?

A
  • Decrease inflammation
  • Glucose mobilisation
  • Intravascular volume
126
Q

Which foramen does the internal carotid artery travel through?

A

Carotid canal

127
Q

Which foramen do the vertebral arteries travel through?

A

Foramen magnum

128
Q

Which foramen does the middle meningeal artery travel through?

A

Foramen spinosum

129
Q

What is the consequence of tearing the middle meningeal artery?

A

Extradural (epidural) haemorrhage.

130
Q

Between which meningeal layers is the Circle of Willis found?

A

Between the pia mater and arachnoid layer.

131
Q

What is a saccular aneurysm also known as and where is it most commonly found?

A

Berry aneurysms.

Found classically at the point at which a cerebral artery departs from the circle of Willis.

132
Q

Which regions of the cerebrum does the anterior cerebral artery supply?

A

Anterior to 3/4 posterior middle of the cerebrum.

https://teachmeanatomy.info/wp-content/uploads/Regional-Blood-Supply-to-the-Cerebrum-1024x380.jpg

133
Q

Which regions of the brain does the middle cerebral artery supply?

A

Lateral areas and anterior half of the temporal lobe.

https://teachmeanatomy.info/wp-content/uploads/Regional-Blood-Supply-to-the-Cerebrum-1024x380.jpg

134
Q

Which regions of the brain does the posterior artery supply?

A

Inferior middle lateral, posterior 1/4 of middle and posterior half of temporal lobe.

https://teachmeanatomy.info/wp-content/uploads/Regional-Blood-Supply-to-the-Cerebrum-1024x380.jpg

135
Q

What is the filum terminale?

A

A delicate strand of fibrous connective tissue and glial cells found at the end of the spinal cord that closely adheres to the dura mater and tethers the spinal cord to prevent movement.

136
Q

Between which vertebrae would you perform a lumbar puncture?

A

L3&4

137
Q

How many rootlets contribute to each dorsal root ganglion and spinal nerve?

A

About 6.

138
Q

What do the dorsal root ganglia contain?

A

Cell bodies of sensory neurons.

139
Q

Why are there small ventral horns in the thoracic spinal cord?

A

Intercostal muscles don’t need much motor innervation.

140
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1&2

141
Q

What is the reticular formation?

A

A cluster of neuronal nuclei that regulate multiple basic functions concerned with alertness, breathing, circulation, consciousness, feeding and reward behaviours, pain, sensation, respiration, sleep etc. foud in the brainstem.

142
Q

Which part of the skull is the pons resting on?

A

The clivus of the occipital bone.

143
Q

Which tract would you find in the pyramids of the ventral medulla?

A

Corticospinal

144
Q

Which anatomical structures are found on the dorsal surface of the midbrain?

A

The superior and inferior colliculi.

145
Q

What are the three A’s that the thalamus regulates?

A
  • Awareness
  • Attention
  • Arousal
146
Q

What is the massa intermedia?

A

A fusion of the two halves of the thalamus also known as the interthalamic adhesion.

147
Q

What is the aqueduct of Sylvius?

A

Another name for the cerebral aqueduct.

148
Q

What connects the 3rd ventricle to the lateral ventricles?

A

The interventricular foramina (foramen of Monro).

149
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

It is part of a feedback circuit receiving information from several sources including the cerebral cortex and feeding this information back to the cortex via the thalamus.

150
Q

What can the nuclei of the basal ganglia be divided into?

A
  • Input
  • Intrinsic
  • Output

Input receives the information, relays this to the intrinsic and then passed on to the output where it travels to the cortex.

151
Q

What are the input nuclei of the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate nucleus and putamen (neostriatum).

152
Q

What are the intrinsic nuclei of the basal ganglia?

A
  • External globus pallidus
  • Subthalamic nucleus
  • Pars compacta (lateral part)
153
Q

What are the output nuclei of the basal ganglia?

A
  • Internal globus pallidus

- Pars reticula (medial)

154
Q

What makes up the subthalamic nucleus?

A

The pars compacta and pars reticularis.

155
Q

What makes up the lentiform nucleus?

A

Globus pallidus and the putamen.

156
Q

What is the arterial supply to the basal ganglia?

A

Lenticulostriate arteries which are branches of the middle cerebral artery.

GBE (3 decks)

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