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Final Battle > Neuroanatomy > Flashcards

Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Regions of the brain devoid of a blood-brain barrier include all of the following EXCEPT?

a. pineal body
b. subfornical organ
c. organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis
d. median eminence of the hypothalamus
e. habenular nucleus

A

e. habenular nucleus

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2
Q
  1. What is the major outflow tract of the basal ganglia?

a. lenticular fasciculus (Forel’s field H2)
b. ansa lenticularis
c. thalamic fasciculus (Forel’s field H1)
d. ansa reticularis
e. mammilothalamic tract

A

a. lenticular fasciculus (Forel’s field H2)

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3
Q
  1. Injury to Guillain-Mollaret’s triangle can produce?

a. arm tremor
b. torsional nystagmus
c. hypotonia
d. deafness
e. myoclonus

A

e. myoclonus (palatal myoclonus)

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4
Q
  1. Through what structure do fibers from the inferior olives reach the cerebellum?

a. superior cerebellar peduncle
b. inferior cerebellar peduncle
c. middle cerebellar peduncle
d. vestibular nucleus
e. flocculonodular lobe

A

b. inferior cerebellar peduncle

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5
Q
  1. All of the following are association fibers EXCEPT?

a. superior longitudinal fasciculus
b. arcuate fasciculus
c. uncinate fasciculus
d. corona radiata
e. cingulum

A

d. corona radiata (serabut proyeksi)

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6
Q
  1. First-order neurons involved in pupillary dilation originate in what structure?

a. thalamus
b. hypothalamus
c. superior colliculus
d. superior cervical ganglia
e. Edinger-Westphal nucleus

A

b. hypothalamus

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7
Q
  1. The basal nucleus (of Meynert) contains what type of neurons?

a. cholinergic
b. adrenergic
c. serotonergic
d. dopaminergic
e. noradrenergic

A

a. cholinergic

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8
Q
  1. Begininng the incision for an anterior iliac crest graft approximately 3 cm lateral to the anterior iliac spine attempts to avoid injury of what stucture(s)?
  2. Sartorius muscle
  3. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
  4. Illioinguinal ligament
  5. Illiacus muscle

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2
c. 2, 4
d. 4
e. semua benar

A

a. 1, 2, 3

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9
Q 
A. CA1
B. CA2
C. CA3
D. CA4
E. Indusium griseum
F. Dentate gyrus
G. None of the above
  1. Mossy fibers originating in the dentate gyrus terminate here
A

C. CA3

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10
Q 
A. CA1
B. CA2
C. CA3
D. CA4
E. Indusium griseum
F. Dentate gyrus
G. None of the above
  1. Extremely vulnerable to hypoxia
A

A. CA1

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11
Q 
A. CA1
B. CA2
C. CA3
D. CA4
E. Indusium griseum
F. Dentate gyrus
G. None of the above
  1. Schaffer collaterals projet to the pyramidal neurons of this subfield
A

A. CA1

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12
Q 
A. CA1
B. CA2
C. CA3
D. CA4
E. Indusium griseum
F. Dentate gyrus
G. None of the above
  1. Lies in the concavity of the dentate gyrus
A

D. CA4

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13
Q 
A. CA1
B. CA2
C. CA3
D. CA4
E. Indusium griseum
F. Dentate gyrus
G. None of the above
  1. Vestigial remnant of hippocampal formation
A

E. Indusium griseum

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14
Q 
A. CA1
B. CA2
C. CA3
D. CA4
E. Indusium griseum
F. Dentate gyrus
G. None of the above
  1. Injury of this sector may produce remote memory problems
A

G. None of the above

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15
Q 
A. CA1
B. CA2
C. CA3
D. CA4
E. Indusium griseum
F. Dentate gyrus
G. None of the above
  1. Largest sector
A

A. CA1

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16
Q
  1. In normal individuals, the direct and indirect circuits of the basal ganglia are balanced by?

A. the opposing actions of the dopaminergic nigrostriatal projections on the D1 and D2 receptor subtypes in the putamen
B. the inhibitory activity of the subthalamic nucleus on the globus pallidus interna
C. The increased acitivty on GABAergic neurons in the internal segment of the globus pallidus by the direct pathway
D. The ascending dopaminergic fibers originating in the midbrain tegmentum and synapsing in the pars compacta of the substansia nigra (influening D1 and D2 receptors in the globus pallidus)
E. All of the above

A

A. the opposing actions of the dopaminergic nigrostriatal projections on the D1 and D2 receptor subtypes in the putamen

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17
Q
  1. A visual lesion producing a central defect in one field with a superior temporal defect in the opposit may be originating in what location?

a. anterior chiasm
b. occipital lobe
c. temporal lobe
d. optic nerve
e. inferior parietal lobe

A

a. anterior chiasm

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18
Q
  1. Fibers from the frontal eye fields pass through the genu of the internal capsule, decussate in the pons, and synapse in what structure involved with saccades?

a. MLF
b. inferior collicuus
c. edinger-westphal nucleus
d. solitary nucleus
e. PPRF

A

e. PPRF

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19
Q 
A. PCA
B. SCA
C. AICA
D. PICA
E. VA
  1. Occlusion of this vessel is the most common cause of lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome
A

E. VA

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20
Q 
A. PCA
B. SCA
C. AICA
D. PICA
E. VA
  1. Supplies the pyramis, tuber, flocculus, and caudal parts of pontine tegmentum
A

C. AICA

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21
Q 
A. PCA
B. SCA
C. AICA
D. PICA
E. VA
  1. occlusion can produce contralateral hearing impairment
A

B. SCA

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22
Q 
A. PCA
B. SCA
C. AICA
D. PICA
E. VA
  1. vessel commonly associated with trigeminal neuralgia
A

B. SCA

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23
Q 
A. PCA
B. SCA
C. AICA
D. PICA
E. VA
  1. vessel at most risk of injury during Chiari decompression
A

D. PICA

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24
Q 
A. PCA
B. SCA
C. AICA
D. PICA
E. VA
  1. The dentate nucleus is mainly supplied by this vessel
A

B. SCA

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25
Q 
A. PCA
B. SCA
C. AICA
D. PICA
E. VA
  1. supplies the middle cerebellar peduncle
A

C. AICA

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26
Q
  1. Fibers passing from the amygdala to the hypothalamus may travel in what fiber bundle?

a. stria medullaris
b. fornix
c. stria terminalis
d. medial forebrain bundle
e. cingulum

A

c. stria terminalis

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27
Q
  1. a cerebellar glomerulus consists of all of the following EXCEPT?

a. climbing fibers
b. glial capsule
c. dendrites of granule neurons
d. axons and dendrites of Golgi type II neurons
e. mossy fibers

A

a. climbing fibers

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28
Q
  1. the major site for neuroblast proliferation in the CNS is

a. layer III of the cerebral cortex
b. periventricular ependymal region
c. white matter
d. spinal cord
e. arachnoid layer

A

b. periventricular ependymal region

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29
Q
  1. which cell represents the only output of the cerebellar cortex?

a. granule cell
b. golgi cell
c. stellate cell
d. purkinje cell
e. horizontal cell

A

d. purkinje cell

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30
Q
  1. what structures pass through the annulus tendineus of Zinn?
  2. ophtalmic vein
  3. lateral rectus muscle
  4. lacrimal branch of opthalmic nerve
  5. inferior division of oculomotor nerve

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

A

c. 2,4

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31
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. Nerve supplies muscles that are antagonists to the serratus anterior
A

K. Dorsal scapular nerve

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32
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. injury to this nerve may result in winged scapula
A

A. Long thoracic nerve

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33
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. innervates teres minor muscle
A

I. axillary (circumflex) nerve

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34
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. injury to this nerve will result in flexion weakness, especially when the forearm is supine
A

J. Musculocutaneous nerve

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35
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. innervates supinator muscle
A

G. radial nerve

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36
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. nerve most commonly affected by entrapment neuropathy
A

H. median nerve

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37
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. a pure lesion of a branch of this nerve can result in weakness of the long flexors of the thumb and index finger (producing a pinch sign) and pronator quadratus
A

H. median nerve

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38
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. injury of this nerve may occur in Guyan’s canal
A

F. ulnar nerve

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39
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. compression of this nerve may occur by a ligament that bridges the supracondylar process to the medial epicondyle
A

H. median nerve

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40
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. Innvervates the interossei muscles
A

F. ulnar nerve

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41
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. supplies sensation to the anteromedial and posteromedial forearm down to the wrist
A

E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm

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42
Q 
A. Long thoracic nerve
B.
C.
D.
E. Medial cutaneous nerves of the forearm
F. ulnar nerve
G. radial nerve
H. median nerve
I. axillary (circumflex) nerve
J. Musculocutaneous nerve
K. Dorsal scapular nerve
  1. Entrapment in quadrilateral space
A

I. axillary (circumflex) nerve

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43
Q
  1. all are features of the cerebral cortex EXCEPT?

a. vague cytoarchitectural boundaries
b. laminar arrangement of neurons
c. conspicuous stripes of unmyelinated fibers
d. radial or columnar arrangement of neurons
e. numerous pyramid cells in layer V of the visual cortex that send fibers to the brainstem for visually directed reflexive eye movements

A

c. conspicuous stripes of unmyelinated fibers

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44
Q
  1. The arcuate fasciculus is composed of association fibers interconnecting which structures?

a. superior parietal lobule and occipital lobe
b. superior and middle frontal gyrus and temporal lobe
c. superior and inferior frontal gyrus and limbic lobe
d. thalamus and amygdala
e. orbital frontal gyri and temporal lobe

A

b. superior and middle frontal gyrus and temporal lobe

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45
Q
  1. A 27-year-old male presents to the emergency room with ptosis of the right eyefield and pupillary constriction of the same eye, but no gaze palsy or diplopia. The most likely explanation for this is a lesion in what location?
A. CN II
B. CN III
C. CN V
D. CN VII
E. Carotid sympathetic nerve
A

E. Carotid sympathetic nerve

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46
Q
  1. What region(s) of the striate cortex do NOT contain ocular dominance columns?
  2. the cortical region representing the blind spot of the retina
  3. the cortical region representing the nasal half of the iipsilateral retina
  4. the cortical region representing the monocular temporal crescent of the visual field
  5. the columnar system, which is mainly concerned with line orientation and retinal position
a. 1,2,3
b 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar
A

b 1,3

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47
Q 
A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L2,3)
B. Femoral nerve (L2-4)
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Obturator nerve (L2-4)
E. Femoral ring
F. Sciatic nerve
  1. Prone to injury during obstetric and gynecologic procedures
A

D. Obturator nerve (L2-4)

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48
Q 
A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L2,3)
B. Femoral nerve (L2-4)
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Obturator nerve (L2-4)
E. Femoral ring
F. Sciatic nerve
  1. Nerve associated with “meralgia paresthectica”
A

A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L2,3)

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49
Q 
A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L2,3)
B. Femoral nerve (L2-4)
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Obturator nerve (L2-4)
E. Femoral ring
F. Sciatic nerve
  1. Nerve likely to be damaged by hematoma in the pelvis
A

B. Femoral nerve (L2-4)

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50
Q 
A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L2,3)
B. Femoral nerve (L2-4)
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Obturator nerve (L2-4)
E. Femoral ring
F. Sciatic nerve
  1. Diabetic amyotrophy is most likely to affect this site
A

E. Femoral ring

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51
Q 
A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L2,3)
B. Femoral nerve (L2-4)
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Obturator nerve (L2-4)
E. Femoral ring
F. Sciatic nerve
  1. supplies the pectineus and gracilis muscles
A

D. Obturator nerve (L2-4)

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52
Q
  1. A gray ramus communicans, which extends between a sympathetic trunk ganglion and anterior primary ramus of a spinal nerve, contains which of the following?

a. general somatic afferent fibers
b. myelinated fibers
c. preganglionic sympathetic neurons
d. fibers that become the enteric nervous system
e. adrenergic fibers

A

e. adrenergic fibers

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53
Q
  1. muscles that are innervated by the ansa cervicalis include all of the following EXCEPT?

a. omohyoid
b. geniohyoid
c. thyrohyoid
d. geniohyoid
e. stylohyoid

A

e. stylohyoid

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54
Q
  1. A 46-year-old male with a remote history of a gunshot wound to the face and intravenous drug abuse presents to the ER with fevers and swelling on the left side of his neck and face.
    A CT scan reveals an abscess adjacent to the pterygopalatine fossa. This infection may directly track to all of the following compartments EXCEPT?

a. orbital cavity
b. nasal cavity
c. middle cranial fossa
d. inner ear
e. oral cavity

A

d. inner ear

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55
Q 
A. Marcus-Gunn pupil
B. Horner's pupil
C. Adie's pupil (Tonic pupil)
D. Argyll-Robertson pupil
E. None of the above
  1. short ciliary nerves
A

C. Adie’s pupil (Tonic pupil)

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56
Q 
A. Marcus-Gunn pupil
B. Horner's pupil
C. Adie's pupil (Tonic pupil)
D. Argyll-Robertson pupil
E. None of the above
  1. superior cervical ganglion
A

B. Horner’s pupil

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57
Q 
A. Marcus-Gunn pupil
B. Horner's pupil
C. Adie's pupil (Tonic pupil)
D. Argyll-Robertson pupil
E. None of the above
  1. Dorsal midbrain
A

D. Argyll-Robertson pupil

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58
Q 
A. Marcus-Gunn pupil
B. Horner's pupil
C. Adie's pupil (Tonic pupil)
D. Argyll-Robertson pupil
E. None of the above
  1. Retina
A

A. Marcus-Gunn pupil

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59
Q
  1. The term lentiform nucleus refers to what structure (s)?

a. caudate nucleus and globus pallidum
b. putamen and amygdala
c. putamen and globus pallidus
d. caude nucleus, globus pallidus, and putamen
e. globus pallidus

A

c. putamen and globus pallidus

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60
Q
  1. The STN receives its dominant input from which of the following structures?

a. VL nucleus of the thalamus
b. CM nucleus of the thalamus
c. lateral globus pallidus
d. medial globus pallidus
e. cerebral cortex

A

c. lateral globus pallidus

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61
Q
  1. All of the following are afferent tracts through the inferior cerebellar peduncle EXCEPT

a. vestibulocerebellar
b. olivocerebellar
c. dorsal spinocerebellar
d. reticulocerebellar
e. corticopontocerebellar

A

e. corticopontocerebellar

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62
Q
  1. Axons of which cells leave layer V of the neocortex primarily as projection fibers?

a. stellate cells
b. fusiform cells
c. pyramidal cells
d. horizontal cells
e. fusiform cells

A

c. pyramidal cells

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63
Q
  1. which body part has the largest relative representation in the sensorimotor cortex?
    a. genitalia
    b. middle finger
    c. nipple
    d. thumb
    e. index finger
A

d. thumb

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64
Q
  1. A major difference between the archicortex and neocortex includes what?

a. absence of lamination in the archicortex
b. a six-layer arrangement of the archicortex
c. presence of a superficial layer of white matter in the archicortex
d. lack of Betz cells in the archicortex
e. the archicortex has major connections only with the limbic system

A

c. presence of a superficial layer of white matter in the archicortex

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65
Q
  1. Which nucleus of the hypothalamus is involved with production of the hypothalamic-releasing factors and gives rise to the tuberohypophysial tract?

a. dorsomedial
b. suprachiasmatic
c. arcuate
d. posterior
e. preoptic

A

c. arcuate

66
Q
  1. Which of the following constellations about hypothalamus function is/are correct?
  2. lateral and posterior hypothalamic regions concerned with sympathetic responses
  3. anterior and medial hypothalamic regions control parasympathetic responses
  4. localized, bilateral lesions of the VM nucleus in the tuberal region can produce hyperphagia
  5. bilateral posterior hypothalamic lesions can produce poikilothermia

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

A

e. semua benar

67
Q
  1. The deep peroneal nerve innervates?
  2. extensor hallucis longus
  3. extensor digitorum longus
  4. tibialis anterior
  5. peroneus longus

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

68
Q
  1. The posterior limb of the internal capsule contains all the following tracts EXCEPT?

a. prefrontal corticopontine
b. corticospinal
c. corticotectal
d. corticorubral
e. superuir thalamic radiations

A

a. prefrontal corticopontine

69
Q
  1. what is the most common neurotransmitter found in the thalamus?

a. glutamate
b. aspartate
c. GABA
d. acetylcholine
e. substance P

70
Q
  1. crossed fibers of the optic tract terminate in which layers of the lateral geniculate body?

a. 2,4,6
b. 1,4,6
c. 2,3,5
d. 1,3,5
e. 2,5,6

A

b. 1,4,6

uncrossed (ipsilateral): 2,3,5

71
Q
  1. Which is NOT a deep nucleus of the cerebellum?

a. fastigial
b. fusiform
c. emboliform
d. globose
e. dentate

A

b. fusiform

72
Q
  1. How far behind the coronal suture is the motor strip generally located?
    a. 1-2cm
    b. 2-3cm
    c. 4-5cm
    d. 7-8cm
    e. 9-10cm
73
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. Injury of the CN piercing this foramen results in diplopia and weak gaze when looking down and out
A

B. superior orbital fissure

74
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. Nerve that transvers this foramen later joins with the deep petrosal nerve to become the nerve to the pterygoid canal
75
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. injury to a small branch of the nerve passing through this canal results in hyperacusis
A

G. Internal auditory canal

76
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. The nerve passing through this foramen innervates the tensor velli palatini muscle
A

D. Foramen ovale

77
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. The CN passing through this foramen innervated by the superior salivatory nucleus to produce salivation
A

G. Internal auditory canal

78
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. The nerve passing through this foramen gives rise to GVE fibers that supply the parotid gland
A

H. Jugular foramen

79
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. The cell bodies of these afferent fibers are located in the nodosal ganglion and enter the skull through this foramen
A

H. Jugular foramen

80
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. The lesser petrosal nerve transvers this foramen
81
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. This foramen is transversed by a nerve that gives off the chorda tympani fibers
A

G. Internal auditory canal

82
Q 
A. optic canal
B. superior orbital fissure
C. foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale
E. GSPN
F. GSPF
G. Internal auditory canal
H. Jugular foramen
I. Foramen magnum
  1. Transmits the ophthalmic vein
A

B. superior orbital fissure

83
Q
  1. A 45 yo male is found to have diplopia with weakness of downward and medial gaze of the right eye. He also has significant difficulty walking down steps without tilting his head for better visualization. What CN is most likely affected?

a. right oculomotor nerve
b. left oculomotor nerve
c. left trochlear nerve
d. right trochlear nerve
e. right abducens nerve

A

c. left trochlear nerve

84
Q
  1. the following statements are true of the corticospinal tract EXCEPT?

a. approximately 3% of corticospinal fibers originate from Betz pyramidal cells
b. corticospinal fibers incompletely decussate in the medulla to form a larger lateral corticospinal tract and a smaller anterior corticospinal tract
c. the majority of cervical corticospinal fibers are found medially and sacral fibers are found laterally
d. corticospinal lesions results in hyperactive tendon jerk reflexes, extensor toe response, and spasticity after a period of hypotonis
e. terminates primarily on alpha motor neurons in lamina IX of the spinal cord

A

e. terminates primarily on alpha motor neurons in lamina IX of the spinal cord

85
Q
  1. Papez’s circuit includes all, EXCEPT?

a. amygdala
b. fornix
c. mamillary bodies
d. cingulate gyrus
e. hippocampus

A

a. amygdala

86
Q
  1. The predominant tupe of synapse in the retina is?

a. electrical
b. connexin-dependent
c. chemical
d. calcium-dependent
e. cAMP-dependent

A

c. chemical

87
Q
  1. The inner nucleus later of the terina contains what type of cell(s)?
  2. bipolar cells
  3. horizontal cells
  4. amacrine cells
  5. ganglion cells

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

88
Q 
A. VA
B. VLo
C. VPLo
D. VLo
E. Pulvinar
F. VPLo
G. Mediodorsal nucleus
H. LD
I. Anterior nuclear group
J. LGB
K. MGB
L. VPM
M. LP
  1. Area 5
89
Q 
A. VA
B. VLo
C. VPLo
D. VLo
E. Pulvinar
F. VPLo
G. Mediodorsal nucleus
H. LD
I. Anterior nuclear group
J. LGB
K. MGB
L. VPM
M. LP
  1. superior colliculus
A

E. Pulvinar

90
Q 
A. VA
B. VLo
C. VPLo
D. VLo
E. Pulvinar
F. VPLo
G. Mediodorsal nucleus
H. LD
I. Anterior nuclear group
J. LGB
K. MGB
L. VPM
M. LP
  1. Medial lemniscus
91
Q 
A. VA
B. VLo
C. VPLo
D. VLo
E. Pulvinar
F. VPLo
G. Mediodorsal nucleus
H. LD
I. Anterior nuclear group
J. LGB
K. MGB
L. VPM
M. LP
  1. Mammilothalamic tract; fornix
A

I. Anterior nuclear group

92
Q 
A. VA
B. VLo
C. VPLo
D. VLo
E. Pulvinar
F. VPLo
G. Mediodorsal nucleus
H. LD
I. Anterior nuclear group
J. LGB
K. MGB
L. VPM
M. LP
  1. Inferior colliculus; lateral lemniscus
93
Q 
A. VA
B. VLo
C. VPLo
D. VLo
E. Pulvinar
F. VPLo
G. Mediodorsal nucleus
H. LD
I. Anterior nuclear group
J. LGB
K. MGB
L. VPM
M. LP
  1. optic tract
94
Q 
A. VA
B. VLo
C. VPLo
D. VLo
E. Pulvinar
F. VPLo
G. Mediodorsal nucleus
H. LD
I. Anterior nuclear group
J. LGB
K. MGB
L. VPM
M. LP
  1. trigeminothalamic tract
95
Q 
A. VA
B. VLo
C. VPLo
D. VLo
E. Pulvinar
F. VPLo
G. Mediodorsal nucleus
H. LD
I. Anterior nuclear group
J. LGB
K. MGB
L. VPM
M. LP
  1. cerebellar nuclei
96
Q
  1. All statements concerning of the medulla oblongata are correct EXCEPT?

a. extends from the pyramidal decussation to the inferior pontine sulcus
b. receives a portion of its blood supply from the posterior spinal artery
c. gives rise to GVE fibers that synapse in the oric ganglia
d. gives rise to the lateral vestibular nuclei
e. is the origin of GVE fibers that synapse in the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes of the heart

A

d. gives rise to the lateral vestibular nuclei

di Pons

97
Q
  1. A 54 yo male presents with ptosis, myosis, and hemianhydrosis on the left side, loss of vibration sensation in the right leg, loss of pain and temperature on the face, trunk, and extremities on the right, as well as severe ataxia and intention tremor on the left side. The lesion responsible for this constellation of problems is most likely in what location?

a. caudal midbrain tegmentum, left side
b. rostral medulla, medial zone, right side
c. caudal medulla, lateral zone, left sided.
d. pontine isthmus, dorsal lateral region, left side
e. posterior limb of the internal capsule

A

d. pontine isthmus, dorsal lateral region, left side

  • ptosis, myosis, and hemianhydrosis on the left side -> Horner’s syndrome (desecending sympathetic tract, ipsilateral)
  • loss of vibration sensation in the right leg -> medial lemniscus
  • loss of pain and temperature on the face, trunk, and extremities on the right -> trigeminothalamic & spinothalamic tract (centralateral)
  • severe ataxia and intention tremor on the left side -> superior cerebellar peduncle (ipsilateral)
98
Q
  1. An infarct involving the paramedian part of the midbrain would most likely affect?
  2. oculomotor nerve roots (CN III)
  3. red nucleus
  4. dentatorubrothalamic tract
  5. lateral lemniscus

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

99
Q
  1. all of the following structures are involved with taste sensation EXCEPT?

a. CN VII, IX, X
b. solitary nucleus
c. parabrachial nucleus
d. hypothalamus
e. para bigeminal nucleus

A

e. para bigeminal nucleus

100
Q
  1. for proper motor function, the motor cortex receives inputs from all of the following EXCEPT?

a. parietal cortex
b. basal ganglia
c. dentate nucleus
d. primary somesthetic area (S I)
e. CM nucleus of the thalamus

A

e. CM nucleus of the thalamus

101
Q
  1. Nitric oxide, a potent second messenger, is synthesized from which?

a. lysine
b. arginine
c. tyrosine
d. dopamine
e. beta lipoprotein

A

b. arginine

102
Q
  1. Which of the following fibers violate the Bell-Magendie law?

a. peripheral proprioceptive fibers
b. unmyelinated C fibers from pelvic viscera
c. lower extremity motor fibers to appendicular musculature
d. GVE fibers to the proximal GI tract
E. Non of the above

A

b. unmyelinated C fibers from pelvic viscera

Bell-Magendie Law
- all motor fibers exit via ventral roots
- all sensory fibers exit via dorsal roots
unmyelinated C fibers (transmit pain & temp = sensory) -> reside in the ventral roots (L5-S9)

103
Q
  1. Which descending tracts utilizes serotonin as its neurotransmitter?

a. tectospinal
b. MLF
c. reticulospinal
d. vestibulospinal
e. rubrospinal

A

c. reticulospinal

104
Q
  1. What is the target of SN efferent fibers?

a. thalamus
b. internal segment of the globus pallidus
c. striatum
d. A and C
e. A, B, and C

A

d. A and C

105
Q
  1. Which structures contains olfactory projections to the hypothalamus?

a. lateral olfactory stria
b. medial forebrain bundle
c. stria medullary thalami
d. diagonal band of Broca
e. latera lemniscus

A

b. medial forebrain bundle

106
Q
  1. Which dorsal roots is frequently missing?

a. C1
b. C8
c. T1
d. T12
e. S2

107
Q
  1. The junction of the central and peripheral nervous systems occurs at what location?

a. dorsal root ganglia
b. junction of the dorsal and ventral roots
c. ventral horn of the spinal cord and CN
d. site of attachment of nerve roots to spinal cord and brainstem, respectively
e. gray rami communicantes

A

d. site of attachment of nerve roots to spinal cord and brainstem, respectively

108
Q
  1. A 45 yo male presents with pain and numbness in the fifth digit of the right hand. These symptomps may occur secondary to a lesion in what location?
  2. Medial cord of the brachial plexus
  3. ulnar nerve
  4. C8 nerve root
  5. C7 nerve root

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

109
Q

Presigmoid transpetrous approach
123. What CN is particularly vulnerable to injury during the initial exposure?

a. IV
b. V
c. VI
d. VII
e. X

110
Q

Presigmoid transpetrous approach
124. What vascular structure is most frequently cauterized and divided to increase exposure during this approach?

a. inferior petrosal sinus
b. sigmoid sinus
c. occipital sinus
d. superior petrosal sinus
e. precentral cerebellar vein

A

d. superior petrosal sinus

111
Q

A. posterior hypothalamus
B. anterior hypothalamus
C. lateral hypothalamus
D. none of the above

  1. Precocious puberty
A

A. posterior hypothalamus

112
Q

A. posterior hypothalamus
B. anterior hypothalamus
C. lateral hypothalamus
D. none of the above

  1. Starvation
A

C. lateral hypothalamus

113
Q

A. posterior hypothalamus
B. anterior hypothalamus
C. lateral hypothalamus
D. none of the above

  1. Hyperthermia
A

B. anterior hypothalamus

114
Q

A. posterior hypothalamus
B. anterior hypothalamus
C. lateral hypothalamus
D. none of the above

  1. Emotional lethargy, excessive sleepiness, hypothermia
A

A. posterior hypothalamus

115
Q

A. posterior hypothalamus
B. anterior hypothalamus
C. lateral hypothalamus
D. none of the above

  1. Decreased dopamine synthesis
A

D. none of the above

Arcuate nuclei, paraventricular region

116
Q
  1. The inferior parietal lobule consists of what gyri?
  2. lingual
  3. angular
  4. lateral occipital gyrus
  5. supramarginal

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

117
Q
  1. contractions of the stapedius and tensor tympani muscles are initiated by inputs from?

a. inferior colliculus
b. superior temporal gyrus (Heschl’s gyrus)
c. superior olivary nucleus
d. inner hair cells of the cochlea
e. cochlerar nucleus

A

c. superior olivary nucleus

118
Q
  1. Root fibers entering the spinal trigeminal tract have definite topographical organization. All of the following are correct about this tract EXCEPT?

a. fibers of the ophthalmic division are ventral
b. fibers of the mandibular division are dorsal
c. the fibers of the maxillary division lie in an intermediate location between the mandibular and ophthamic fibers
d. this tract extends from the trigeminal root entry zone to the uppermost cervical spinal segments
e. rostrally this tract blends into the solitary nucleus

A

e. rostrally this tract blends into the solitary nucleus

119
Q
  1. Which is/are secreted by the pineal gland?
  2. serotonin
  3. melatonin
  4. norepinephrine
  5. substance P

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

120
Q
  1. Which CNS locations contains melanocytes?
  2. ventral nucleus
  3. inferior medullary velum
  4. upper spinal cord
  5. habenular nucleus

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

121
Q
  1. Which is formed directly from the embryologic notochord?

a. nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc
b. vertebral bodies
c. spinal canal
d. choroid plexus
e. dorsal root ganglia

A

a. nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc

122
Q
  1. the blood supply to the anterior limb of the internal capsule originates from the:

a. anterior choroidal artery
b. interolateral artery
c. recurrent artery of Heubner
d. tuberoinfundibular artery
e. basilar communicating artery of Percheron

A

c. recurrent artery of Heubner

123
Q
  1. the blood supply to the posterior limb of the internal capsule originates from the:

a. anterior choroidal artery
b. interolateral artery
c. recurrent artery of Heubner
d. tuberoinfundibular artery
e. basilar communicating artery of Percheron

A

a. anterior choroidal artery

124
Q
  1. Gustatory afferents from CN VII end in?

a. nucleus salivatorius
b. mesencephalic sensory nucleus
c. nucleus of solitatius
d. nucleus of Roller
e. pontine facial nucleus

A

c. nucleus of solitatius

125
Q
  1. All contain parasympathetic fibers EXCEPT?

a. CN VII
b. CN IX
c. CN X
d. CN XI
e. CN XII

126
Q 
A. Mainly C5
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. axillary nerve
D. anterior interossesous nerve
E. ulnar nerve
F median nerve
G. radial nerve
H. suprascapular nerve
I. musculocutaneous nerve
  1. Abductor pollicis brevis
A

F median nerve

127
Q 
A. Mainly C5
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. axillary nerve
D. anterior interossesous nerve
E. ulnar nerve
F median nerve
G. radial nerve
H. suprascapular nerve
I. musculocutaneous nerve
  1. infraspinatus
A

H. suprascapular nerve

128
Q 
A. Mainly C5
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. axillary nerve
D. anterior interossesous nerve
E. ulnar nerve
F median nerve
G. radial nerve
H. suprascapular nerve
I. musculocutaneous nerve
  1. deltoid
A

C. axillary nerve

129
Q 
A. Mainly C5
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. axillary nerve
D. anterior interossesous nerve
E. ulnar nerve
F median nerve
G. radial nerve
H. suprascapular nerve
I. musculocutaneous nerve
  1. bradhioradialis
A

G. radial nerve

130
Q 
A. Mainly C5
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. axillary nerve
D. anterior interossesous nerve
E. ulnar nerve
F median nerve
G. radial nerve
H. suprascapular nerve
I. musculocutaneous nerve
  1. biceps
A

I. musculocutaneous nerve

131
Q 
A. Mainly C5
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. axillary nerve
D. anterior interossesous nerve
E. ulnar nerve
F median nerve
G. radial nerve
H. suprascapular nerve
I. musculocutaneous nerve
  1. adductor pollicis
A

E. ulnar nerve

132
Q 
A. Mainly C5
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. axillary nerve
D. anterior interossesous nerve
E. ulnar nerve
F median nerve
G. radial nerve
H. suprascapular nerve
I. musculocutaneous nerve
  1. pronator quadratus
A

D. anterior interossesous nerve

133
Q 
A. Mainly C5
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. axillary nerve
D. anterior interossesous nerve
E. ulnar nerve
F median nerve
G. radial nerve
H. suprascapular nerve
I. musculocutaneous nerve
  1. rhomboid
A

A. Mainly C5

134
Q 
A. Mainly C5
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. axillary nerve
D. anterior interossesous nerve
E. ulnar nerve
F median nerve
G. radial nerve
H. suprascapular nerve
I. musculocutaneous nerve
  1. latissimus dorsi
A

B. Thoracodorsal nerve

135
Q

A. orbitofrontal (frontal pole) syndrome
B. frontal convexity syndrome
C. medial frontal syndrome
D. None of the above

  1. mutism, gait disturbance, and incontinence
A

C. medial frontal syndrome

136
Q

A. orbitofrontal (frontal pole) syndrome
B. frontal convexity syndrome
C. medial frontal syndrome
D. None of the above

  1. indifference, apathy, motor preservation, and impersistence
A

B. frontal convexity syndrome

137
Q

A. orbitofrontal (frontal pole) syndrome
B. frontal convexity syndrome
C. medial frontal syndrome
D. None of the above

  1. impulsiveness, euphoria, poor judgment
A

A. orbitofrontal (frontal pole) syndrome

138
Q

A. orbitofrontal (frontal pole) syndrome
B. frontal convexity syndrome
C. medial frontal syndrome
D. None of the above

  1. tendency to explore objects orally
A

D. None of the above

Temporal lobe

139
Q

A. orbitofrontal (frontal pole) syndrome
B. frontal convexity syndrome
C. medial frontal syndrome
D. None of the above

  1. apraxia of gait or “magnetic gait”
A

C. medial frontal syndrome

140
Q

A. orbitofrontal (frontal pole) syndrome
B. frontal convexity syndrome
C. medial frontal syndrome
D. None of the above

  1. “Salutatory serizure”
A

C. medial frontal syndrome

141
Q
  1. The vertebral arteries travel in the transverse foramina of

a. C6 to C2
b. C4 to C2
c. C7 to C1
d. C7 to C2
e. C8 to C1

A

a. C6 to C2

142
Q
  1. A relative afferent pupillary defect is NOT seen with lesions involving the

a. retina
b. lateral geniculate body
c. pretectal nucleus
d. optic nerve
e. optic chiasm

A

b. lateral geniculate body

143
Q
  1. If the left eye shows a realtive afferent pupillary defect, the right eye will

a. immediately constrict when the light is swung to the left
b. immediately dilate when the light is swung to the right
c. dilate when the light is swung from the right eye to the left
d. remain unchanged when the light is swung to the left
e. remain dilated at all times

A

c. dilate when the light is swung from the right eye to the left

144
Q
  1. which eye muscles receives contralateral nuclear innervation?
  2. inferior oblique
  3. superior rectus
  4. inferior rectus
  5. superior oblique

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3
c. 2,4
d. 4
e. semua benar

145
Q
  1. “Periodic alternating gaze” is usually seen with

a. frontal seizure foci
b. posterior fossa lesions
c. persistent muscle spams of the face and jaw
d. bilateral paramedian pontine reticular formation lesions
e. bilateral MLF lesions

A

b. posterior fossa lesions

146
Q 
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. IX
E. X
F. None of the above
  1. Sneeze reflex
147
Q 
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. IX
E. X
F. None of the above
  1. cough reflex
148
Q 
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. IX
E. X
F. None of the above
  1. gag reflex
149
Q 
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. IX
E. X
F. None of the above
  1. carotid sinus
150
Q 
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. IX
E. X
F. None of the above
  1. corneal blink reflex
151
Q 
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. IX
E. X
F. None of the above
  1. jaw-jerk reflex
152
Q 
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. IX
E. X
F. None of the above
  1. tearing reflex
153
Q 
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. IX
E. X
F. None of the above
  1. Pupillary light reflex
A

F. None of the above

154
Q 
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. IX
E. X
F. None of the above
  1. Opticokinetic reflex
A

F. None of the above

155
Q
  1. Which neurons are cholinergic?

a. Purkinje neurons of the cerebellum
b. substansia innominata
c. interneurons of the SN
d. neurons in the ganglionic layer of the retina
e. interneurons of the collicular plate

A

d. neurons in the ganglionic layer of the retina

156
Q
  1. A lesion in what location could result in partial bilateral deafness?

a. ventral cochlear nucleus
b. dorsal cochlear nucleus
c. inner hair cells of the retina
d. lateral lemniscus
e. cochlear nerve

A

d. lateral lemniscus

157
Q 
A. NE
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
E. Glycine
F. GABA
G. None of the above
  1. Golgi type II interneurons
158
Q 
A. NE
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
E. Glycine
F. GABA
G. None of the above
  1. Dorsal raphe nucleus
A

B. Serotonin

159
Q 
A. NE
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
E. Glycine
F. GABA
G. None of the above
  1. Locus ceruleus
160
Q 
A. NE
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
E. Glycine
F. GABA
G. None of the above
  1. Medial raphe nucleus
A

B. Serotonin

161
Q 
A. NE
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
E. Glycine
F. GABA
G. None of the above
  1. Substantia nigra
A

C. Dopamine

Final Battle (7 decks)

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