neuro trivia Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The inverted omega controls motor to what body part? What sulcus?

A

hand

central sulcus

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2
Q

ACA controls what body parts? MCA?

A

ACA = legs

MCA = everything else

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3
Q

Do perivascular spaces contain CSF or interstitial fluid?

A

interstitial fluid

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4
Q

What foramen looks like a gun barrel on coronals?

A

FR

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5
Q

WHat foramen looks like a footprint?

A

ovale

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6
Q

WHat foramen looks like a footprint?

A

ovale

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7
Q

WHat foramen looks like a heel print?

A

spinosum

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8
Q

What are the two components of the jugular foramen?

A

pars nervosa

pars vascularis

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9
Q

Which is anterior/lateral, pars nervosa or jugularis?

A

pars nervosa is anterior/lateral

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10
Q

What does the pars nervosa contain?

A

CN 9 and jacobsons nerve

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11
Q

What nerves are in the pars vascularis?

A

CN 10 and 11

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12
Q

What nerves run in the cavernous sinus?

A

CN3

CN4

V1

V2

CN 6

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13
Q

What vessel run in the cavernous sinus?

A

carotid

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14
Q

What nerve in the cavernous sinus runs next to the carotid?

A

CN 6

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15
Q

What nerves are contained in superior orbital fissure?

A

CN3, CN4, V1 and CN6

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16
Q

What nerves are contained in inferior orbital fissure?

A

V2

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17
Q

What anatomical structure is contained in Dorello’s canal?

A

abducens

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18
Q

What is the mnemonic for the branching of the external carotid artery?

A

Some Admins Love Fucking Over Poor Medical Students

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19
Q

Is flow reversal in the carotid bulb normal or abnormal?

A

normal

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20
Q

Which branch of the ICA can have a retropharyngeal course?

A

cervical

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21
Q

ANeurysms of what ICA branch are associated with HTN?

A

cavernous

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22
Q

Persistent trigeminal artery connects which two vessels?

A

cavernous ICA to basilar

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23
Q

Persistent trigeminal increases the risk of developing what type of vascular abnormality?

A

branch point aneurysm

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24
Q

What sinus connects the ISS to the midline transverse sinus?

A

straight sinus

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25
Q

What sinus drains into the juncture of the ISS and straight sinus?

A

vein of Galen

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26
Q

What two structures drain into the vein of galen?

A

internal cerebral veins

basal veins of rosenthal

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27
Q

Which vein drains the cavernous sinus into the transverse sinus?

A

superior petrosal vein

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28
Q

Which vein drains the cavernous sinus into the IJ?

A

inferior petrosal vein

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29
Q

What two veins are connected by the vein of trolard?

A

superficial middle cerebral vein to SSS

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30
Q

What two veins are connected by the vein of labbe?

A

SMCV to transverse sinus

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31
Q

Which CN can get stretched in the brainstem herniates inferiorly?

A

CN6

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32
Q

What two structures are normally myelinated at birch?

A

brainsteam

posterior limb of internal capsule

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33
Q

What two directions does brain myelination occur in?

A

inferior –> superior

posterior –> anterior

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34
Q

What pituitary lobes are T1 hyperintense at birth?

A

both

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35
Q

What pituitary lobes are T1 hyperintense at birth?

A

both

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36
Q

What two sinuses are present at birth?

A

maxillary and ethmoid

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37
Q

What is the last sinus to develop?

A

frontal

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38
Q

Does the corpus callosum myelinate from front to back or back to front? What is the last structure to be myelinated/form?

A

front to back

rostrum

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39
Q

What is colpocephaly? What condition is it associated with?

A

dilated occipital horns of lateral ventricles

agenesis of splenium of corpus callosum

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40
Q

What intracranial lesion is associated with agenesis of the corpus callosum?

A

intra-cranial lipoma

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41
Q

Will anencephaly have oligohydramnios or polyhydramnios?

A

poly (can’t swallow without brain)

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42
Q

What lab will be elevated with anencephaly?

A

AFP

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43
Q

What is iniencephaly?

A

neural tube defect at the level of the cervical spine

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44
Q

What are the components of the Dandy Walker malformation?

A
  1. Vermian hypoplasia
  2. enlarged/cystic 4th ventricle
  3. torcula above lambdoid
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45
Q

What is the term for a fused cerebellum?

A

rhomboencephalosynapsis

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46
Q

What is elongated during joubert syndrome?

A

superior cerebellar peduncles

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47
Q

What three conditions are associated with Joubert syndrome?

A

retinitis pigmentosa

liver fibrosis

multicystic dysplastic kidneys

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48
Q

What is the definition of mega cisterna magna?

A

“cystic dilation of the retro-cerebellar CSF space”

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49
Q

What is the definition of blake pouch?

A

“sac like protrusion of CSF through foramen of magendie into the posterior fossa”

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50
Q

What is a blake pouch associated with?

A

hydro

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51
Q

At what week of gestation is vermis/vermian development complete?

A

18 weeks

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52
Q

Does the brain cleave/divide from front to back or back to front?

A

back to front

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53
Q

Where are the cerebral hemispheres fused during lobar holoprosencephaly?

A

frontal lobes

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54
Q

Where are the cerebral hemispheres fused during lobar holoprosencephaly?

A

frontal lobes

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55
Q

Will the thalamus be fused or separated during lobar holoprosencephaly?

A

separated

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56
Q

With semi-lobar HPE, which lobes are fused? How much?

A

frontal

> 50%

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57
Q

What is arhineencephaly?

A

congenital anosmia

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58
Q

What is arhineencephaly?

A

congenital anosmia

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59
Q

What are the three components of meckel gruber syndrome?

A
  1. occipital encephalocele
  2. multiple renal cysts
  3. poly-dactyl
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60
Q

What structures are absent or hypoplastic in septo-optic dyaplasia?

A

hypoplastic optic structures

absent septum pellucidum

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61
Q

What cleavage problem is septo-optic dysplasia associated with?

A

schizencephaly

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62
Q

What does hemi-megalencephaly look like?

A

unilateral cerebral hemisphere and lateral ventricle enlargement

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63
Q

What does Rasmussen Encephalitis look like?

A

atrophic cerebral hemisphere and enlarged lateral ventricle

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64
Q

What condition is associated with lissencephaly?

A

colpocephlay

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65
Q

What is band heterotopia associated with?

A

seizures

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66
Q

Type 2 Lissencephaly features what finding? Where? Why?

A

gray matter nodules

usually located near sylvian fissures

over migration of neurons

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66
Q

Type 2 Lissencephaly features what finding? Where?

A

gray matter nodules

usually located near sylvian fissures

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67
Q

What two conditions is Type 2 Lissencephaly associated with?

A

retinal detachment

muscular dystrophy

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68
Q

Periventricular Nodular Heterotopia is associated with what neurological condition?

A

seizures

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69
Q

Do heterotopias enhance?

A

no

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70
Q

What virus is responsible for south american PMG?

A

zika

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71
Q

Does porencephlaic cyst have a gray matter lining? What is it?

A

no

encephalomalacia

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72
Q

What three structures will be present with hydranencephaly?

A
  1. midbrain
  2. falx
  3. cerebellum
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73
Q

Will alobar HPE have a falx?

A

no

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74
Q

Will semi-lobar HPE have a falx?

A

usually not

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75
Q

All types of chiari malformation share what feature?

A

downward displaced cerebellum

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76
Q

What needs to be screen for with a type 1 chiari?

A

cervical cord syrinx

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77
Q

In addition to tonsillar herniation, what are the four classic features of Type 2 Chiari?

A

tectal beaking

low torcula

hydro

clival hypoplasia

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78
Q

Other than a cervical cord syrinx, what cervical spine abnormality is associated with Chiari I?

A

klippel feil

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79
Q

A type III chiari has the features of a type 2 chiari and what else?

A

occipital encephalocele

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80
Q

What are the three typical findings for mesial temporal sclerosis?

A
  1. reduced hippocampal volume
  2. increased T2 signal
  3. loss of morphology
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81
Q

what is the name of the brain volume hypothesis?

A

Monro-Kellie

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82
Q

What is the best sign for CSF shunt infection?

A

debris in ventricles

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83
Q

Does cytotoxic edema favor the grey or WM?

A

grey

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84
Q

Does vasogenic edema favor the grey or WM?

A

WM

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85
Q

Duret Hemorrhages are caused by what vessel?

A

“perforating basilar artery branches”

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86
Q

What is Kernohans Notch?

A

midbrain indentation on tentorium

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87
Q

What part of the pons is affected by demyelination?

A

central

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88
Q

What does Wernicke Encephalopathy look like on FLAIR?

A

T2 bright, medial thalamus

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89
Q

What can enhance with Wernicke Encephalopathy?

A

Mamillary bodies

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90
Q

What does Marchiafava-Bignami look like on MRI?

A

T2 bright and swollen corpus callosum

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91
Q

Chronic Marchiafava-Bignami can have cystic lesions where?

A

genu and splenium of corpus callosum

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92
Q

What part of the cerebellum atrophies with alcoholic use?

A

vermian

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93
Q

What can the basal ganglia look like with liver disease? What elements are deposited?

A

T1 bright basal ganglia

copper and/or manganese

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94
Q

What are the three classical findings of methanol toxicity?

A
  1. optic nerve atrophy
  2. putamen hemorrhage
  3. WM necrosis
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95
Q

What is medial, the putamen or globus pallidus?

A

GP

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96
Q

CO poisoning hit what part of the brain?

A

globus pallidus

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97
Q

Whole brain radiation can cause what sequela?

A

cavernous malformation

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98
Q

Post-XRT meningiomas occur at what time frame after therapy?

A

15 years

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99
Q

FLAIR or T2 for infra-tentorial MS lesions?

A

T2

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100
Q

What type of WM disease does not effect the callosal-septal interface?

A

ADEM

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101
Q

What is another name for NMO?

A

Devic’s Disease

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102
Q

What is another name for Hurst Disease?

A

Acute Hemorrhagic Leukoencephalitis

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103
Q

What is another name for Binswanger’s Disease?

A

subcortical arteriosclerotic encephalopathy

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104
Q

Does Binswangers/SAE effect GM, WM or both? Where specifically?

A

WM only

centrum semiovale

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105
Q

Binswangers in a patient under 40 should make you think of what disease?

A

CADASIL

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106
Q

What do CADASIL pt’s usually present with?

A

migraines

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107
Q

What lobe is classically effected during CADASIL?

A

temporal

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108
Q

What lobe is classically UN-effected during CADASIL?

A

occipital

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109
Q

Where will Alzheimer Disease display low FDG uptake?

A

posterior temporal/parietal lobes

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110
Q

What kind of hallucinations with Lewy Body Dementia?

A

visual

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111
Q

What comes first with lewy body dementia, parkinsonian features or dementia?

A

dementia

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112
Q

Are the hippocampi normal in lewy body dementia?

A

yes

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113
Q

What lobes are atrophied with Picks?

A

bi-frontal, symmetric

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114
Q

What lobes have decreased FDG uptake in Lewy body dementia?

A

lateral occipital

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115
Q

Where does Pick’s Disease have low FDG avidity in the brain?

A

frontal and temporal lobes

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116
Q

Where does Pick’s Disease have low FDG avidity in the brain?

A

frontal and temporal lobes

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117
Q

What part of brain is spared in lewy body dementia in regard to FDG avidity?

A

cingulate gyrus

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118
Q

What part of the basal ganglia is affected by Fahr disease first?

A

globus pallidus

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119
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Hallervorden Spatz disease?

A

iron deposition in the globus pallidus

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120
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Leigh Disease?

A

mitochondrial disorder

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121
Q

What does Leigh Disease look like on MRI?

A

T2 bright basal ganglia, brainstem and peduncles

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122
Q

Where does MELAS produce strokes?

A

gray matter of parietal/occipital

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123
Q

What suture is “beaked” in Hurler Disease?

A

metopic

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124
Q

What is enlarged in the brain with hurler syndrome?

A

peri-vascular spaces

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125
Q

What is the radiotracer for a DAT scan?

A

Ioflupane-123

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126
Q

What should the caudate look like on a normal DAT scan?

A

comma

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127
Q

What two structures are preserved in PSP (?) that are otherwise abnormal in parkinsonian diseases?

A

Midbrain

superior cerebellalar peduncles

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128
Q

What two parts of the brain are atrophhied during MSA?

A

pons

cerebellar peduncles

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129
Q

What atrophies during during Progressive Supranuclear Palsy?

A

Tegmentum

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130
Q

What does Wilson disease look like on MR?

A

T2 bright tegmentum

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131
Q

DBS leads need to be less than what distance from the midline?

A

< 9mm

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132
Q

What does PPM mean in regards to MRS?

A

one millionth of a larmor frequency

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133
Q

In regards to MRS, lipids are a marker of what?

A

brain necrosis

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134
Q

What two conditions feature an increased lactate peak?

A

anaerobic metabolism

cerebral abscess

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135
Q

When is it normal to see an elevated lactate peak?

A

first hours of life

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136
Q

What two peaks can superimpose of themselves?

A

lactate and lipids

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137
Q

What is an NAA a marker of?

A

neuronal viability

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138
Q

When is glutamine increased?

A

hepatic encephalopathy

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139
Q

When is creatinine decreased?

A

tumor necrosis

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140
Q

What is choline a marker for?

A

cell membrane turnover

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141
Q

ALD WM changes dominate in which two lobes ?

A

parietal and occipital

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142
Q

Which leukodystrophy can extend across the splenium?

A

ALD

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143
Q

What structure is spared during metachromatic leukodystrophy?

A

U-fibers

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144
Q

What structure is spared during metachromatic leukodystrophy?

A

U-fibers

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145
Q

WHat is the location of WM abnormality with metachromatic leukodystrophy?

A

peri-ventricular

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146
Q

What is the location of WM abnormality with alexander disease?

A

frontal

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147
Q

What is the location of WM abnormality with canavan disease?

A

bilateral, diffuse, U-fiber

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148
Q

What leukodystrophy has high attenuating foci in the deep brain structures?

A

krabbe disease

149
Q

What is another name for Leigh Disease?

A

Subacute Necrotizing Encephalo-Myelopathy

150
Q

What are the two low grade enhancing primary CNS malignancies?

A

ganglioglioma

pilocytic astrocytoma

151
Q

What is the acronym for bleeding metastasis?

A

MRCT

(melanoma, renal, carcinoid, choriocarcinoma, thyroid

152
Q

What are the two CNS neoplasms of NF1?

A

optic glioma

astrocytoma

153
Q

What are the two neoplasms for T.S.?

A

subependymal tubers

SEGA

154
Q

What is the mnemonic for cortically based tumors? Name them bitch.

A

PDOG

PXA, DNET, Oligodendroglioma, Ganglioglioma

155
Q

What lobe is most often involved with a PXA? What do they look like?

A

temporal

cyst with mural nodule

156
Q

What other CNS neoplasm looks just like a PXA?

A

D.I.G.

157
Q

How does DNET present?

A

kid with intractable seizures

158
Q

What is one word to describe DNET?

A

“Bubbly”

159
Q

What is one word to describe DNET? Located where?

A

“Bubbly”

temporal lobe

160
Q

Bright rim sign is indicative of what CNS neoplasm? What sequence?

A

DNET

FLAIR

161
Q

What does oligodendroglioma do 90% of time?

A

calcify bitch

162
Q

What lobe is oligodendroglioma most often found in?

A

frontal

163
Q

What is the “anything goes” tumor?

A

Ganglioglioma

164
Q

Do medulloblastoma or ependymoma arise from the FLOOR of the 4th ventricle?

A

ependymoma

165
Q

Do medulloblastoma or ependymoma arise from the ROOF of the 4th ventricle?

A

medullo

166
Q

Where do SEGA arise?

A

lateral wall of lateral ventricle near foramen of monroe

167
Q

Is a subependymoma within the lateral ventricles more of an adult or pediatric presentation?

A

adult

168
Q

What is the most common ventricular CNS malignancy in adults? What do these malignancies often do?

A

central neurocytoma

calcify

169
Q

Where will a choroid plexus in an adult be?

A

4th ventricle

170
Q

What is the name for the benign choroid plexus mass? What do they do on MR?

A

xanthogranuloma

restrict

171
Q

What is the most common ventricular location for metastasis? Why?

A

trigone of lateral ventricle

blood supply

172
Q

What is the most common ventricular location for metastasis? Why?

A

trigone of lateral ventricle

blood supply

173
Q

What benign ventricular lesion can cause sudden/acute hydro?

A

colloid cyst

174
Q

Vestibular schwannomas should make you think what disease?

A

NF2

175
Q

What can a vestibular schwannoma widen?

A

porus acousticus

176
Q

Which CPA mass can invade the internal auditory canal, meningioma or schwannoma?

A

schwannoma

177
Q

An LP can contribute to what acquired lesion?

A

epidermoid

178
Q

Where are dermoid cysts usually located?

A

midline

179
Q

What condition are dermoid cysts associated with?

A

NF2

180
Q

A ruptured dermoid can cause what?

A

chemical meningitis

181
Q

Dermoids behave like what substance?

A

fat

182
Q

What will calcify, ATRT or medulloblastoma?

A

ATRT

183
Q

“Increased head Circumference” is associated with what pediatric CNS malignancy?

A

ATRT

184
Q

What are the two locations for a JPA?

A

posterior fossa

optic chiasm

185
Q

What genetic mutation does an oligodendroglioma have?

A

1p/19q deletion

186
Q

T2/FLAIR mismatch is seen with what two CNS malignancies?

A

Grade 2 and 3 astrocytoma

187
Q

What is the radiotracer for CNS lymphoma?

A

thallium

188
Q

What is the differential for periventricular/ependymal enhancement?

A

CMV

Lymphoma

189
Q

“Rapidly increasing head circumference” is indicative of what CNS malignancy?

A

DIG (diffuse infantile ganglioglioma)

190
Q

What do DIGs look like on imaging?

A

big cystic lesions

191
Q

When do DIGs usually present by?

A

first birthday

192
Q

What is the most common vertebral body location for a chordoma?

A

C2

193
Q

A soft tissue sarcoma that can mimmic the appearance of a meningioma is called what?

A

hemangiopericytoma

194
Q

What can hemangiopericytomas invade?

A

skull

195
Q

What is the most common dural met primary ?

A

breast

196
Q

A macroadenoma is bigger than what size?

A

> 1 cm

197
Q

Do pituitary adenomas enhance more or less than the normal pituitary?

A

less

198
Q

Where are rathke cleft cysts usually located?

A

between anterior and posterior pituitary

199
Q

What type of craniopharyngioma is seen in adults?

A

papillary

200
Q

What type of craniopharyngioma is seen in kids?

A

adamantinoma

201
Q

What type of craniopharyngioma is calcified?

A

adamantinoma type

202
Q

Where does a hypothalamic hamartoma occur?

A

tuber cinereum

203
Q

Are pineal germinomas seen exclusively in boys or girls?

A

boys

204
Q

What are the two components of the pineal germinoma?

A

fat and calcs

205
Q

What pineal gland malignancy is associated with retinoblastoma?

A

pineal-blastoma

206
Q

What is Lhermitte-Duclos syndrome? What do these lesions represent? What is needed next?

A

dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma

hamartoma

cowden syndrome –> breast cancer –> mammogram

207
Q

What is the MRS marker for a glioma?

A

NAA

208
Q

What is the MRS marker for a meningioma?

A

alanine

209
Q

What infection is associated with periventricular calcifications?

A

CMV

210
Q

What congenital infection has the highest association with polymicrogyria?

A

CMV

211
Q

Calcifications from what neonatal infection target the basal ganglia?

A

toxo

212
Q

What neonatal infection is associated with hydro?

A

toxo

213
Q

What does HSV encephalitis look like?

A

deep white matter T2 hyperintense

214
Q

Does HSV encephalitis effect the subcortical U fibers?

A

no

215
Q

Does PML effect the subcortical U fibers?

A

yes

216
Q

What is the most common presentation for CNS cryptococcus in an AIDS patient?

A

increased perivascular spaces with gelatinous crap

217
Q

What is the most common presentation for CNS cryptococcus in an AIDS patient?

A

dilated perivascular spaces with gelatinous crap

218
Q

Where do cryptococcomas tend to occur?

A

basal ganglia

219
Q

Is toxo thallium hot or cold?

A

cold

220
Q

Is lymphoma thallium hot or cold?

A

hot

221
Q

TB meningitis has a predilection to involve what structures?

A

basal cisterns

222
Q

HSV encephalitis does not effect what structure? What does this exclude it from?

A

basal ganglia

proximal MCA stroke

223
Q

What is the earliest finding on MR of HSV encephalitis?

A

diffusion restriction

224
Q

What syndrome can mimmic HSV encephalitis? What type of syndrome is this considered?

A

Limbic encephalitis

paraneoplastic

225
Q

What does West Nile look like on imaging?

A

T2 bright basal ganglia and thalamus

226
Q

Will West Nile Encephalitis restrict?

A

yes

227
Q

What neuro-degenerative disease can cause rapidly progressing cerebral atrophy?

A

CJD

228
Q

What can infants get in regards to meningitis/cerebral abscess that adults often dont?

A

“Sterile, Reactive, Subdurals”

229
Q

Where is Grade 1 DAI located?

A

grey/white junction

230
Q

Where is Grade 2 DAI located?

A

corpus callosum

231
Q

Where is Grade 3 DAI located?

A

brainstem

232
Q

What is the time frame for blood to be hypoattenuating on CT?

A

less than one hour

233
Q

What is the baby sound mnemonic?

A

IB

ID

BD

BB

DD

234
Q

What are the five time points for the baby sound mnemonic?

A

< 24 hours

1-3 days

> 3 days

> 7 days

> 14 days

235
Q

What can cause a fake out for SAH on FLAIR imaging?

A

supplemental O2

236
Q

What are the two classic symptoms of superficial siderosis?

A

sensorineural hearing loss

ataxia

237
Q

What is the most common location for hypertensive hemorrhage in the deep brain?

A

putamen

238
Q

What CNS vascular territory is most susceptible to mycotic aneurysms?

A

distal MCAs

239
Q

Water shed infarcts in a kid should make you think what disease?

A

Moya Moya

240
Q

What part of MCA vascular territory is most susceptible to infarction? Why?

A

insular cortex

least amenable to collaterals

241
Q

What are the rule of three regarding post-infarct enhancement?

A
  • starts at 3 days
  • peaks by 3 weeks
  • gone by 3 months
242
Q

Define fogging. When does it start?

A

when infarcted brain looks normal

around 14 days

243
Q

Where would an artery of percheron infarct manifest?

A

bilateral, paramedian, thalami

244
Q

Where would an artery of huebner infarct manifest?

A

caudate

245
Q

Where does artery of huebner arise?

A

proximal ACA

246
Q

What has a higher risk of hemorrhagic conversion, arterial or venous infarct?

A

venous infarct

247
Q

ASPECTS can only be used for what vascular territory?

A

MCA

248
Q

What is the definition of MTT?

A

CBV/CBF

249
Q

What is the definition of a blister aneurysm? Where are these most often found?

A

broad based bulge at non-branch point

supraclinoid ICA

250
Q

What is a pedicle aneurysm?

A

AVM feeding vessel aneurysm

251
Q

Pineal calcifications under what age may raise the question of neoplasm?

A

seven

252
Q

Extensive dural calcs plus what other finding may make one think of gorlin syndrome?

A

odontogenic keratocysts

253
Q

Calcified subependymal nodules at what two locations are typical for TS?

A

atria of lateral ventricles

caudothalamic groove

254
Q

What is the pathophysiology of tram track calcs during sturge weber?

A

“pial angiomatosis leading to subcortical ischemia”

255
Q

The crescent sign is indicative of what?

A

dissection

256
Q

What genetic disease can be associated with moya moya?

A

sickle cell

257
Q

Contralateral cerebral hemisphere and cerebellar hemisphere abnormalities are called what? Is the abnormality in the cerebrum or cerebellum?

A

crossed cerebellar diaschisis

cerebrum

258
Q

What is LeFort 1?

A

separation of maxilla

259
Q

What is LeFort 2?

A

maxilla separated from face

260
Q

What is LeFort 3?

A

face separated from cranium

261
Q

What is superior, the pars flaccida or pars tensa?

A

pars flaccida

262
Q

What middle ear bone is the first to be involved with an acquired cholesteatoma?

A

long process of incus

263
Q

What semicircular canal is move often involved with a cholesteatoma causing perilymphatiuc fistula? What is air called in the semicircular canals?

A

lateral semicircular canal

pneumolabyrinth

264
Q

What is ossification of the membranous labyrinth called?

A

labyrinthitis ossificans

265
Q

Regarding the inner ear, what is a contraindication for a cochlear implant?

A

calcification of the cochlea

266
Q

Noise induced vertigo should make you think of what disease?

A

superior semicircular canal dehiscence

267
Q

The vestibular aqueduct should never be bigger than what adjacent structure?

A

posterior semi-circular canal

268
Q

How does an enlarged vestibular aqueduct present?

A

progressive sensorineural hearing loss

269
Q

When is the insult with Michel’s aplasia?

A

3rd week

270
Q

When is the insult with Mondini aplasia?

A

7th week

271
Q

What is preserved with Mondini aplasia?

A

high frequency

272
Q

Endolymphatic sac tumor is associated with what genetic disease?

A

VHL

273
Q

What is the most common cause of apical petrositis?

A

oto-mastoiditis

274
Q

What foramen can get compressed with apical petrositis? What nerve compressed?

A

dorello canal

CN 6

275
Q

What will a cholesterol granuloma look like on MR?

A

T1 and T2 bright lesion

276
Q

Does a cholesterol granuloma restrict?

A

no bitch

277
Q

Does fibrous dysplasia favor the inner or outer table?

A

inner

278
Q

Is allergic fungal sinusitis hyperdense or hypodense? Why?

A

hyper

metals

279
Q

Is acute invasive fungal sinusitis hyperdense or hypodense?

A

HYPO-dense

280
Q

Will allergic fungal sinusitis enhance?

A

no

281
Q

What foramen is a JNA centered?

A

spheno-palatine foramen

282
Q

What malignancy can be harbored within an inverted papilloma? How often?

A

SCC

10%

283
Q

What is the most common location for an SNUC?

A

maxillary sinus antrum

284
Q

What artery is the main branch for a posterior nose bleed?

A

sphenopalatine

285
Q

What is the eponym for the submandibular duct?

A

Whartons duct

286
Q

What is the eponym for the sublingual duct?

A

rivinus

287
Q

What is the eponym for the parotid duct?

A

stenson

288
Q

What line separates the sublingual from submandibular space?

A

mylohyoid

289
Q

Osteonecrosis of the mandible can be seen with what two conditions?

A

radiation

bisphosphonates

290
Q

What space is a ranula in? Called ‘plunging’ when it passes under what?

A

sublingual

mylohyoid

291
Q

What do ameloblastomas do to teeth roots?

A

absorb

292
Q

What parotid tumor is cystic?

A

warthin

293
Q

Smoking is a risk factor for what parotid tumor?

A

Warthin

294
Q

What disease has a ‘YUGE’ increased risk of developing parotid lymphoma?

A

sjogrens

295
Q

What are the three tumors that can occupy the carotid space?

A

paraganglioma/glomus

schwannoma

neurofibroma

296
Q

What is the radiotracer for glomus tumor?

A

In-111- octreotide

297
Q

Where is a glomus vagale located?

A

below jugular foramen

above carotid bifurcation

298
Q

Which carotid space tumor can have a cystic/solid component?

A

schwannoma

299
Q

What carotid space tumor can display a target sign on T2 weighted sequences?

A

neurofibroma

300
Q

What is grisel syndrome?

A

torticollis with AA subluxation/laxity and recent ENT surgery or retropharyngeal ascess

301
Q

What is the most common cause of masticator space mass?

A

infection

302
Q

What are the retropharyngeal lymph nodes called? When do they regress?

A

Nodes of Rouvier

around age 4

303
Q

What muscle separates 1B from 2A lymph nodes?

A

stylohyoid

304
Q

What separates level 2 nodes from level 3 nodes vertically?

A
305
Q

What separates level 2 nodes from level 3 nodes vertically?

A

hyoid

306
Q

What separates level 3 nodes from level 4 nodes vertically?

A

cricoid

307
Q

Where is the most common location for nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

fossa of rosenmuller

308
Q

Where are the first nodes involved for a nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

retropharyngeal

309
Q

What is Coats Disease? What complication can be seen? Does it calcify?

A

retinal telangiectasia

retinal detachment

no

310
Q

Does Coats disease have an enlarged, normal or small globe?

A

small

311
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Persistent Hyperplastic Primary Vitreous?

A

“failure of embryonic ocular blood supply to regress”

312
Q

What is the feared complication of PHPV?

A

retinal detachment

313
Q

Does PHPV have a small or large eye?

A

small

314
Q

Where does ocular melanoma like to met?

A

liver

315
Q

Bilateral optic nerve glioma should make you think of what disease?

A

NF1

316
Q

Optic Nerve Glioma are most often what type of tumor?

A

pilocytic astrocytoma

317
Q

Tram Track calcs around the optic nerve shiould make you think what type of malignancy?

A

Meningioma

318
Q

What is the most common benign orbital mass?

A

Dermoid

319
Q

Malt lymphoma of the orbit is associated with what?

A

chlamydia

320
Q

What tumor can cause peri-orbital tumor infiltration associated with proptosis?

A

metastatic neuroblastoma

321
Q

What malignancy can unilaterally hit the greater wing of the sphenoid?

A

Ewing

322
Q

What can a breast cancer met to the eye cause?

What type of breast cancer?

A

desmoplastic reaction and enophthalmos

scirrhous

323
Q

Orbital pseudotumor most commonly involves what muscle?

A

lateral rectus

324
Q

Does orbital pseudotumor affect the myotendinous insertion?

A

yes

325
Q

Is orbital pseudotumor T2 bright or dark?

A

dark

326
Q

What is Tolosa Hunt?

A

Orbital pseudotumor of the cavernous sinus

327
Q

How does Tolosa Hunt present?

A

multiple cranial nerve abnormalities

328
Q

Is graves exopthalmos painful?

A

no

329
Q

Does graves spare the myotendinous insertion?

A

yes

330
Q

What pituitary abnormality has a T2 dark rim?

A

lymphocytic hypophysitis

331
Q

What orbital lesion has fluid/fluid levels?

A

lymphangioma

332
Q

Where does the orbital septum originate?

A

“peri-osteum of the orbit”

333
Q

What is the latin name for a displaced lens?

A

ectopia lentis

334
Q

What is a coloboma?

A

any focal discontinuity of the globe

335
Q

What levels does the artery of adamkiewics arise from?

A

T8-T11

336
Q

What medication does one have to be on to be diagnosed with epidural lipomatosis?

A

steroids

337
Q

Syndesmophytes represent ossification of what structure?

A

annulus fibrosis

338
Q

Is a limbus vertebral body pathological? WHat causes it?

A

no

herniated nucleus pulposus

339
Q

There can be enhancement up to what time point following back surgery?

A

6 weeks

340
Q

What dens fracture type has the best prognosis for healing?

A

Type 3

341
Q

What two types of dens fractures are unstable?

A

2 and 3

342
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a Type 1 Dens fracture?

A

avulsion of alar ligament

343
Q

What is a jefferson fracture?

A

anterior and posterior arch fractures OF C1

344
Q

Is there a high or low incidence of cord injury with a jefferson fracture?

A

low

344
Q

Is there a high or low incidence of cord injury with a jefferson fracture?

A

low

345
Q

What does a jefferson fracture look like on coronal views?

A

lateral masses of C1 slid lateral to C2

346
Q

Where is an orthotopic os odontoideum fused to?

A

dens

347
Q

Where is an dystopic os odontoideum fused to?

A

clivus

348
Q

What is a Hangmans fracture?

A

fracture through bilateral pars at C2

349
Q

What is a Hangmans fracture?

A

fracture through bilateral pars at C2

350
Q

In what cervical spine fracture is traction contraindicated?

A

hangman

351
Q

Inverted hamburger sign is indicative of what injury?

A

perched/locked facets

352
Q

Are perched/locked facets stable or unstable? Cord injury?

A

unstable

often cord injury

353
Q

AA instability is seen with what three disease processes?

A

RA and JRA and Downs

354
Q

What is the harris line rule of 12?

A

basion to dens and basion to posterior axial line should be less than 12 mm

355
Q

What type of cord signal/damage is most severe?

A

hemorrhagic

356
Q

What is the most common AVF/AVM? What percent?

A

Type 1 (Dural)

85%

357
Q

What is Foix Alajouanine syndrome?

A

congestive (venous) myelopathy secondary to a dural AVF

358
Q

What part of the cord is favored by ADEM?

A

dorsal white matter

359
Q

How much of the cord is involved with transverse myelitis?

A

at least > 2/3

360
Q

How much of the cord is involved with NMO?

A

usually full thickness

361
Q

What entity can look very similar to SCID in the cord?

A

HIV vacuolar myelopathy

362
Q

What will GBS/AIDP look like on MRI?

A

“enhancement of the nerve roots of the cauda equina”

363
Q

What will CIDP look like on MRI?

A

thickened and enhancing cauda equina nerve roots

364
Q

What is the differential for the three intradural spinal cord tumors?

A

astrocytoma

ependymoma

hemangioblastoma

365
Q

What are the SIX VHL associated abnormalities/malignancies?

A

pheo

CNS hemangioblastoma

endolymphatic sac tumor

pancreatic cysts

pancreatic islet cell tumor

clear cell RCC

366
Q

What structure do spinal cord schwannomas arise from?

A

dorsal root ganglion

367
Q

Central necrosis and hemorrhage favors a spinal neurofibroma or schwannoma?

A

schwannoma

368
Q

What does plexiform spinal neurofibroma look like?

A

bulky, multilevel enlarged nerves