Neuro/Psych Flashcards

1
Q

How long does it take for a CT head to reach 95% sensitivity for a stroke? How long for an MRI?

A

CT head - 4-5 days, MRI 1-2 days

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2
Q

If a patient is on aspirin and has a stroke what are 2 options for the next step in prevention?

A

Add dipyramidole or SWITCH to clopidogrel

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3
Q

What is the time frame for thrombolytics in an ischemic stroke?

A

Less than 4.5 hours

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4
Q

What metabolism altering drug must be added to a patient’s regimen after an ischemic stroke?

A

A statin

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5
Q

What anticoagulation treatment is recommended after an ischemic stroke?

A

Heparin followed by warfarin - INR 2-3

or Rivaroxaban/dabigatran

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6
Q

What does the CHADS VAsc score measure?

A

Risk for stroke from atrial fibrilation

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7
Q

What is the recommended treatement for a patient with of symptomatic cerebrovascular disease with >70% carotid stenosis? What about <50% stenosis?

A

> 70% stenosis - endarterectomy

<50% - no endarterectomy is indicated

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8
Q

Does angioplasty or stent have value for stroke patients?

A

NO

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9
Q

What is the goal LDL post stroke?

A

<70 mg/dL

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10
Q

What is another name for pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Idiopathic Intracranial HTN

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11
Q

What physical exam findings are present for cluster headaches?

A

Red eye with tearing, rhinorrhea, possible horner syndrome

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12
Q

What physical exam findings are present for giant cell arteritis

A

Visual loss with tenderness in the temporal area

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13
Q

What physical exam findings are present for pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Papilledema with abducens palsy

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14
Q

What other eye pathology can cause headache with a red eye?

A

glaucoma

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15
Q

What is the treatment for a tension headache/

A

NSAIDs/oral analgesics

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16
Q

What are 4 abortive treatments for migraine?

A

NSAIDs/excedrin/triptans/ergotamine

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17
Q

What 2 abortive treatments are available for cluster headaches?

A

triptans/ergotamines + 100% oxygen

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18
Q

What is the initial treatement for giant cell arteritis?

A

prednisone

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19
Q

What is the initial treatment of pseudotumor cerebri?

A

weight loss + acetazolamide

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20
Q

What tests are necessary for diagnosis of IIH?

A

Head CT/MRI to rule out intracranial mass + LP to show increased pressure

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21
Q

What is prophylactic treatement for cluster headaches?

A

Verapamil

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22
Q

What are 3 intial prophylactic treatments for migraines?

A

Beta blocker (e.g. propranolol), TCA (e.g. amytriptiline), topiramate

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23
Q

What is inital treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Oxcarbazapine or carbamazapine

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24
Q

What is the order of drugs (4) for status epilepticus?

A

IV benzodiazapine –> phenytoin/fosphenytoin –> phenobarbitol –> succinylcholine/vecuronium + intubation

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25
What anti-seizure has the fewest side effects?
Levatiracitam
26
Can you take away a driver's license for seizures?
No - have to strongly recommend it
27
What are the components of the mental status exam (10)?
``` Appearance Behavior Speech Mood/Affect Thought Process Thought Content Perceptual Disturbances Cognition Insight Judgment/Impulse Control ```
28
What are the 4 P's of a psychiatric HPI?
Predisposing features Precipitating factors Perpetuating factors Protective factors
29
What is circumstantiality?
Will eventually reach the point of the converstion but a lot of trivial info is added in
30
What is tangentiality?
Point of conversation is never reached - responses usually ballpark relevant
31
What is loosening of associations?
no logical connection from one though to the next
32
What is flight of ideas?
Thoughts change abruptly from one idea to another + pressured speech
33
What is neologisms?
Made up words
34
What is clang associations?
Words connecting through rhyming rather than content
35
What is the Tarasoff rule?
If a patient expresses imminent threats against anyone - physician must warn them
36
What are ideas of reference?
Thoughts that external cues (e.g. billboards/TV) are specifically addressing the patient
37
What are 2 examples of delusions of control?
Though broadcasting and thought insertion
38
What is an illusion?
misinterpretation of an existing stimulus
39
What is the most common cause of auditory hallucinations?
schizophrenia
40
What is the most common cause of visual hallucinations?
Drug intoxication/drug withdrawal or delirium
41
What is the most common cause of olfactory hallucinations?
Aura associated with epilepsy
42
What is the most common cause of tactile hallucinations?
Drug use or alcohol withdrawal
43
What is anhedonia?
Inability to feel pleasure
44
What is alogia?
Poverty of speech
45
What are the 3 stages of schizophrenia?
Prodromal - decline in functioning before first episode Psychotic - positive symptoms with disordered thought content Residual - predominantly negative symptoms
46
What is the time requirement for schizophrenia?
At least 6 months (including prodromal time)
47
When is schizophrenia most likely to present for men? When for women?
Men - early to mid 20s | Women - late 20s
48
Are men or women more likely to have negative predominant symptoms in schizphrenia?
Men - generally have poorer outcomes
49
What is the MoA of 1st generation antipsychotics?
D2 antagonists
50
What is the MoA of 2nd generation antipsychotics?
5-HT2 antagonist and D4/D2 antagonist
51
What should be added to treatment if extrapyramidal symptoms occurs while on an antipsychotic?
Anticholinergic (e.g. benztropine, diphenhydramine)
52
What should be added to treatment if anticholinergic side effects occur while on an antipsychotic?
Per-symptom treatment (e.g. stool softener for constipation, eye drops for dry eyes)
53
What treatment change should be considered for metabolic syndrome on 2nd generation antipsychotics?
Switch to 1st gen antipsychotic or use aripiprazole/ziprasidone which are weight neutral
54
What is the last line 2nd gen antipsychotic? Why?
Clozapine - due to agranulocytosis risk
55
What treatment change should occur if a patient on 1st generation antipsychotic has tardive dyskinesia?
Discontinue/reduce drug and can use benzodiazapines/botox for symptoms
56
What is the cumulative risk of developing tardive dyskinesia while on antipsychotics?
5% per year
57
Who is at greatest risk for tardive dyskinesia on antipsychotics?
Older women
58
What is the distiniguishing requirement for schizophreniform disorder diagnosis?
1-6 months of schizophrenia-like symptoms
59
What is the diagnostic criteria for schizoaffective disorder?
Major depression/mania diagnosis + delusions and hallucinations for at least 2 weeks WHILE NOT AFFECTED BY MOOD DISORDER
60
What is the diagnostic requirement for brief psychotic disorder?
Schizophrenia-like symptoms from 1 day to 1 month