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Family Medicine > Neuro + Psych > Flashcards

Neuro + Psych Flashcards

0
Q

Tx cluster HA

A

Usually unilateral

Acute:
O2
Sumatriptan

Ppx:
Verapamil
Ergotamine, methylsergide, lithium, prednisone

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1
Q

Tx tension HA

A

Stress reduction (tx underlying cause)

NSAIDs, Tylenol, ASA

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2
Q

Aura in what kind of migraine?

A

Classic

Common doesn’t have aura

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4
Q

Tx migraines

A 
Acute:
NSAIDs
Tylenol
Serotonin receptor agonist. (DHE)
Sumatriptan (limit use of)

Ppx:
TCAs (amitryptyline) - S/E constipation
Propranolol

Verapamil
Valproate
Methylsergide

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5
Q

Tx menstrual migraines

A

NSAIDs

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6
Q

Absolute contraindication to ECT

A

None

Ok with pacemakers, cardioverter-defibrilators, preggers, elderly

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7
Q

The mechanism of the syncope seems to be

A

a period of high sympathetic tone (often induced by pain or fear),

followed by sudden sympathetic withdrawal,

which then triggers a paradoxical vasodilatation and hypotension.

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8
Q

Dementia w/ Lewy Bodies

A 
parkinsonian symptoms (rigidity, tremor),
 fluctuating levels of alertness and cognitive abilities, 
behavior sometimes mimicking acute delirium. Significant visual hallucinations are common,

delusions and auditory hallucinations are seen to a lesser degree.

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9
Q

Med for migraines NOT ok in preggers

A

Triptans

have the potential to cause vasoconstriction of the placental and uterine vessels

should be used only if the benefit clearly outweighs the harm

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10
Q

What S/E from neuroleptics respond to tx w/ beta blockers

A

Akathisia (motor restlessness and inability to sit still)

Can also use anti-ACh

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11
Q

Preventing spread of meningococcal disease when susceptibility of org is not known

A

Rifampin!

Meningococcal vaccines no help b/c protective effects take too long and only for group B

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12
Q

A post-traumatic air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus is associated with

A

basilar skull fractures

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13
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia

A

is characterized by the sudden onset of headache and hypertension in a patient with a lesion above the T6 level.

There may be associated bradycardia, sweating, dilated pupils, blurred vision, nasal stuffiness, flushing, or piloerection.

It usually occurs several months after the injury and has an incidence as high as 85% in quadriplegic patients.

Frequently, it subsides within 3 years of injury, but it can recur at any time.

Bowel and bladder distention are common causes.

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14
Q

Contraindications for thrombolysis in acute stroke

A

> 3hrs after onset of deficit

blood glucose levels 400 mg/dL,

resolving transient ischemic attack

hemorrhage visible on a CT scan

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15
Q

Ppx migraines

A

The goal of therapy in migraine prophylaxis is a reduction in the severity and frequency of headache by 50% or more.

amitriptyline, 
propranolol, 
timolol
divalproex sodium
topiramate
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16
Q

Nightmares occur when? Sleepwalking?

A

Nightmares occur in the second half of the night, when rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is most prominent.

Parasomnias, including sleepwalking, confusional arousal, and sleep terrors, are disorders of arousal from non-REM (NREM) sleep.

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17
Q

Only FDA approved antidepressant for kids

A

Fluoxetine

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18
Q

Contraindications to ECT

A

No contraindications

But more complications are seen in patients with a history of recent cerebral hemorrhage, stroke, or increased intracranial pressure

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19
Q

antipsychotic of choice in patients with dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease

A

Quetiapine

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20
Q

Best tx for anorexia in adolescent

A

Family-based treatment

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21
Q

Ppx altitude sickness

A

Acetazolamide

Dexamethasone (for sulfa allergy)

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22
Q

Unipolar depression and incomplete response to therapy. What is a good adjuvant therapy?

A

lithium or low-dose T 3

atypical antipsychotics don’t work as well

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23
Q

Tx cerebral malaria

A

intravenous quinidine gluconate

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24
Q

Apraxia is a

A

transmission disturbance on the output side, which interferes with skilled movements. Even though the patient understands the request, he is unable to perform the task when asked, but may then perform it after a time delay.

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25
Q

Agnosia is the

A

inability to recognize previously familiar sensory input, and is a modality-bound deficit. For example, it results in a loss of ability to recognize objects.

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26
Q

Which antidepressant is good for old people with insomnia and weight loss?

A

Mirtazapine has serotonergic and noradrenergic properties and is associated with increased appetite and weight gain.

It may be particularly useful for patients with insomnia and weight loss.

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27
Q

S/E trazadone

A

Priapism
sedation
orthostatic hypotension

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28
Q

Tx essential tremors

A

Primadone

Beta blockers

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29
Q

Best initial tx PTSD

A

SSRIs

  • are able to reduce all three clusters of PTSD symptoms.
  • Sertraline
  • Paroxetine

MAOIs are not first line
- moderate to good improvement in reexperiencing and avoidance symptoms, but little improvement in hyperarousal

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30
Q

essential features of the diagnosis of dementia are

A

memory loss and impairment of executive function

Patients rarely report mem- ory loss; the informants are usually their family members

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31
Q

Most common cause of dementia

A

Alzheimer’s

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32
Q

Criteria to dx Alzheimer’s

A

Development of multiple cognitive deficits manifested by both memory impairment and one of the following:
1. Aphasia
2. Apraxia
3. Agnosia
The deficits above are a decline from previous functioning and cause significant impairment
in social or occupational functioning.

The course is of gradual onset and continuing decline.

The deficits are not due to other central nervous system, systemic or substance-induced
conditions that cause deficits in cognition.

The disturbance is not accounted for by another psychiatric diagnosis.

33
Q

Common causes of dementia like symptoms in elderly

A

Depression
Hypothyroidism
Vit b12 deficiency

34
Q

What is recommended by the American Academy of Neurology for the routine evaluation of dementia?

A

A noncontrast head CT or MRI

35
Q

Migraine headaches - what suggests dx?

A

moderate to severe headache with a pulsating quality;
unilateral location;
nausea and/or vomiting;
photophobia;
phonophobia;
worsening with activity;
multiple attacks lasting for 4 hours to 3 days; absence of history or physical examination findings that would make it likely that the headache is the result of another cause

36
Q

TENSION HEADACHE

A

Typically presenting with pericranial muscle tenderness and a description of a bilateral bandlike distribution of the pain

37
Q

CLUSTER HEADACHE

A

Unilateral headaches that may have a high male predominance, can be located in the orbital, supraorbital, or temporal region.

It is generally described as a deep, excruciating pain lasting from 15 minutes to 3 hours.

These headaches are usually episodic; however a small subset may have chronic headaches.

38
Q

most prevalent form of primary headache disorder

A

Tension ha

39
Q

Tx tension headache

A

aspirin, acetaminophen, and NSAIDs.

40
Q

Ppx tension headache

A

In frequent headache sufferers, the combination of antidepressant medications and stress management therapy reduces headache activity significantly.

calcium channel blockers and β-blockers.

41
Q

Tx cluster headache

A

100% oxygen at 6 L/min,
dihydroergotamine,
Triptans.

42
Q

Ppx cluster headache

A 
Verapamil, 
lithium,
divalproex sodium, 
methysergide,
prednisone
43
Q

TIA vs stroke vs RIND

A

TIA is defined as a focal neurologic deficit lasting less than 24 hours. Most TIAs last for less than 1 hour.

A stroke is presumed to have occurred if the symptoms persist for more than 24 hours.

A residual ischemic neurologic deficit (RIND) is defined as a neurologic deficit of greater than 24 hours and less than 3 weeks.

44
Q

What is the single most important risk factor for stroke

A

Hypertension

45
Q

Tx HTN in stroke

A

Tx if SBP is > 220 mm Hg or the diastolic blood pressure is greater than 120 mm Hg.

Unless a hypertensive encephalopathy, aortic dissection, acute renal failure, or pulmonary edema is present, the treatment of arterial hypertension should be cautious

Can use:
IV labetalol, nicardipine, and sodium nitroprusside

46
Q

Tx stroke

A

ASA

tPA if not hemorrhagic and within 3 hrs

47
Q

The occurrence of stroke after TIA is

A

as high as 5.3% within 2 days and 10.5% within 90 days

48
Q

Management of stroke after it happens

A

Patients with stroke but no detected sources of embolism benefit from antiplatelet agents, not anticoagulants.
Aspirin, clopidogrel, or a combination of aspirin and dipyridamole are acceptable regimens.

For patients with recent TIA or ischemic stroke and ipsilateral severe (>70%) carotid artery stenosis, carotid endarterectomy is recom- mended. When the degree of stenosis is less than 50%, there is no indi- cation for CEA.

Patients with a history of symptomatic cerebrovascular disease should be treated to an LDL goal of less than 100 mg/dL.

49
Q

NSAID S/E w/ propensity to produce more central nervous system adverse effects than other NSAIDs

A

Indomethacin

50
Q

Pseudotumor cerebri imaging on CT

A

CT is usually normal or shows small ventricles.

51
Q

The cardinal physical signs of Parkinson’s

A 
distal resting tremor, 
rigidity, 
bradykinesia, 
postural instability, 
 asymmetric onset.
52
Q

Tx Tourette’s

A

Pharm

dopamine receptor blockers haloperidol and pimozide

α-receptor agonists clonidine and guanfacine are effective for treating mild tics

53
Q

Tx huntingtons

A

There is currently no treatment available to slow the progression of disease.

The chorea can also be treated with reserpine, tetrabenazine, and clonazepam.

The chorea does respond favorably to haloperidol and fluphenazine, though such treatment often makes voluntary movements worse.

54
Q

Antidepressant less likely to gain wt?

And gain wt?

A

Bupropion is the antidepressant least likely to cause weight gain, and may induce modest weight loss.

Among SSRIs, paroxetine is associated with the most weight gain and fluoxetine with the least.

Mirtazapine has been associated with more weight gain than the SSRIs.

55
Q

How to establish a prognosis in a comatose patient after a cardiac arrest.

A

The duration of CPR is not a factor,

the absence of pupillary and corneal reflexes, as well as motor responses to pain, are not reliable predictors before 72 hours.

Myoclonic status epilepticus at 24 hours suggests no possibility of a recovery.

56
Q

Tx generalized anxiety disorder

A

paroxetine,
escitalopram,
duloxetine,
venlafaxine

57
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy

A

is characterized by early falls, vertical (especially downward) gaze, axial rigidity greater than appendicular rigidity, and levodopa resistance.

58
Q

Initial tx of status epilepticus?

A

Lorazepam, 0.1–0.15 mg/kg intravenously, should be given as anticonvulsant therapy after cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

This is followed by phenytoin, given via a dedicated peripheral intravenous line.

Fosphenytoin, midazolam, or phenobarbital can be used if there is no response to lorazepam

59
Q

Dystonia can be caused by any agent that

A

blocks dopamine, including prochlorperazine, metoclopramide, and typical neuroleptic agents such as haloperidol.

The acute treatment of choice is diphenhydramine or benztropine.

60
Q

brachial neuritis

A

can be difficult to differentiate from cervical radiculopathy, shoulder pathology, and cerebrovascular accident.

The pain preceded the weakness, no trauma was involved, and the weakness is in a nondermatomal distribution, making brachial neuritis the most likely diagnosis.

Electromyography is most likely to show this lesion, but only after 3 weeks of symptoms.

61
Q

Atypical antipsychotic that won’t cause as much wt gain

A

aripiprazole

62
Q

Antipsychotics causing wt gain

A

Second-generation, or “atypical,” antipsychotics are associated with weight gain, elevated triglycerides, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Olanzapine and clozapine are associated with the highest risk.

63
Q

How do tell pseudoseizure vs seizure

A

obtained within 20 minutes of the event, a serum prolactin level may be useful in differentiating a true seizure from a pseudoseizure.

An elevated level has a sensitivity of 60% for generalized tonic-clonic seizures and 46% for complex partial seizures.

Other features suggestive of seizure activity include tongue biting, the presence of an aura, postictal confusion, and focal neurologic signs.

64
Q

The workup of patients with syncope begins with a history and a physical examination to identify those at risk for a poor outcome. Then….

A

In most cases, the recommended test is an EKG.

Patients who have a prodrome of 5 seconds or less may have a cardiac arrhythmia.

Patients with longer prodromes, nausea, or vomiting are likely to have vasovagal syncope, which is a benign process.

Patients who pass out after standing for 2 minutes are likely to have orthostatic hypotension.

65
Q

What is most effective in depressed older patients.

A

Electroconvulsive therapy

66
Q

What herb is assoc w/ serious intracerebral bleeding?

A

Ginkgo biloba

67
Q

Which antidepressant has less sex side effects

A

Buproprion

68
Q

Motor side effects of the antipsychotic drugs can be separated into five general categories:

A

dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, withdrawal dyskinesias, and tardive dyskinesia.

Akathisia is a syndrome marked by motor restlessness. Affected patients commonly complain of being inexplicably anxious, of being unable to sit still or concentrate, and of feeling comfortable only when moving.

69
Q

OCD

  • traits
  • tx
A
  • characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors that impair everyday functioning.

Tx:

  • SSRIs:
  • fluoxetine
  • fluvoxamine
  • second line: risperidone, clonazepam
70
Q

How decrease the risk of postherpetic neuralgia from zoster?

A

Give famciclovir/ acyclovir/valcyclovir within 72 hrs of herpes zoster presentatio

71
Q

In the geriatric population, what is the most common cause of seizures?

A

cerebrovascular disease

  • 10% of stroke victims developing epileptic seizures.
  • Seizures are more common following hemorrhagic strokes compared to nonhemorrhagic strokes
72
Q

What are the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for depression in nursing-home residents.

A

SSRIs

73
Q

Causes of serotonin syndrome

- Sx?

A

Sx: mental status changes, agitation, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, diaphoresis, shivering, tremor, diarrhea, incoordination, and fever

SSRI +

MAOIs
tramadol, 
sibutramine, 
meperidine, 
sumatriptan, 
lithium, 
St. John’s wort, 
ginkgo biloba, 
atypical antipsychotic agents.
74
Q

Childhood simple febrile seizure

- tx

A
  • finding a source for the fever; this should include a lumbar puncture if meningitis is suspected.

most common infections:

  • viral upper respiratory infections,
  • otitis media,
  • roseola.

Tx:
- Antipyretics

–>Phenytoin and carbamazepine are ineffective for febrile seizures. Phenobarbital is sometimes used for prevention of recurrent febrile seizures, but is not indicated as an initial therapy.

75
Q

The most appropriate initial pharmacologic treatment of panic disorder is

A

SSRI

76
Q

Which SSRI has less CYP 450 inhibition?

A

Citalopram

77
Q

Tx prepratry grief in dying pateitn

A

Live a few days - methylphenidate

Longer - SSRIs

78
Q

Antipsychotics w/ S/E hyperglycemia

A

Olanzapine
Clozapine

— atypicals

79
Q

Tx depression adn insomnia

A

Trazodone + antidepressant

Amitriptyline can be used but not in someone with cardiac arrhythmia

Family Medicine (11 decks)

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