Neuro pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Hemiplegia, common clinical feature of common type of stroke is due to damage to

Thalamus

motor cortex

Globus pallidus

Internal capsule

Putamen

A

Internal capsule

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2
Q

Commonest vessel involved in stroke is,

Anterior Cerebral artery

Middle Meningial artery

Posterior Cerebral artery

Middle Cerebral artery

Anterior Meningeal artery.

A

MCA

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3
Q

Commonest type of stroke is Hemorrhagic stroke.

True

False

A

False

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4
Q

Compared to ischemic stroke Higher mortality is seen in hemorrahgic stroke.

True

False

A

T

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5
Q

Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms are more common in,

Internal capsule

Brain stem

Caudate nucleus

Thalamus

Putamen

A

Putamen

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6
Q

Lacunar infarcts contain clear fluid in their lumen.

True

False

A

True

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7
Q

Slit hemorrhages are typically seen in malignant hypertension.

True

False

A

F

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8
Q

Neck stiffness is typical clinical feature in subarchnoid hemorrhage.

True

False

A

T

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9
Q

EMG in a case of Myasthenia gravis, typically shows

Absence of response on electrical stimulation

Weak response on electrical stimulation

Clonic tonic contractions on electrical stimulation

Fatigue on repeat stimulation

Decreased response on IV edrophonium

A

Fatigue on repeat stimulation

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10
Q

Pupillary light reflex in myasthenia gravis is typically

Delayed

Reduced

Increased

Normal

Fatigue on repeat testing

A

Normal

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11
Q

What is the reason ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) is typically raised in Myasthenia gravis?

Typically associated with anemia.

Autoantibodies to RBC causing RBC clumping

Anti ACh Receptor antibody in the plasma

Excess fibrinogen & globulins in plasma

Unknown

A

Excess fibrinogen & globulins in plasma

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12
Q

62 year old man presents with progressive weakness of both legs since 3 months. His symptoms are worse in the morning but get better by evening. He has lost 3kg weight. What is the most likely pathogenesis of his problem?

Antibody to ACh receptors

Antibody to Ca+ channel

Antibody blocking Ach release

Antibody to Acetylcholinesterase

Endplate damage by antibodies.

A

Antibody to Ca+ channel

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13
Q

Typical example of dysmyelinating disorder is “Leukodystrophy”

True
False

A

T

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14
Q

Commonest demyelinating disorder is Multiple sclerosis.

True
False

A

T

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15
Q

Typical example of infective myelinolysis is Central Pontine Myelinolysis.

True
False

A

F - metabolic

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16
Q

Typical location of MS Plaque is

Base of Pons
Limbic system
Grey matter
Periventricular
Basal ganglia

A

Periventricular

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17
Q

in a stroke region, Inflammation & edema typically start how long after injury.

1 hour

6 hours

24 hours

48 hours

immediately

A

6 hours

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18
Q

Cavity formation in stroke starts typically around

6 hours

24 hours

48 hours

2 weeks

4 weeks

A

2 weeks

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19
Q

Hematoma in the basal ganglia region extending to ventribles is typically seen in

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Subdural hemorrahge

ischemic stroke

Hemorrhagic stroke

Ruptured berry aneurysm

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

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20
Q

Paradoxical embolism typically occurs in patietns with,

Patent ductus artereosus

Patent foramen ovale

Ventricular Septal defect

Marfan’s syndrome

A

Patent foramen ovale

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21
Q

Central pontine hemorrahge typically occurs in patients with

Malignant hypertension

Ruptured berry aneurysm

Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms

Cerebellar herniation

Increased intracranial pressure

A

Cerebellar herniation

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22
Q

microscopic Features seen in old healed infarct are

Macrophages & cavity

Inflammation & gliosis

Activated astrocytes

Liqufactive necrosis & macrophages

Cavity surrounded by Gliosis

A

Cavity surrounded by Gliosis

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23
Q

“Red Neuron” initial change in damaged neuron is due to loss of

Mitochondria

Micro tubules

Nissl substance

Ribosomes

Na/K pump

A

Nissl substance

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24
Q

“Concussion” of brain is characterised by

Tear in the tissue

Superficial small hemorrhages

Haematoma formation

No permanent injury

surface bruise

A

No permanent injury

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25
Q

the four major types of Traumatic Intracranial Hemorrahges are Epidural, Subdural, Subarachnoid and

Arachnoid

Epiarachnoid

Extracerebral

Intracerebral

Ventricular

A

Intracerebral

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26
Q

Lucid Interval is typically seen in what type of intracranial hemorrhage.

Subdural

Epidural

Subarachnoid

Intracerebral

Extracerebral

A

Epidural

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27
Q

Slow development of symptoms over weeks is typical in what type of Intracranial hemorrhage.

Epidural

Subdural

Subarachnoid

Intracerebral

Extracerebral

A

Subdural

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28
Q

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage alone is typically caused by

Mild trauma

Congenital Berry Aneurysm

Severe trauma

Hypertension

Coup injury

A

Hypertension

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29
Q

Commonest location of CNS tumours in children is,

Cerebrum

Cerebellum

Infratentorial

Brain stem

A

Infratentorial

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30
Q

Commonest primary CNS tumor in both adults and children is,

Glioblastoma

Meningioma

Astrocytoma

Medulloblastoma

Neurofibroma

A

Astrocytoma

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31
Q

In adults astrocytomas constitute what percentage of brain tumours.

90%

70%

50%

40%

10%

A

70%

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32
Q

Commonest genetic mutation & the target of diagnostic test for the common CNS tumor glioma is,

p53

10p deletion

9q deletion

BFAR

IDH

A

IDH

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33
Q

typical microscopic feature seen in the Glioblastoma multiforme is,

Psammoma bodies & epitheloid cells

Hemorrhage, Necrosis & Palisading

astrocytes with long hairy processes

Dark blue cells with rosette formation

Pleomorphic cells forming irregular glands.

A

Hemorrhage, Necrosis & Palisading

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34
Q

Increase in size of CNS tumour during menstrual cycle or pregnancy is typical of,

Glioma

Ependymoma

Glioblastoma

Meningioma

Neuroma

A

Meningioma

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35
Q

Cell of origin of Neurofibroma

Schwann cells

Perineural cells

Fibroblasts

All of the above

Glial cells

A

All of the above

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36
Q

“Bilateral Acoustic Neuroma” is typically found in

Neurofibromatosis Type-1

Neurofibromatosis Type-2

Schwanomatosis

Both NF-1 & NF-2

Both NF-2 & SWN

A

Both NF-2 & SWN

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37
Q

Nodular encapsulated tumor of nerve is typical feature of this,

Neurofibroma

Schwannoma

Plexiform neurofibroma

Diffuse NF

A

Schwannoma

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38
Q

Cafe-Au-Lait spots are typically seen in this type

NF-1

NF-2

SWN

A

NF-1

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39
Q

Multiple meningiomas are typically seen in

NF-1

NF-2

SWN

A

NF-2

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40
Q

Pachymeningitis is infection of

Pia mater

Dura mater

Arachnoid mater

Leptomeninges

meningitis & encephalitis

A

Dura mater

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41
Q

Commonest CNS infection is,

Acute septi pachymeningitis

Septic Meningoencephalitis

Acute septic leptomeningitis

Chronic aseptic meningitis

Fungal chronic leptomeningitis

A

Acute septic leptomeningitis

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42
Q

Morphologically Meningococci are

Gram +ve diplococci

Gram -ve diplococci

Gram +ve bacilli

Gram -ve bacilli

Gram -ve bacilli

A

Gram -ve diplococci

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43
Q

Septic meningitis with hemorragic rash all over body is typical of

Pneumococcal meningitis

Tuberculous meningitis

Viral meningitis

Meningococcal meningitis

Staphylococcal meningitis

A

Meningococcal meningitis

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44
Q

Typical Microscopic feature of viral CNS infection is,

Glial nodules & giant cells.

Granuloma formation

Perivascular lymphocyte cuffing

Soap bubble lesions

Extensive necrosis

A

Perivascular lymphocyte cuffing

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45
Q

typical clinical feature of Herpes encephalitis is behavioural abnormalities.

True

False

A

True

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46
Q

Cobweb formation in the CSF sample is typical of

Septic meningitis

Aseptic meningitis

Tuberculous meningitis

Fungal meningitis.

Parasitic meningitis

A

Tuberculous meningitis

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47
Q

CSF findings in Coxsackie meningitis is characterised by high protein and low glucose.

True

False

A

False

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48
Q

Epilepsy unlike other seizures, is characterised by

Unconsciousness

Severe convulsions

Stereotypic nature

status epilepticus

Post Ictal Aura

A

Stereotypic nature

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49
Q

one of the Pathogenesis of epilespy is, defective GABA neurons.

True

False

A

T

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50
Q

Commonest etiology of epilepsy is,

Infections

Tumours

Congenital

CNS trauma

Idiopathic

A

Idiopathic

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51
Q

Normal Cerebral perfusion is

<20ml/100g/min

20-50ml/100g/min

5-10ml/100g/min

> 50ml/100g/min

> 110ml/100g/min

A

> 50ml/100g/min

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52
Q

Commonest & first cerebral herniation following increased intracranial pressure is,

Transtentorial - Central

Tonsillar

Transtentorial Uncal

Subfalcine

Transcalvarial

A

Subfalcine

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53
Q

Dilated pupil with preserved level of consciousness (LOC) is typical of Uncal herniation.

True

False

A

F

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54
Q

Clinical feature of subfalcine herniation is,

bilateral constricted but reactive pupils

Ipsilateral fixed dialted pupil

Contralateral leg weakness

Loss of consciousness

Cardiorespiratory arrest

A

Contralateral leg weakness

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55
Q

Stroke, common presentation of AV malformation is commonly due to…

Thrombosis

Embolism

Atherosclerosis

Hemorrhage

Invasion

A

Hemorrhage

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56
Q

Typical gross feature in septic meningitis is,

Abscess

Hemorrhage

pus in ventricles

cloudy leptomeninges

cloudy pachymeninges

A

cloudy leptomeninges

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57
Q

cyclical pain is typically seen in

Low grade glioma

Glioblastoma

Medulloblastoma

Meningioma

Metastasis

A

Meningioma

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58
Q

Common clinical presentation of CNS tumors is,

Neurological deficit

cloudy consciousness

Vision abnormalitis

Vomiting

Morning headache

A

Morning headache

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59
Q

Tumor associated with venous sinuses is

Glioma

ependymoma

Glioblastoma

Meningioma

A

Meningioma

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60
Q

Typical microscopic feature of Glioblastoma multiforme is

Epithelioid cells in clusters

Psammoma bodies

Necrosis & Palisading

Diffuse infiltration

No hemorrahge or necrosis

A

Necrosis & Palisading

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61
Q

Brain abscess is typically surrounded by,

Gliosis

scar tissue

granuloma

necrosis

Hemorrhage

A

scar tissue

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62
Q

A 75 year old male presents to the ED with sudden onset of visual loss in her
left eye (like a curtain coming down in front of her eye). This lasted for 2 min and then completely resolved.
PMH- glaucoma. On no regular medications. Current smoker (10 a day) with a 20-pack-year smoking history
On examination his PR is 72 bpm, regular, BP 142/90 mmHg. Neurological examination shows no deficit.
O1. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
1. Follow up with GP for BP monitoring and smoking cessation
2. Prescribe an antihypertensive
3. Organise outpatient referral to the TIA clinic
4. Admit for inpatient stroke review
(review ABCD2 tool)

A

Organise outpatient referral to the TIA clinic

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63
Q

Describe the findings seen in the image?

A

fundus pale - pale retina
cherry red spot on the macula
narrow artery
(central retinal arty obstruction

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64
Q

A 62-year-old male presents to ED with sudden onset of difficulty speaking
lasting for 10 minutes. His symptoms are now resolved. He had a similar episode 2 days ago lasting for 2 minutes.
PMH: hypertension, hypercholesterolemia
Medications: lisinopril, simvastatin
Ex- smoker 30 pack years quit 1 year ago
On examination: GCS 15, PR 82 bpm, regular; BP 155/92 mmHg. No focal neurological deficits were noted on examination. No carotid bruit.
02. Which of the following features makes a TIA more likely?
1. Seizure
2. Symptoms maximal at onset
3. Presence of accompanying headache
4. Gradual onset of symptoms
5. Loss of consciousness

A

Symptoms maximal at onset
will gradually decrease

  • lasting only a few minutes
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65
Q

A 62-year-old male presents to ED with sudden onset of difficulty speaking lasting for 10 minutes. His symptoms are now resolved. He had a similar episode 2 days ago lasting for 2 minutes.
PMH: hypertension, hypercholesterolemia
Medications: lisinopril, simvastatin
Ex- smoker 30 pack years quit 1 year ago
On examination: GCS 15, PR 82 bpm, regular; BP 155/92 mmHg . No focal neurological deficits. No carotid bruit. CVS- no murmur
A TIA is suspected in this instance. He is admitted as an inpatient due to his increased risk of stroke.
Table Talk:
List 2 investigations you would prioritize for this patient?

A

ECG- check for AF
Lipids profile
Coagulation studies
CT within 24 hours- CT angiogram
Carioted doppler
MRI (if other not done)
BSL

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66
Q

A 62 year old male presents to ED with sudden onset of difficulty speaking
lasting for 10 minutes. His symptoms are now resolved.
He had a similar episode 2 days ago lasting for 2 minutes.
PMH: hypertension, hyperchloesterolaemia
Medications: lisinopril, simvastatin
Ex- smoker 30 pack years quit 1 year ago
On examination: GCS 15, PR 82 bpm, regular; BP 155/92 mmHg . No focal neurological
deficits. No carotid bruit. CVS- no murmur
03. The arterial territory most likely responsible for his symptoms is:
1. Internal carotid
2. Vertebral
3. Basilar

A

Internal carotid - MCA territory

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67
Q

What feature is most suggestive of a posterior circulation TIA?
1. Hemiparesis
2. Hemianopia
3. Aphasia
4. Vertigo
5. Hemisensory loss

A

Vertigo - posterior is swallowing and cranial nerves

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68
Q

A 71 year old male presents to ED with sudden onset of right sided limb
weakness (arm worse than leg) and difficulty speaking for the past 2 hours.
He had a similar episode 2 days ago lasting for 2 minutes.
PMH: type 2 diabetes, hypertension, AF
Ex- smoker 20 pack years quit 10 years ago
On examination: GCS 15, PR 82 bpm, irregular; BP 158/94 mmHg . No carotid bruit. CVS no murmur.He is right handed. Dysphasia is noted on examination.Right upper and lower limb hemiparesis (dense in arm compared to leg). Left arm and leg no motor deficit.
Sensory exam both R& L arm and leg normalCranial nerves- Weakness of the right side of the face. All other nerves normal

When asked to describe his symptoms that brought him to hospital
He says: “Ah …coffee… cup arm ah…,walk…move leg…ah.. and ah … sixty minutes .. .and
yes … ah and wife … hospital. ah, doctors …”
When shown a pen, and asked to name the object, he struggles to name the correct word
but he is able to nod in agreement when you correctly name the object.
05. Which of the following best describes his condition?
1. Expressive dysphasia
2. Receptive dysphasia
3. Dysarthria
4. Dysphonia
5. Global dysphasia

A

Expressive dysphasia

dysarthria: muscles wont work
Dysphonia: misnames objects

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69
Q

He has expressive dysphagia
Which part of the brain is responsible for his speech disturbance?
1. A
2. B
3. C

A

C - brocas - near motor cortex

A is receptive dysphagia
B - is parietal - mild dysphagia.

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70
Q

A 71 year old male presents to ED with sudden onset of right sided limb
weakness (arm worse than leg) and difficulty speaking for the past 2 hours.
He had a similar episode 2 days ago lasting for 2 minutes.
PMH: type 2 diabetes, hypertension, AF
Ex- smoker 20 pack years quit 10 years ago
On examination: GCS 15, PR 82 bpm, irregular; BP 158/94 mmHg . No carotid bruit. CVS
no murmur.
He is right handed.
Dysphasia is noted on examination.
Right upper and lower limb hemiparesis (dense in arm compared to leg). Left arm and leg
no motor deficit.
Sensory exam both R& L arm and leg normal
Cranial nerves- Weakness of the right side of the face. All other nerves normal

His CT brain is shown.
07. What finding is most likely to be present on
neurological examination of the affected side?
1. Muscle wasting
2. Cog wheel rigidity
3. Hyperreflexia
4. Fasciculations
5. Upward pronator drift

A

UML- hyperreflexia

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71
Q

A 71 year old male presents to ED with sudden onset of right sided limb
weakness (arm worse than leg) and difficulty speaking for the past 2 hours.
He had a similar episode 2 days ago lasting for 2 minutes.
PMH: type 2 diabetes, hypertension, AF
Ex- smoker 20 pack years quit 10 years ago
On examination: GCS 15, PR 82 bpm, irregular; BP 158/94 mmHg . No carotid bruit. CVS
no murmur.
He is right handed.
Dysphasia is noted on examination.
Right upper and lower limb hemiparesis (dense in arm compared to leg). Left arm and leg
no motor deficit.
Sensory exam both R& L arm and leg normal
Cranial nerves- Weakness of the right side of the face. All other nerves normal

A

A: shows area of triangular pinpoint haemorrhages - embolic stroke

B: SHowing no evidence of acute change except cavity - internal capsule - chronic hypertensive necrosis leading to lake cystic fluids (lacunar / chronic )
C: haemorrhage CVA

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72
Q

Of an embolic stroke

A

Pin point Haemorrhages over a triangular area of inflammation, Swelling / Edema.

Acute- Swollen /edema L Parietal lobe Compressed L lateral ventricle, Midline shift. (herniation). Loss of demarcation grey & white matter in the affected area.
* No Liquefaction (no macrophages). So only edema swelling shift of midline structures to opposite side – herniation.

Subacute : Swollen /edema L Parietal lobe Compressed L lateral ventricle, Midline shift. (herniation). Loss of demarcation grey & white matter in the affected area.
* No Liquefaction (no macrophages). So only edema swelling shift of midline structures to opposite side – herniation.
Inflam, macrophages, clearing / cavity, gliosis around.
* Gross: triangular area of left parietal lobe ACA, petechial hemorrhages, cavity (>2wk) with bloody fluid. Area shows mild edema swelling, compressing & shifting lateral ventricle to opposite side - herniation.

Late: * Dead cells  inflammation  edema, (umbra & penumbra).
* Gross: Right MCA region edema, petechial hemorrhages. Narrow sulci, widened gyri. (severe cerebral edema) Slight mid line shift.

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73
Q

A 60 year old woman presents with sudden onset of weakness and
numbness of her right leg.
Her CT is shown.
09. What other feature might be noted in this patient?
1. Personality change
2. Bitemporal hemianopia
3. Hemineglect
4. Spatial disorientation
5. Intention tremor

A

Personality change

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74
Q

What is the commonest site for an ischemic stroke?
1. Anterior cerebral artery
2. MCA superior branches
3. MCA inferior branches
4. MCA deep branches
5. Posterior cerebral artery

A

MCA deep branches

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75
Q

A 65 year old man is brought in by ambulance to ED with a 3
hour history of confusion, severe headache, vomiting and left sided
weakness.
His CT is shown.
PMH: Hypertension, multiple VTE episodes, hypercholesterolaemia
Medications: Apixiban 20mg daily, perindopril 10mg daily,
rosuvastatin 40mg daily
Social Hx: 6 std alcoholic drinks/day, 30 pack year smoking history
Table talk:
List 3 possible risk factors from his history that may have
contributed to his current presentation

A

hemorrhagic stroke therefore

Anticoagulation medication
Hypertension
alcohol and smoking status
AGE

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76
Q

65 year old man is brought in by ambulance to ED with a 3
hour history of confusion, severe headache, vomiting and left sided
weakness. He suffered a hemorrhagic stroke- haematoma is in basal ganglia region.
The most likely cause of the pathology in the patient is:
1. Trauma
2. Rupture of a berry aneurysm
3. Charcot –Bouchard aneurysm rupture
4. Arteriovenous malformation

A

Haematoma is in the basal ganglia region therefore
Charcot –Bouchard aneurysm rupture

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77
Q

A 58 year old man presents with rapidly progressive drooping of the left side of
his face noticed when he woke up this morning. He has no headache, limb weakness,
slurring of speech or vision loss.
PMH: chronic low back pain- mechanical cause
No regular medications
Examination: Vital signs normal
Neurological examination no motor or sensory deficit
Cranial nerves: left facial weakness. Other nerves normal.
A LMN Facial nerve palsy (Bell’s) is suspected.
Where is the Facial nerve nucleus located?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E

A

E

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78
Q

Presence of what symptom makes an alternative diagnosis more likely
than an LMN- Facial nerve palsy?
1. Dry eyes
2. Taste disturbance
3. Hyperacussis
4. Diplopia
5. Dry mouth

A

Diplopia -

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79
Q

What feature on examination helps distinguish a LMN from an UMN
Facial nerve palsy?
1. Inability to wrinkle brow
2. Inability to close eye
3. Inability to puff cheek
4. Drooping of the corner of the mouth
5. Asymmetrical smile

A

Inability to wrinkle brow

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80
Q

A 62 year old woman presents with a 6 month history of progressively
increasing limb weakness and difficulty walking. She now has difficulty standing from a seated position.
No PMH of note: No meds
Works as an engineer, nonsmoker, 1-2u alcohol/night
On examination: she has generalized lower limb weakness more noticeable on the left.
Fasciculations and atrophy evident in her calf. She has brisk reflexes in her knees &
ankles. Babinski is positive.
Sensory examination is unremarkable.
15. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Spinal muscular atrophy
2. Guillain Barre syndrome
3. Myasthenia gravis
4. Motor neurone disease
5. Multiple sclerosis

A
  1. MND - degenerative - progressive older
  2. young people
  3. after viral/ bacterial infection and older
  4. MG younger female, pregnancy
  5. young female patient, autoimmune
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81
Q

Which pathway is most likely to be affected in this condition? Motor neuron disease
1. Dorsal column
2. Spinothalamic tract
3. Corticospinal tract
4. Spinocerebellar tract
5. Extrapyramidal tract

A

Corticospinal tract because sensation still intact

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82
Q

A 35 year old woman presents with a 3 day history of blurred vision in the left
eye. She has some pain behind the eye and with movement. No redness or discharge.
On further questioning she had tingling and pain in both legs 3 months prior which settled spontaneously.
PMH: nil, no meds
She is a current smoker with a 5 pack year smoking history. 2 wines on the weekend.
On examination BMI is 31, vitals normal. Her VA is 6/12 in the LE, no improvement with PH. RE is normal.
17. What sign is most likely to be present on examination?
1. Dilated pupil
2. Positive afferent pupillary defect
3. Limitation of ocular movements
4. Tender temporal artery
5. Normal colour vision

A

Patient has MS -
lower half of optic disc is hazy and disappearing vessels.

Positive afferent pupillary defect

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83
Q

What further investigation would be most important in this patient? She has MS
1. CT brain
2. Lumbar puncture
3. ESR
4. Carotid doppler
5. MRI brain

A

MRI brain

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84
Q

She has MS

A

A

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85
Q

She has MS

A

B

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86
Q

A 42 year old man presents with diplopia worsening over the last 2 months. His
symptoms worsen as the day progresses.
On examination he has a bilateral ptosis.
21. Which of the following tests is appropriate for this patient?
1. CRP
2. Head CT scan
3. Lumbar puncture
4. Thoracic CT scan
5. TFT

A

Small muscles affected and young - MG
Thoracic CT scan- MG linked to thymomas

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87
Q

A 42 year old man presents with diplopia worsening over the last 2 months. His
symptoms worsen as the day progresses.
On examination he has bilateral ptosis.
22. What is the pathogenesis of his symptoms?
1. Ab blocking Calcium channel
2. Paraneoplastic syndrome due to Thymoma
3. Ab blocking ACH release
4. Ab to ACH receptors
5. Ab to sodium channels

A

Ab to ACH receptors

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88
Q

Fill in the blank
Two classic clinical features of disease identified in his first patient by Dr. Alzheimer were Behavioural abnormality and loss of

A

Memory

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89
Q

Commonest type of Alzheimer’s disease is sporadic / Idiopathic.

True

False

A

T

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90
Q

characteristic intraneuronal abnormality seen in Alzheimer’s disease is,

Neuritic plaque

Amyloid plaque

NF tangle

Amyloid angiopathy

gliosis

A

NF tangle

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91
Q

Neuritic plaque is abnormal cluster of fibrils formed from,

tau protein

Microtubules

Amyloid Precursor Protein (APP)

Cell membrane

Neural filaments

A

Amyloid Precursor Protein (APP)

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92
Q

Earliest clinical symptom of Alzheimer’s disease is,

Language difficulty

decreased cognition

Loss of old Memory

Loss of recent memory

Confusion

A

Loss of recent memory

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93
Q

Clinical triad of classic Parkinson’s disease are Tremor, Rigidity &

diminished facial expression

Dementia

Stooped posture

Festinating gait

Bradykinesia

A

Bradykinesia

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94
Q

fill in the blank
The three dopaminergic system controls are Movement, Behaviour &

A

Prolactin

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95
Q

Pigment lost in substantia nigra is,

Hemosidern

Lipofuscin

Nissle granules

Lewy body

Melanin

A

Melanin

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96
Q

“Atypical Parkinson” disease is, parkinson’s features seen in

Early age

drugs or toxins.

other neurodeg. disorders.

Genetic disorders.

A

early age

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97
Q

Microscopic features of senile degeneration are same as in Alzheimer’s disease (NF Tangles & Amyloid plaques).

True

False

A

T

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98
Q

Clinically Pick’s disease, the commmonest type of FTLD is characterised by preserved memory till late.

True

False

A

T

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99
Q

Jerking dementia is also known as,

Pick’s disease

Huntington’s disease.

Demential pugilistica

SCDC

MND

A

Huntingtons disease

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100
Q

Both motor and sensory nerves are affected in VitB12 deficiency SCDC.

True

False

A

T

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101
Q

Misfolded protein accumulated in neurons in CJD is,

Prion Protein

PrP

PrPc

PrPsc

ꞵ-amyloid

A

PrPsc
Normal cytoplasmic PrPc protein transforms from normal “ɑ-helix” to “ꞵ-pleated” PrPsc a non digestible polymer and behaves like a infective organism to covert normal PrP. Accumulation within results in neuronal degeneration.

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102
Q

Typical & distinguishing clinical feature of CJD is

Jerky movement

Rapidly progressive dementia

Behavioural abnormalities

Spongiform change

Younger age

A

Rapidly progressive dementia

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103
Q

CJD has 3 different clinical types. This is the commonest type of CJD in clinical practice (90%).

Congenital

Hereditary

Sporadic

Familial

Infective

A

Infective/ Sporadic

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104
Q

Classic specimen feature seen in a patient with Tremors, Rigidity and Bradykinesia is,

Limbic system atrophy

Demyelination

Striatonigral atrophy

Hippocampus atrophy

Caudate & putamen atophy.

A

Striatonigral atrophy

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105
Q

Cellular inclusions seen in a patient with behavioural changes, aphasia and dementia without significant loss of memory are,

NF Tangles

Amyloid plaques

Picks bodies

Lewy bodies

α-synuclein

A

Picks bodies

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106
Q

Characteristic inclusions seen in Parkinson’s disease are Lewy bodies.

True

False

A

T

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107
Q

fill in the blank
Three classic microscopic features seen in Alzheimer’s disease are NF Tangles, Amyloid plaques and

A

Angiopathy

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108
Q

Case 1: A 37 year old woman presents with a 2 year history of episodic bilateral
frontal headache. She describes it as a moderate intensity which normally settles
within 2-3 days.
01. The presence of which of the following clinical features would be most consistent with a diagnosis of tension type headache?
1. Vomiting
2. Rhinorrhoea
3. Pericranial tenderness to palpation
4. Visual aura
5. Photophobia & phonophobia

A

Pericranial tenderness to palpation

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109
Q

Case 2: A 47 year old man presents with a history of episodic pain behind his right
eye. He reports the pain comes on quickly and tends to last for around an hour
before settling.
02. The presence of which of the following clinical features would be most consistent with a diagnosis of cluster headache?
1. More than 8 attacks of pain per day
2. Onset after exercise
3. Ptosis
4. Reduced visual acuity
5. Scalp tenderness to palpation

A

Ptosis

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110
Q

Case 3: A 19 Year old university student presents to ED with a 24 hour history of
headache associated with vomiting.
Group discussion:
1) What differentials would you consider in a patient
presenting with headache and vomiting?
2) What red flags would be important to ask about on
history?

A
  1. Migraine, tension headache, stress, raised ICP, Idiopathic hyertension, dehydration, heat stroke, TBI, concussion.
  2. first/ wrost headache, symptoms of raised ICP, neck stiffness, old person, sudden onset, over 50, personality change, worse with bending or coughing.
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111
Q

Case 3: A 19 Year old university student presents to ED with a 24 hour history of
headache associated with vomiting. On further history he report a 2 day history of
fevers. He has also noticed increasing neck stiffness today. He is generally well with
no significant past medical history.
03. Which of the following examination findings would be most likely to be
associated with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
1. Aphasia
2. GCS of 13
3. Hemiparesis
4. Papilloedema
5. Vesicular rash

A

GCS of 13, potentially papillooedema as well.

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112
Q

Case 3: A 19 Year old university student presents to ED with a 2 day history of
fevers. He has experienced a worsening headache over the last 24 hours which has
been associated with vomiting. He has no significant past medical history.
O/E: Temp 38.3C, HR 128, BP 105/67, RR12, SpO2 97% RA, GCS 13, jolt
accentuation test positive, no papilloedema, no focal neurologic deficit on cranial
nerve, upper or lower limb examination.
04. Which is the single most important investigation to arrange for your patient?
1. Coagulation studies
2. CSF M/C/S
3. ESR
4. FBC
5. Lactate

A

CSF M/C/S

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113
Q

Case 3: A 19 Year old university student presents to ED with a 2 history of fevers.
He has experienced a worsening headache over the last 24 hours which has been
associated with vomiting. He has no significant past medical history.
O/E: Temp 38.3C, HR 128, BP 105/67, RR12, SpO2 97% RA, GCS 13, jolt
accentuation test positive, no papilloedema, no focal neurologic deficit on cranial
nerve upper or lower limb examination.
05. Which of the following is the most single important management step while
awaiting investigation results?
1. IV aciclovir
2. IV ceftriaxone
3. IV dexamethasone
4. IV fluids
5. Supplemental oxygen

A

IV ceftriaxone

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114
Q

Case 3: Antibiotics are commenced according to local clinical guidelines. His CSF
biochemistry and M/C/S return the following results:
06. Which pathogen is responsible for his presentation?
1. Cryptococcus gattii
2. Haemophilus influenza
3. Herpes simplex
4. Neisseria meningitides
5. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Neisseria meningitides- gram negative diplococci.

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115
Q

Case 4: A 35 year old man is brought in by ambulance to ED after falling from the
tray of a moving ute. On initial assessment in the resuscitation bay he is observed
to be opening his eyes when his fingernails are squeezed. When asked his name he
states ‘Tuesday’. He pulls his hand away when the nailbed is pinched.
07. What is his GCS score?
1. GCS 8 (E3 V2 M3)
2. GCS 9 (E2 V3 M4)
3. GCS 10 (E3 V3 M4)
4. GCS 11 (E2 V4 M5)
5. GCS 12 (E3 V4 M5)

A

GCS 9 (E2 V3 M4)

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116
Q

Case 4: A 35 year old man is brought in by ambulance to ED after falling from the
tray of a moving ute. On initial assessment in the resuscitation bay he is observed
to be opening his eyes when his fingernails are squeezed. When asked his name he
states ‘Tuesday’. He withdraws from painful stimuli when applied. A witness of the
accident states that he struck his head on a rock while falling, he was well initially
but over the next 2 hours became more drowsy and confused.
His CT brain is shown.
08. What is the cause of his presentation?
1. Acute subdural haematoma
2. Chronic subdural haematoma
3. Extradural haematoma
4. Intracerebral haemorrhage
5. Subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Extradural haematoma

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117
Q

Case 4: A 35 year old man is brought in by ambulance to ED after falling from the
tray of a moving ute. On reassessment after his CT scan you note that his GCS has
decreased and is now 7. He has a developed a dilated and unresponsive right pupil
and has left sided hemiparesis.
09. Which brain herniation syndrome is most likely to be
causing his new signs and symptoms?
1. Central herniation
2. Subfalcine herniation
3. Tonsillar herniation
4. Uncal / transtentorial herniation

A

Uncal / transtentorial herniation

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118
Q

Case 5: A 53 year old man presents to ED with a 2 hour history of headache. He describes it as sudden onset and quickly reached a 9/10 severity. He has been
vomiting since the headache started. He feels sensitive to light and is wearing sunglasses indoors. There is no history of trauma. He has a 35 pack year history of
smoking and has a background of hypertension, taking ramipril 5mg/day.
On examination his blood pressure is 193/115, pulse 72 regular, resp rate 12. He is noted to have neck stiffness.
10. Which of the following is the single most important
initial investigation for his presentation?
1. CT brain
2. Digital subtraction angiogram
3. EEG
4. Lumbar puncture
5. MRI brain

A

CT brain

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119
Q

Case 5: A 53 year old man presents to ED with a 2 hour history of headache. He describes it as sudden onset and quickly reached a 9/10 severity. He has been
vomiting since the headache started. There is no history of trauma. He feels sensitive to light and is wearing sunglasses indoors. He has a 35 pack year history of
smoking and has a background of hypertension, taking ramipril 5mg/day.
He has a CT brain (shown below)
11. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his
bleeding?
1. Arteriovenous malformation
2. Carotid artery dissection
3. Rupture of Ant comm. artery aneurysm
4. Rupture of Basilar artery aneurysm
5. Rupture of Post comm. artery aneurysm

A

Rupture of Ant comm. artery aneurysm

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120
Q

Case 6: An 85 year old lady is seen by her GP for increasing confusion and agitation.
She has a background of moderate dementia and is a resident of an aged care
facility. The nursing staff report that she has developed urinary incontinence, her
memory is worse that usual and she has been increasingly aggressive which is out
of character.
On examination she is noted to have an unsteady gait;
neurologic examination is otherwise unremarkable.
Her GP arranges a CT brain which is shown.
Group discussion: How would you describe the findings
of her CT scan?

A

Subdural bleed - Crescent shape of hematoma.
L sided
Effacement of the ventricle, compression of ventricle.
midline shift

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121
Q

Case 6: An 85 year old lady is seen by her GP for increasing confusion and agitation.
She has a background of moderate dementia and is a resident of an aged care
facility. The nursing staff report that she has developed urinary incontinence, her
memory is worse that usual and she has been increasingly aggressive which is out
of character.
On examination she is noted to have an unsteady gait;
neurologic examination is otherwise unremarkable.
12. Damage to which vessel is most likely to be causing
her presentation?
1. Anterior communicating artery
2. Basilar artery
3. Bridging veins
4. Middle meningeal artery
5. Superior sagittal sinus

A

Bridging veins

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122
Q

Case 7: An 18 year old woman is brought in to ED by ambulance after collapsing at
a party. A witness indicates that her limbs stiffened and then began ‘jerking’
uncontrollably. This stopped after 10 minutes while they were waiting for an
ambulance. She was drowsy and confused. Another episode started approximately
5 minutes ago while she was in the ambulance and is continuing.
13. What is the single most important initial management
step for this patient?
1. Give benzodiazepine
2. Give levetiracetam
3. Give propofol
4. Urgent CT brain
5. Urgent EEG

A

Give benzodiazepine / urgent EEG

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123
Q

Case 7: An 18 year old woman is brought in to ED by ambulance after collapsing at
a party. Her seizure terminates with IV midazolam and when the patient recovers
she indicates that she has been experiencing involuntary sudden ‘jerks’ most
commonly on waking and lasting for a few seconds. These have been going for
some time and she assumed she was ‘just clumsy’. She does not lose consciousness
and has never had a generalized seizure before
14. What type of seizure is the patient most likely
experiencing?
1. Absence seizure
2. Atonic seizure
3. Clonic seizure
4. Myoclonic seizure
5. Tonic seizure

A

myoclonic seizure

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124
Q

Case 7: An 18 year old woman is brought in to ED by ambulance after collapsing at
a party. Her seizure terminates with IV midazolam and when the patient recovers
she indicates that she has been experiencing involuntary sudden ‘jerks’ most
commonly on waking and lasting for a few seconds. These have been going for
some time and she assumed she was ‘just clumsy’. She does not lose consciousness
and has never had a generalized seizure before
Group discussion: What investigations would you arrange for this patient?

A

EEG
FBC
head CT/ MRI
UEC
Pregnancy
CMP
ECG
BGL
Lactate
Toxicology

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125
Q

Case 7: An 18 year old woman is brought in to ED by ambulance after collapsing at
a party. Her seizure terminates with IV midazolam and when the patient recovers
she indicates that she has been experiencing involuntary sudden ‘jerks’ most
commonly on waking and lasting for a few seconds. These have been going for
some time and she assumed she was ‘just clumsy’. She does not lose consciousness
and has never had a generalized seizure before.
After she recovers from her seizure she has a normal neurologic examination. MRI
and pathology are unremarkable. EEG shows 4Hz spike and wave discharges. She is
diagnosed with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.
Group discussion: Aside from commencing medication what else should be
discussed with the patient to improve their safety in the event of another seizure?

A

discussion with teh family of what to do when they have another seizure,
advise the pateint that they cannot drive for 6 months after seizure / 1 year.
if it occurs for more than 10 minutes, administer benzos
identify triggers
safe swimming
safe working environments

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126
Q

Case 8: A 57 year old man presents to his GP with a 4 month history of worsening
headache. He describes a generalized pain which is present on waking and can be
exacerbated by coughing and sneezing. He has also noticed decreased sensation in
his right leg. He is right hand dominant.
On examination he has a right inferior quadrantanopia.
15. What is the most likely location of his pathology?
1. Left optic nerve
2. Right optic nerve
3. Left parietal lobe
4. Right parietal lobe
5. Left temporal lobe

A

Left parietal lobe

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127
Q

Case 8: A 57 year old man presents to his GP with a 4 month history of worsening
headache. He describes a generalized pain which is present on waking and can be
exacerbated by coughing and sneezing. He has also noticed decreased sensation in
his right leg. He is right hand dominant.
On examination he has a right inferior quadrantanopia. His MRI is shown below.
16. Which of the following clinical features is the patient
most likely to experience?
1. Acalculia
2. Hypersalivation
3. Left hemineglect
4. Nystagmus
5. Visual hallucinations

A

Acalculia

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128
Q

Case 8: A 57 year old man presents to his GP with a 4 month history of worsening
headache. He describes a generalized pain which is present on waking and can be
exacerbated by coughing and sneezing. He has also noticed decreased sensation in
his right leg. He is right hand dominant.
On examination he has a right inferior quadrantanopia. His MRI is shown below.
17. What is the most important next step in the
management of this patient?
1. Commence antiepileptic medication
2. Provide simple analgesia
3. Neurosurgery referral
4. Ophthalmology referral

A

Neurosurgery referral

  • ring enhauncing lesion (surrounding inflammation)
  • hetrogenous mass in white matter
  • central necrosis
  • surroudning oedema
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129
Q

Case 8: A 57 year old man presents to his GP with a 4 month history of worsening
headache. He describes a generalized pain which is present on waking and can be
exacerbated by coughing and sneezing. He reports being more clumsy than usual
and is often walking into things on his left hand side.
He undergoes resection of the lesion. Histopathology is shown below.
18. What is the diagnosis?
1. Metastasis
2. Glioblastoma
3. Lymphoma
4. Medullablastoma
5. Meningioma

A

Glioblastoma

a. phleomorphic cells - forming pseudo palidating
b. around area of necrosis
c. areas of haemorrhage

130
Q

Case 9: A 74 year old lady presented with progressive depression and headaches
worsening over 6 months. Her headache is worse in the morning. More recently
she has developed poor short term memory. CT scan image is shown. (Gross image
is from a different patient with similar diagnosis)
19. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Glioblastoma
2. Pilocytic astrocytoma
3. Medulloblastoma
4. Metastases
5. Meningioma

A

Meningioma

131
Q

Case 10: A 28 year old woman presents with a 3 month history of bilateral hearing loss, tinnitus and loss of balance. Examination confirms a sensorineural hearing loss in both ears. Her neurological examination is otherwise normal. You suspect bilateral vestibular schwannomas.
20. Which of the following statements is correct?
1. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with Neurofibromatosis type 1
2. She is likely to have numerous skin neurofibromas
3. Her children have a 50% chance of developing the same condition
4. She is likely to have numerous café-au-lait spots
5. She is likely to develop malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumours over time

A

Her children have a 50% chance of developing the same condition
It is type NF2

132
Q

Case 11: A 45 year old man presents with a 6 month history of a slowly growing lump in
his upper thigh. On examination an irregular lump is palpated. Following imaging, a
biopsy is performed. Microscopy shows highly pleomorphic spindle cells with
hyperchromatic nuclei.
21. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Liposarcoma
2. Osteosarcoma
3. Lipoma
4. Kaposi’s sarcoma
5. Neurofibroma

A

Liposarcoma

133
Q

A 79-year-old female presents to ED with confusion. Notes from her nursing home state her confusion has been going on for 3 days. She has been having urinary incontinence for the last 5 days. Her behavior has been worse to manage in the evening with aggression. She is on a
number of medications including Targin 5mg BD for OA, ramipril, atorvastatin, rivaroxaban, metoprolol, Panadol osteo, HCTZ. No report of recent falls. FamHx: Mum had Alzheimer’s disease.
What differentials are you considering for her presentation?

A

DDD.

134
Q

A 79-year-old female presents to ED with confusion. Notes from her nursing home state her confusion has been going on for 3 days. She has been having urinary incontinence for the last 5 days. Her behavior has been worse to manage in the evening with aggression. She is on a
number of medications including Targin 5mg BD for OA, ramipril, atorvastatin, rivaroxaban, metoprolol, Panadol osteo, HCTZ. No report
of recent falls. FamHx: Mum had Alzheimer’s disease.

  1. The presence of which of the following features supports delirium as the most likely diagnosis?

A. Dysuria with increased urinary frequency, onset of confusion over a few hours with periods of lucidity, and short term memory impairment
B. Sundowning, progressive loss of day to day functions, with long and short term memory impairment
C. Insomnia, weeks of low mood, and features of psychosis (delusions and hallucinations)
D. Recurrent falls, short term memory impairment, and confabulation

A

Dysuria with increased urinary frequency, onset of confusion over a few hours with periods of lucidity, and short term memory impairment.

b. dementia
c. depression
d. cerebellar dysfunction

135
Q

65 yo male is accompanied by his wife for a health check with their GP. He has no PMHx and is not on any meds. Retired from his law practice 2 years ago. The
patient’s wife and children have observed increasing episodes of forgetfulness over the last 6-12 months.
Specific examples include: repeating the same questions, forgetting tasks he had set out to complete, he’s lost his way driving home from familiar outings, and the
other day put some soup on the stove and completely forgot about it! Luckily his wife was home but she’s understandably getting more worried.

In addition to asking further history (pt & collateral) and examination –what clinical scoring tool(s) would assist you in the assessment of this patient?
Discuss strengths/weaknesses of each

A

MMSE: out of 30, <24 mild cognitive impairment. is Standardised, quick and easy test, does not take into account education or cultural aspects or language

MoCA: more sensitive for MCI, -ve being time taken

RUDAS: recommended for culturally linguistic

KICA: validated assessment tool for older indigenous austrlaians

136
Q

65 yo male is accompanied by his wife for a health check with their GP. He has no PMHx and is not on any meds. Retired from his law practice 2 years ago. The
patient’s wife and children have observed increasing episodes of forgetfulness over the last 6-12 months.
Specific examples include: repeating the same questions, forgetting tasks he had set out to complete, he’s lost his way driving home from familiar outings, and the
other day put some soup on the stove and completely forgot about it! Luckily his wife was home but she’s understandably getting more worried.

On further questioning, it appears he has been having some word finding difficulties. He also usually enjoys a sudoku puzzle with his morning coffee but has been struggling complete them in the last few months. No mood disturbances. No other symptoms of concern.
His MMSE score is 23 today with a normal examination.
Case 1
02. What is your most likely diagnosis?
A. Lewy Body Dementia
B. Frontotemporal Dementia
C. Alzheimer’s Dementia
D. Parkinson’s Disease

A

Mild cognitive impairment : deficits seem higher level impairment - alzheimers.

A. Lewy Body Dementia - should have parkinsons features
B. Frontotemporal Dementia - laguage, intact memory
D. Parkinson’s Disease- no cognitive loss

137
Q

65 yo male is accompanied by his wife for a health check with their GP. He has no PMHx and is not on any meds. Retired from his law practice 2 years ago. The
patient’s wife and children have observed increasing episodes of forgetfulness over the last 6-12 months.
Specific examples include: repeating the same questions, forgetting tasks he had set out to complete, he’s lost his way driving home from familiar outings, and the
other day put some soup on the stove and completely forgot about it! Luckily his wife was home but she’s understandably getting more worried.

On further questioning, it appears he has been having some word finding difficulties. He also usually enjoys a sudoku puzzle with his morning coffee but has been struggling complete them in the last few months. No mood disturbances. No other symptoms of concern.
His MMSE score is 23 today with a normal examination.
4. 03. For the previous patient, which medication would you consider trialing?
A. Risperidone
B. Donepezil
C. Paroxetine
D. Levodopa+Benserazide

A

Donepezil: dementia drug - ach inhibitor

A. Risperidone - seditive
C. Paroxetine - antidepressant
D. Levodopa+Benserazide - parkinosns disease

138
Q

Image of features seen in Alzheimers brain. Which of the following feature is shown by arrow B.
1. Neurofibrillary tangle
2. Amyloid plaque
3. Amyloid angiopathy
4. Neuronal atrophy
5. Aꞵ aggregates

A

Amyloid plaque - made of AB aggregates

139
Q

40 yo female presents to you in GP clinic with low mood and not enjoying her usual hobbies of running and painting. She reports these symptoms have been ongoing for at least 5 years, although not previously discussed with a doctor. More recently she has found it a struggle to perform her usual work duties as a medical receptionist.
No PMHx. No meds.FamHx – Parents divorced when she was young. Didn’t know her dad but he died in his late 40s – was told from “early dementia”.During the consult you notice jerking movements of her hands

Case 2
05. What pattern of inheritance is this genetic neurodegenerative disorder?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked recessive
D. X-linked dominant
E. Mitochondrial

A

suggested history of huntingtons -Autosomal dominant

140
Q

40 yo female presents to you in GP clinic with low mood and not enjoying her usual hobbies of running and painting. She reports these symptoms have been ongoing for at least 5 years, although not previously discussed with a doctor. More recently she has found it a struggle to perform her usual work duties as a medical receptionist.
No PMHx. No meds.FamHx – Parents divorced when she was young. Didn’t know her dad but he died in his late 40s – was told from “early dementia”.During the consult you notice jerking movements of her hands

Huntington’s Disease will likely affect which area of the brain predominantly?
A. Thalamus
B. Internal capsule
C. Substantia nigra
D. Motor cortex
E. Striatum

A

Striatum - atrophy of the striatum, enlarged ventricles.

141
Q

*

A 60 y.o. woman presents as a new patient to your practice. She walks into your room taking small quick steps with her body leaning forwards. On sitting down, you note she has a very apathetic appearance and there is a visible tremor.
07. What are the 3 hallmark signs of her disease?
A. Festinating gait, changes to writing, tremor
B. Rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor
C. Bradykinesia, changes to voice, ataxia
D. Facial masking, rigidity, tremor
E. Ataxia, tremor, changes to writing

A

parkinsons B -Rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor. These are the hallmarks.

142
Q

A 60 y.o. woman presents as a new patient to your practice. She walks into your room taking small quick steps with her body leaning forwards. On sitting down, you note she has a very apathetic appearance and there is a visible tremor.
Which of the following tremors is the patient most likely to experience in parkinsons?
A. Low frequency tremor of the right hand that is present at rest and diminishes with movement
B. High frequency tremor of both hands that is more prominent with movement
C. Fine high frequency tremor of the hands triggered by holding her arms outstretched
D. Low frequency tremor of the hands that is more apparent as they move towards a target
E. Tremor of the legs that is triggered on standing and resolves when sitting

A

Low frequency tremor of the right hand that is present at rest and diminishes with movement - the only resting tremor.

143
Q

In parkinsons, the most specific expected macroscopic abnormality
is:
A. Atrophy of the thalamus
B. Posterior cortical thinning and atrophy
C. Haemorrhages within the cerebellum
D. Depigmented substantia nigra

A

Depigmented substantia nigra

144
Q

Which of the following clinical features is the patient most likely to experience in parkinsons?
A. Autonomic dysfunction, hypophonia, micrographia
B. Ataxic gait, confusion, poor coordination
C. Limb weakness, antalgic gait, depression
D. Involuntary movements, poor memory, depression

A

Autonomic dysfunction, hypophonia, micrographia.

b. would indictae cerebellum
c. structural issue not neurological
d. would indicate huntingtons

145
Q

A 65 yo female was recently diagnosed with Parkinson disease after onset of tremor, increased tone and bradykinesia 10 months ago. She is brought in by family
reporting concern that she hasn’t been herself. In the last few weeks, she has appeared inattentive and quite confused at times. They also say that she keeps talking about seeing a black cat in the house, even though they don’t own any pets.
11. What diagnosis should you now consider?
A. Lewy Body Dementia
B. Frontotemporal dementia
C. Wilson’s Disease
D. Atypical parkinsonism
E. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy

A

Lewy Body Dementia

146
Q

A 65 yo female was recently diagnosed with Parkinson disease after onset of tremor, increased tone and bradykinesia 10 months ago. She is brought in by family
reporting concern that she hasn’t been herself. In the last few weeks, she has appeared inattentive and quite confused at times. They also say that she keeps talking about seeing a black cat in the house, even though they don’t own any pets. The same patient returns for review 6 months later. You suspect she has developed autonomic dysfunction as a complication of her Parkinson disease.
12. The presence of which of the following feature would support your theory?
A. Constipation
B. Tinnitus
C. Dry mouth
D. Hypertension

A

Constipation

147
Q

Over the past 2 years, a 57yo male has become more depressed, withdrawn and socially isolated. This has coincided with the development of abrupt mood
disturbances and irritability. He has become repetitive in his actions. And now has troubles with his speech – he’s struggling to remember names of simple objects and is speaking with halted sentences. His memory does not appear to be affected.
13. Which diagnosis is he most likely to have?
A. Lewy Body Dementia
B. Frontotemporal Dementia
C. Central pontine myelinolysis
D. Huntington’s Disease
E. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy

A

Frontotemporal Dementia

148
Q

A 55 yo retired boxer has slowly developed headaches, memory loss and tremors over the last few years. During his career, he suffered at least 5 significant head
concussions. He has no family history of dementia.
14. What diagnosis does he most likely have?
A. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy
B. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
C. Korsakoff psychosis
D. Vascular dementia

A

Chronic traumatic encephalopathy

149
Q

A 54 yo female presents to ED with confusion, ataxic gait, and blurry vision. Her memory appears intact and there is no confabulation. She has no PMHx.
Smokes 10 cigs/day. EtOH 10+ SD/daily.
15. What is her most likely diagnosis?
A. B12 deficiency
B. Left sided temporal stroke
C. Wernickes encephalopathy
D. Korsakoff syndrome

A

Wernickes encephalopathy - acute

150
Q

A 54 yo female presents to ED with confusion, ataxic gait, and blurry vision. Her memory appears intact and there is no confabulation. She has no PMHx.
Smokes 10 cigs/day. EtOH 5+ SD/daily.
16. Her symptoms are due to which of the following?
A. Thiamine deficiency
B. B12 deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Hypoglycaemia

A

Thiamine deficiency

151
Q
  1. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is associated with haemorrhages in:
    A. Caudate + 3rd ventricle
    B. Mamillary body + 3rd ventricle
    C. Corpus callosum + lateral ventricle
    D. Putamen + hypothalamus
A

Mamillary body + 3rd ventricle

152
Q

43F presents with fatigue, shortness of breath and numbness/tingling in her legs. She reports prior to arriving in Australia from Finland 10 years ago, she was diagnosed with pernicious anaemia. She has not ever received treatment for this condition.
18. Which neurological examination findings would indicate complications from her underlying diagnosis?
A. Ataxic gait, nystagmus, dysdiadokinesis
B. Impaired vibration sense, hyperreflexia, +ve Rhomberg’s sign
C. Café au lait macules, visual loss, polyneuropathy

A

Impaired vibration sense, hyperreflexia, +ve Rhomberg’s sign - subacute combined degeneration secondary to B12 deficiency.

153
Q

Etiology of common clinical type of gout is,

Genetic defect

Excess protein diet

Increased cell lysis (Leukemias)

Alcohol abuse

Renal disease

A

Genetic defect

154
Q

Marked hyperuricemia is sufficient to cause clinical Gout.

True

False

A

F

155
Q

Following inflammatory cells are typically seen in Synovial fluid in Gout.

Lymphocytes

Macrophages

Giant cells

All of the above

Neutrophils

A

neutrophils

156
Q

Crystals seen in Pseudo-Gout are,

Calcium Phosphate

Oxalic acid

Calcium Pyrophosphate

Mono-sodium urate

Uric acid

A

Calcium Pyrophosphate

157
Q

Criteria for diagnosing JIA is children aged less than 16 years with arthritis for more than

8 days

1 week

6 weeks

6 months

6 Years

A

6 weeks

158
Q

In majority of JIA laboratory tests show positive

Rheumatoid Factor test

Anti CCP Antibody test

HLA B27 test

Anti ds DNA test

ANA (Anti Nuclear Antibody) test

A

ANA (Anti Nuclear Antibody) test

159
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis typically involves what joint.

Knee

Sacroiliac

Hip

Distal Interphalengial

Proximal Interphalengial

A

Sacroiliac

160
Q

Joint destruction is typically seen in all these arthritis EXCEPT.

JIA

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Lyme disease

Gonococcal arthritis

Staphylococcal septic arthritis

A

Gonococcal arthritis

161
Q

Lymes disease can be trated with oral antibiotics.

True

False

A

T

162
Q

Ganglion Cyst is a degenerative cyst of peripheral nerve ganglions.

True

False

A

F

163
Q

90% cases of Ankylosing spondylitis patients are positive for what feature.

HLA DRB1

PTPN 22

HLA DR3

HLA B27

Anti CCP

A

HLA b27

164
Q

Typical microscopic feature of RA is synovial,

Acute inflammation with neutrophils

Chronic inflammation

Granuloma formation

Proliferation with lymphoid follicles.

Atrophy with lymphocytes & plasma cells.

A

Proliferation with lymphoid follicles.

165
Q

Early involvement of Distal Interphalengial joints (DIP) is typical of Osteoarthritis.

True

False

A

T

166
Q

What cells are typically only seen in synovial fluid of RA joints.

Plasma cells

Lymphocytes

Neutrophils

Macrphages

Giant cells

A

Neutrophils

167
Q

Typical microscopic feature of OA joints is,

Sclerosis

Bone cyst

Cartilage flaking

Cartilage fissuring

All of the above

A

All of the above

168
Q

In acute gout, Monosodium Urate crystals are typically seen within,

Macrophages

Giant cells

Centre of granuloma

Neutrophils

Plasma cells.

A

Neutrophils

169
Q

Common genetic susceptibility for developing RA is,

CD4 Lymphocytes

RANK gene

Anti CCP

HLA DR4

RF

A

HLA DR4

170
Q

Rice bodies in RA joints are

Necrotic tissue

Fibrin clots

WBC clumps

bone pieces

Granulomas

A

Fibrin clots

171
Q

Typical microscopic feature seen in Pannus is plenty of

Neutrophils

Mesothelial cells

Lymphocytes

Degeneration

Inflammation

A

lymphocytes

172
Q

In RA injury starts in the articular cartilage and then spreads to synovium

True

False

A

False

173
Q

Tendons & Ligaments have predominantly Type-2 Collagen.

True

False

A

F

174
Q

Healing in Cartilage is by Type-1 Collagen.

True

False

A

T

175
Q

Superficial partial thickness injury in articular cartilage is never healed fully.

True

False

A

T

176
Q

Full thickness injury in articular cartilage is healed by Fibrocartilage

True

False

A

T

177
Q

Specialized connective tissue bands connecting two bones is called

Ligament

Tendon

Fascia

Capsule

Periosteum

A

Ligament

178
Q

Postural muscles are strong muscles and are actively contracting all the time.

True

False

A

F
Postural muscles are weak muscles but are active most of the time to keep stable posture, this reduces blood supply causing ischemia. (it is good to move frequently during day time)

179
Q

Replacement of dead muscle cell is by proliferation of,

Myoblasts

Surrounding intact muscle cells.

Bone marrow stem cells

Satellite cells

Myocytes

A

Satellite cells

180
Q

**

Among the four stages of healing, third stage is,

A
  • Stages of Healing; (common to all tissues)
    a) Bleeding
    b) Inflammation
    c) Proliferation
    d) Remodeling
181
Q

Common myositis in children is,

Polymyositis
Dermatomyositis
Inclusion body myositis
Duchenne muscluar dystrophy
Becker’s muscular dystrophy

A

Dermatomyositis

182
Q

*

Amyloid & tau protein deposition is seen in ____________ type of muscular disorder.

Polymyositis Rheumatica
Dermatomyositis
Inclusion body myositis
toxoplasma myositis
Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Inclusion body myositis

183
Q

Unlike crush syndrome, Inflammation is the initial trigger in Compartment syndrome.

True
False

A

T

184
Q

“One slow fat red ox” is the pneumonic to remember type-2 muscle fibre.

True
False

A

F

185
Q

Dermatomyositis is common in

Infants

Neonates

Children

Adults

Elcerly

A

Children

186
Q

35 year old male presents with pain in his collarbone
since a fall on his shoulder with his arm at his side. He
now complains of pain +++ in shoulder
Q01: How long will it take this fracture to heal?
* 3wks
* 4-6wks
* 6-8wks
* 8-10wks
* 12 wks

A

6-8 weeks

187
Q

The patient with presents five weeks
later for review and an Xray reveals a
bridge linking the fracture edges
Q02: What type of tissue predominates
in this bridge?
* Organising haematoma
* Vascular stage: Granulation tissue
* Primary callus: cartilage
* Bony callus: woven bone
* Mature callus: lamellar bone

A

Bony callus: woven bone
- there is some connection, but it is irregular

the first three, there would be no connection at all.

188
Q

42 year old male patient presents
following a motorcycle accident.
Q03: What is this type of fracture?
* Closed
* Open

A

Open - compound fracture.

189
Q

Table talk: list factors that delay healing

A

diabetes
infection
alignment
movement
rebreak
poor nutrition
chronic disease
older age

190
Q

Patient presented with an open fracture

Patient presents 6 months later
with one month’s history of
discharge from skin over fracture
site. This is the associated Xray.
Q04: What is the most likely
diagnosis?
* Abscess
* Cellulitis
* Osteomyelitis
* Osteosarcoma

A

Osteomyelitis

191
Q

A 52 year old woman presents
with severe L upper arm pain after
helping her husband move a sofa.
On further history, she has had arm pain
at night for the last month.
Q05: Most likely underlying cause of
fracture?
* Metastasis
* Osteomyelitis
* Osteopenia
* Osteoporosis

A

Metastasis

192
Q

A 52 year old woman presents
with severe L upper arm pain after
helping her husband move a sofa.
On further history, she has had arm pain
at night for the last month.
Which of the following is the definition of pathological fracture?
* Caused by repeated excessive activity
* Due to fall from standing height or less
* Occurs spontaneously or with minimal trauma

A

all are suspicious, but occurs spontaneously or with minial trauma is the most correct.

193
Q

A 52 year old woman presents
with severe L upper arm pain after
helping her husband move a sofa.
On further history, she has had arm pain
at night for the last month.
What is the most likely source of the metastasis causing her pathological
fracture?
* Breast
* Kidney
* Lung
* Lymphoma
* Thyroid

A
  • Breast - 53
  • Kidney - 11
  • Lung - 8
  • Lymphoma - 5
  • Thyroid - 5
194
Q

A 52 year old woman presents
with severe L upper arm pain after
helping her husband move a sofa.
On further history, she has had arm pain
at night for the last month.
She had treated breast
cancer 8 years ago and had
been given the all clear
Q08: A biopsy of the lesion is
done, what would you
expect in the report?
* Keratin pearls
* Pleomorphic ducts

A

pleomorphic ducts - irregular ducts

kerritin pearls would be rounded sections

195
Q

68 yo woman
Smoker
Watches a lot of TV and seldom goes
outdoors
Depression, on SSRIs
Menopause aged 48years
Poor nutrition – tea and toast – since death
of partner 10 years ago
COPD. Several exacerbations. Steroids
multiple times this year
Diabetes, on metformin
Also reflux, PPIs
BMI<18
4units alcohol per day
Mother had bad osteoporosis and a very
crooked spine as an older woman

  • Table talk: risk factors for
    osteoporosis
  • What factors can you identify?
  • Modifiable vs non modifiable
  • Diseases and medications
A

chronic disease
menopause
smoking
malnutrition
family hx
steriod use
lack exercise
depression
SSRI
lack outside
diabetes
PPIs

196
Q

68 yo woman
Smoker
Watches a lot of TV and seldom goes
outdoors
Depression, on SSRIs
Menopause aged 48years
Poor nutrition – tea and toast – since death
of partner 10 years ago
COPD. Several exacerbations. Steroids
multiple times this year
Diabetes, on metformin
Also reflux, PPIs
BMI<18
4units alcohol per day
Mother had bad osteoporosis and a very
crooked spine as an older woman

With any of these risk factors, patient undertakes a DXA.
Her T score is -2.1.
Q09: What is the next step in her management?
* Bisphosphonates
* Calculate fracture risk
* Encourage exercise participation
* Oestrogen replacement therapy

A

osteopenia (-2.5 is osteoperosis)

therefore calculate fracture risk

197
Q

68 yo woman
Smoker
Watches a lot of TV and seldom goes
outdoors
Depression, on SSRIs
Menopause aged 48years
Poor nutrition – tea and toast – since death
of partner 10 years ago
COPD. Several exacerbations. Steroids
multiple times this year
Diabetes, on metformin
Also reflux, PPIs
BMI<18
4units alcohol per day
Mother had bad osteoporosis and a very
crooked spine as an older woman

This patient is suspected of having low Vitamin D.
Given the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption, the patient will have less
calcium available in her body.
Q10: By what mechanism does her body try to increase her serum calcium
levels?
* Decrease in osteoclast activity
* Increase in PTH
* Increase in renal loss

A

Increase in PTH

198
Q

Back pain
Table talk:
What are red and yellow flags for back pain

A

RED FLAGS TUNAFISH
trauma
unexplained weightloss
neurological symtoms
age >50
fever
IV drug use
steriod use
history of cancer

YELLOW FLAGS
low mood
depression
social wihdrawal

199
Q

This is a 74 yo woman.
She has a strong family history of osteoporosis and so she was advised to take calcium and vit D and to exercise regularly.
She had a DXA at age 55.
She presents with a sudden onset of thoracic back pain yesterday. She turned in her chair to get a pen she had dropped on the ground. The pain is severe, continuous and she was unable to sleep comfortably last night, despite Panadol and ibuprofen and this is her MRI.
Any red flags?

She has been recommended to start denosumab
She tells you that at primary school, all children were given free drinks of milk every day for their bone health.
Q11: Which of the above is primary prevention for osteoporosis?
* Free milk for all children
* Regular calcium, Vit D and exercise
* Screening with DXA
* Treatment with denosumab

A

red flags: age, bad pain and not sleeping

Regular calcium, Vit D and exercise

200
Q

72 year old female presents with a long
standing history of lower back pain. She has had
Xrays done and was told it was osteoarthritis and to
take extended release paracetamol. Two days ago,
she was involved in a mishap where she clumsily
caught a heavy box falling off a shelf and she now
has a burning and stabbing pain going into her L
buttock and down her L leg, which is made worse
when coughing. She has also noticed some changes
in sensation and power in her left leg since then.
Any red flags?
You decide to perform a neurological examination
on her lower limbs and find the following signs:
R side: normal power, sensation and reflexes.
L side: Ability to walk on toes and to squat but inability to walk on heel
Q12: Where do you expect that there will be loss of
sensation?
A (light green)
B (dark green)
C (pale lilac)

A

A (light green)
B (dark green) -L4/5
C (pale lilac)

201
Q

72 year old female presents with a long
standing history of lower back pain. She has had Xrays done and was told it was osteoarthritis and to take extended release paracetamol. Two days ago, she was involved in a mishap where she clumsily caught a heavy box falling off a shelf and she now has a burning and stabbing pain going into her L buttock and down her L leg, which is made worse when coughing. She has also noticed some changes
in sensation and power in her left leg since then.
Any red flags?
You decide to perform a neurological examination on her lower limbs and find the following signs:
R side: normal power, sensation and reflexes.
L side: Ability to walk on toes and to squat but inability to walk on heel

Acute lateral herniation of which disc has led to these symptoms?
* L4-L5
* L5-S1
* S1-S2

A
  • L4-L5, but can be a L5 and S1 disk
202
Q

72 year old male presents with pain in thoracic vertebrae. The
pain has been present for 6 weeks and it is worse at night. The patient tired,
easily fatigued and has lost weight in last 2 months. O/E Tender on palpation
of T8 vertebral body.
Any red flags?
Therefore, the GP decides to do some investigations. The vertebral Xray
demonstrates a lytic lesions in the vertebral bodies, particularly T8.
The patient has hypercalcaemia, increased creatinine and normochromic
normocytic anaemia.
Q14: What is the most likely diagnosis?
* Multiple myeloma
* Osteoporosis
* Prostatic carcinoma metastases

A

red flags include - weight loss, tender on palpation, timeframe, worse at night

therefore, Multiple myeloma

203
Q

Bone marrow aspirate is done demonstrating:
“Normal marrow cells are largely replaced by plasma cells, including atypical forms with multiple nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and cytoplasmic droplets containing
immunoglobulin”.
Q15: What is the mechanism of the bone pain, fractures and hypercalcemia?
* Osteoblast stimulation
* Production of cytokine by myeloma cells
* Sclerotic lesion in bone that leads to
pathological fracture

A

Production of cytokine by myeloma cells

204
Q

80 year old male presents with 3 months of
worsening back pain.
There is some bony tenderness at the lumbar spine.
What are the red flags?
Investigations are undertaken:
FBC is normal, calcium and phosphate are normal but ALP is raised. See Xray of lumbar spine.
Q16: What is the underlying pathogenesis of the bone disorder?
* Decreased bone vascularity
* Increase in size of bone marrow
* Increased osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity
* Low bone turnover

A

Increased osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity

205
Q

A 82 year old male presents after tripping on his cat
Now unable to weight bear on his L leg
Xray demonstrates subcapital fractured neck of femur.
Q17. What is the main reason for surgical
repair with hemiarthroplasty/total hip
arthroplasty, rather than plaster,
immobilsation, or traction?
* Avascular necrosis
* Osteoporosis

A

Avascular necrosis - if there is not good traction on the area, the blood supply is compromised.

206
Q

21 year old male university student presents with 1 month history
of pain and tenderness in his R thigh. The pain occurs at night and he is
starting to lose sleep due to the pain. However, when he gets up to take
ibuprofen, this relieves the pain.
Q18: What is the most likely diagnosis?
* Osteochondroma
* Osteoid osteoma
* Osteomyelitis
* Osteosarcoma

A

Osteoid osteoma
- pain occurs at night, 5-25 years old, long bone, losing sleep, releived by NSAIDS
- common in femur.

207
Q

A 88 year old female presents with a one year history of R thigh pain, which has worsened in the last month. She was
diagnosed with OA of the hip and was started on long acting paracetamol and NSAIDs. She has a past history of distal shaft fracture of femur in a car accident 15 years ago (which was felt to be the likely cause of the OA hip) However, the pain is worsening and is particularly bad at night.
There has been an unintentional weight loss of 3kg in the last month.
On examination, she has a tender lump deep in her R thigh, above her knee.
Review of blood tests done a year ago reveal a random rise in her
ALP and the GP was investigating her for Paget’s disease, when this Xray was done, suggesting an additional diagnosis.
Q19: From the Xray, what is the most likely cause of the current increase in her thigh pain?
* Ewing’s sarcoma
* Healed fracture of the femur
* Osteomyelitis
* Osteosarcoma

A

Osteosarcoma
both osteolytic and osteosclerotic bone shown in the image, you can see the tumor. - only in the metaphysis, also microcalcifications, codmins triangle

208
Q
A
  1. giant celll tumor
  2. osteosarcoma
  3. ewing sarcoma
  4. Osteoid osteoma
209
Q

43 year old female, presents with a one year history of a lump at
the wrist. It is not painful and she is constitutionally well.
On examination, the lump is next the wrist joint and is superficial and hard. It
is mobile and not fixed to skin but is fixed to deep tissue
Q20: What is the most likely diagnosis?
* Ganglion cyst
* Lipoma
* Osteochondroma
* Joint abscess

A

Ganglion cyst

210
Q

A 24 year old premier league netball player presents with sudden onset Right knee
pain that occurred whilst playing today.
PMH/PSH: nil; no medications or allergies
On further history:
Was changing direction with Right foot firmly planted when the pain was felt
Knee feels unstable
Difficult to weight bear
Knee swollen in an hour

On examination Right knee:
Swollen
Not warm or red
Widespread tenderness over knee
Inability to fully extend knee
Positive Lachman’s test

01.Which structure is most likely affected?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E

A

B- ACL
bc of postives lachmans test

211
Q

A 24 year old premier league netball player presents with sudden onset Right knee
pain that occurred whilst playing today.
PMH/PSH: nil; no medications or allergies
02. What investigation of the knee would be most appropriate in this patient?
1. X-ray
2. MRI
3. CT
4. CT arthrography
5. Ultrasound

A

MRI

212
Q

What feature on history/examination would make a posterior cruciate ligament injury more likely than an ACL injury?
1. Direct blow to the flexed knee
2. Popping sensation
3. Marked swelling
4. Clicking of the knee

A

Direct blow to the flexed knee

  1. Popping sensation (ACL)
  2. Marked swelling (Non-specific)
  3. Clicking of the knee (Meniscal)
213
Q

A 21 year old woman presents to the GP with pain in the left medial knee. She
developed pain following a weekend soccer game, when she was tackled by an opponent from
the outside and ran into the lateral side of the left knee. The knee was hyperextended and
twisted during the tackle. She was unable to play following the injury and limped off the field.
She denied any locking or giving way. Overnight she noticed some swelling.
On examination: Walks with a limp but has pain, mild swelling of the medial aspect of the knee
with some bruising
Tenderness on palpation in the pes anserine area, MCL and medial joint line. No neurovascular
deficit.
AROM-0-130 degrees left knee, 0-135 degrees right knee. PROM 0-135 degrees both knees.
Decreased strength left hamstring 4/5. Rest is 5/5
04. An X-ray of the knee is indicated in this patient
1. True
2. False

A

False

214
Q

A 21 year old woman presents to the GP with pain in the left medial knee. She developed pain following
a weekend soccer game, when she was tackled by an opponent from the outside and ran into the lateral
side of the left knee. The knee was hyperextended and twisted during the tackle. She was unable to play
following the injury and limped off the field. She denied any locking or giving way. Overnight she noticed
some swelling.
Special tests:
Lachman’s- negative
Thessaly’s positive- pain on medial knee both at 5 and 20 degrees
Valgus stress positive- pain on left with slight laxity
An MRI is organised.
05. Considering the history and examination findings which of the following statements is true?
1. The medial meniscus and MCL are affected as they are both extra-articular knee ligaments
2. The medial meniscus is separated from the MCL by the popliteus tendon
3. The medial meniscus is firmly attached to the MCL
4. The medial meniscus and MCL are affected as they are both intra-articular knee ligaments

A

The medial meniscus is firmly attached to the MCL

215
Q

A 21 year old woman presents to the GP with pain in the left medial knee. She developed pain following
a weekend soccer game, when she was tackled by an opponent from the outside and ran into the lateral
side of the left knee. The knee was hyperextended and twisted during the tackle. She was unable to play
following the injury and limped off the field. She denied any locking or giving way. Overnight she noticed
some swelling.
Table talk:
What important non-operative measures can be considered in this patient.

A

R - rest the knee
I- Ice applied
C - compression and hinge brace
E - elevation

pain relief
physiotherapy for rehabilitation

activity modification until they recover

216
Q

A 13 year old male high school student presents with a 4 month history of
bilateral painful knees (R>L). This is worse after exercise and is painful to kneel.
Associated swelling right knee. No locking or giving way. No trauma to knee.
PMH- no medical problems
Social: competitive soccer player
On examination: tender++ tibial tubercle
Knee X-ray is shown.
06. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Popliteal cyst
2. Pre-patellar bursitis
3. Chondramalacia patellae
4. Osgood-Schlatter disease
5. Juvenile chronic arthritis

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

217
Q

A 52 year old male present to the GP with left ankle pain since his run
yesterday. He has just started running training and completed his first 10 km run
yesterday. While at the finish line he rolled his ankle and foot inward. This was
associated with pain, but he iced it and went home. He complains of pain and swelling
today and is concerned he may have a fracture.
You perform an examination of his ankle.
07. What sign on examination would indicate the need for an X-ray of the ankle in this
patient?
1. Decreased range of movement at the ankle
2. Tenderness of the calcaneum
3. Swelling of the ankle
4. Tenderness on the posterior edge of both malleoli
5. Antalgic gait

A

Tenderness on the posterior edge of both malleoli

218
Q

A 52 year old male present to the GP with left ankle pain since his run
yesterday. He has just started running training and completed his first 10 km run
yesterday. While at the finish line he rolled his ankle and foot inward. This was
associated with pain, but he iced it and went home. He complains of pain and swelling
today and is concerned he may have a fracture.
You perform an examination of his ankle.

On examination he has some swelling and tenderness on the lateral aspect of the
ankle. There is pain on inversion of the ankle. He can weight bear on the left side
but has some pain. No bony tenderness or neurovascular compromise is noted.
You decide an X-ray ankle is not indicated and diagnose a sprained ankle.
08. With respect to ligament injury and healing, which of the following statements is
correct?
1. Type 2 collagen predominates
2. Are highly vascular
3. Injuries heal quickly (<4 weeks)
4. Tears in ligaments are repaired by fibrovascular scar
5. Return to usual strength is the usual outcome

A

Tears in ligaments are repaired by fibrovascular scar

219
Q

A 29 year old man presents to the local health service after being tackled
awkwardly during a soccer game in Normanton. This was associated with severe pain in
his right shin and inability to weight bear, and he had to be stretchered off the field.
On examination of the right leg there is no open wound noted and there is no
neurovascular compromise. No other injuries are noted else where and he is
haemodynamically stable with a GCS of 15.
Xray of the right tibia is shown below.
Knee and ankle x-rays are normal.

While awaiting further management, he complains of a feeling of tightness in his leg
and swelling associated with deep aching burning pain in the front of the lower leg.
This is worsened by passive stretching and relieved by rest. This is associated with
some numbness on the dorsum of his leg.
09. What is the pathophysiology of the most likely cause of his current symptoms?
1. Myoglobin release following muscle injury
2. Non-necrotizing inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue
3. Elevated pressure in an osteofascial compartment
4. Venous thromboembolism

A

Elevated pressure in an osteofascial compartment

220
Q

What sign is most likely to be present on examination that might be suggestive of
acute compartment syndrome?
1. Erythema
2. Extensor plantar response
3. Firm wooden feeling on deep palpation
4. Dilated superficial veins
5. Warmth

A

Firm wooden feeling on deep palpation

p’s

221
Q

What limitations need to be considered when managing patients with
injuries in remote settings?
Table talk:

A

access to imaging
assess to specialists for referrals
ability for rehabilitation
difficlty and time constraints for followup appointments
travel to other places for specialist

222
Q

A 60 year old woman presents with pain and stiffness in the right shoulder
for the past 6 weeks. The pain is located over the outer aspect of her shoulder.
She has history of type 2 diabetes on metformin.
She is a non-smoker, does not drink alcohol. She swims 4 times a week and plays the
violin regularly.
Table Talk:
List the most likely differential diagnosis?

A

bursitis
rotator cuff injury
osteoarthritis
frozen shoulder
impingements
adhesive capsulitis

referred pain
inflammatiory arthropathy

223
Q

A 60 year old woman presents with pain and stiffness in the right shoulder
for the past 6 weeks. The pain is located over the outer aspect of her shoulder.
She has history of type 2 diabetes on metformin.
She is a non-smoker, does not drink alcohol. She swims 4 times a week and plays the
violin regularly.

On examination: External examination shows no abnormalities. Palpation reveals no
tenderness. AROM decreased in all planes and is associated with pain. PROM
decreased due to pain and mechanical block.
11. On the basis of these physical examination findings, the most likely cause of her
symptoms is
1. Impingement
2. Bursitis
3. Glenohumeral instability
4. Adhesive capsulitis
5. Rotator cuff tear

A

Adhesive capsulitis

224
Q

A 60 year old woman presents with pain and stiffness in the right shoulder
for the past 6 weeks. The pain is located over the outer aspect of her shoulder.
She has history of type 2 diabetes on metformin.
She is a non-smoker, does not drink alcohol. She swims 4 times a week and plays the
violin regularly.

On examination: External examination shows no abnormalities. Palpation reveals no
tenderness. AROM decreased in all planes and is associated with pain. PROM
decreased due to pain and mechanical block.12. What special tests are indicated in this patient?
1. Hawkins Kennedy
2. Empty can
3. Drop arm
4. Apprehension relocation
5. All
6. None

A

None

225
Q

A 60 year old woman presents with pain and stiffness in the right shoulder
for the past 6 weeks. The pain is located over the outer aspect of her shoulder.
She has history of type 2 diabetes on metformin.
She is a non-smoker, does not drink alcohol. She swims 4 times a week and plays the
violin regularly.
On examination: External examination shows no abnormalities. Palpation reveals no
tenderness. AROM decreased in all planes and is associated with pain. PROM
decreased due to pain and mechanical block.
13. What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?
1. Oral steroids
2. DMARDs
3. Physiotherapy
4. Topical analgesia
5. Intraarticular sodium hyaluronate

A

Physiotherapy

226
Q

A 45 year old man presents to his GP with complains of difficulty with
overhead activity and paraesthesia in the posterior upper arm. He is recovering from a
fractured tibia 3 weeks ago and is currently using crutches to mobilise. He is otherwise
well with no other medical problems.
Examination confirms sensory loss in the posterior upper arm and weakness and
limitation of abduction.
14. What other sign may be present in this patient on examination?
1. Rounded shoulder contour
2. Difficulty with adduction
3. Difficulty with external rotation
4. Difficulty with internal rotation
5. Positive Hawkins Kennedy test

A

Difficulty with external rotation

227
Q

A 42 year old woman presents with a 1 month history of numbness, tingling
and pain in her left hand. On further history she complains of fatigue and weight gain.
Examination confirms sensory loss (highlighted in purple) shown below.
15. Which of the following muscles might be affected in this
patient?
1. Extensor pollicis brevis
2. Flexor carpi ulnaris
3. Palmar interossei
4. Abductor pollicis brevis
5. Lumbricals 3 and 4

A

Abductor pollicis brevis

228
Q

A 42 year old woman presents with a 1 month history of numbness, tingling and pain in
her left hand. On further history she complains of fatigue and weight gain.
Examination confirms sensory loss (highlighted in blue) shown below
16. Which of the following tests will assist in determining the most likely underlying
cause?
1. FBC
2. ESR
3. IGF-1
4. Anti CCP
5. TFT

A

TFT

229
Q

A 27 year old man presents with 1 week history of weakness in his right forearm
and wrist. He is recovering from a fracture of the shaft of the humerus sustained 4 weeks ago.
He is generally fit and well.
On examination he has weakness of his forearm extensors, wrist extensors and brachioradialis.
No sensory loss is noted. No vascular compromise.
17. Which of the following images of his hand would best fit in with his clinical presentation?

A

Hand in the resting position - radial nerve

A- ulner
B- medial

230
Q

A 62 year old woman presents to the fracture clinic for removal of her below knee
plaster cast in her left leg following her recent left fibular fracture. She complains of sensory
loss over her left leg. She has no back pain. No PMH of note. She does not smoke or drink
alcohol.
On examination you observe a high stepping gait. Examination confirms sensory loss on the
lower lateral aspect of her leg and dorsum of her foot.
18. Which nerve is most likely to be affected in this patient?
1. Common peroneal nerve
2. Femoral nerve
3. Tibial nerve
4. Sciatic nerve
5. Sural nerve

A

Common peroneal nerve

231
Q

A 62 year old woman presents to the fracture clinic for removal of her below knee
plaster cast in her left leg following her recent left fibular fracture. She complains of sensory
loss over her left leg. She has no back pain. No PMH of note. She does not smoke or drink
alcohol.
On examination you observe a high stepping gait. Examination confirms sensory loss on the
lower lateral aspect of her leg and dorsum of her foot.
19. What additional abnormality may be seen on motor examination of her left leg?
1. Extensor plantar
2. Weakness on plantar flexion
3. Weakness on ankle eversion
4. Weakness of toe flexion
5. Weakness on knee flexion

A

Weakness on ankle eversion

232
Q

Common pathogen causing Epiglottitis is,

Rhinovirus

Group A Strep pyogenes (GAS)

Influenza A

H.influenza

Parainfluenza

A

H.influenza

233
Q

Catarrhal inflammation is characterised by

Acute inflammation

Excess mucous production

Excess Pus formation

Serous inflammation

Excess eosinophils

A

Excess mucous production

234
Q

Common pathogen causing common cold is,

Rhinovirus

Rotavirus

Adenovirus

EBV

GAS

A

Rhinovirus

235
Q

Chronic sinusitis is characterised clinically by presnce of sinusitis for more than,

3 weeks

6 weeks

10 weeks

12 weeks

18 weeks

A

12 weeks

236
Q

Bull neck in Diphtheria is due to Swollen,

Pharynx

Oro-Pharynx

Larynx

Tonsills & Pharynx

Lymphnodes

A

Lymphnodes

237
Q

In infectious mononucleosis, Atypical lymphocytes seen in blood film are,

EBV infected B lymphocytes

Reactive B lymhphocytes

Reactive T lymphocytes

EBV specific B lymphocytes

EBV specific T lymphocytes

A

EBV infected B lymphocytes

238
Q

Etiology of Aphthous ulcers is,

Tobacco chewing

Inflammatory Bowel Disorder (IBD)

HPV infection

Stress

Unknown

A

Unknown- occurs in Inflammatory Bowel Disorder (IBD)

239
Q

“Pyogenic granuloma” microscopically is,

Granulation tissue

Benign fibrous tumor

Benign fibrous tumor

Pus forming inflammation

Scar tissue

A

Granulation tissue

240
Q

Leukoplakia (compared to Erythroplakia), has a higher change of becoming cancer.

True

False

A

False

241
Q

27 year old man presents with a painful white patch over the bite line of buccal mucosa on the left side, since a week. Biopsy report said marked acanthosis with hyperkeratosis with submucosal inflammation. what is the most likely chance of him getting squamous cancer?

10%

90%

0%

100%

50%

A

0 - probably from biting

242
Q

65 year old man presents with 6 month history of red patch over lateral side of tongue. He has no pain, bleeding or ulceration. Biopsy reports full thickness dysplasia. No invasion of basement membrane noted. What is the most likely chance of him getting cancer?

0%

10%

50%

90%

100%

A

90%

243
Q

Parotid gland is what type of salivary gland.

Serous

Mucinous

Mixed

like pancreas

Unlike pancreas

A

Serous

244
Q

Sublingual gland opens on both sides of frenulum through multiple linear openings.

True

False

A

True

245
Q

Commonest tumor of Salivary glands is,

Warthins tumor

Pleomormphic adenoma

Mucoepiderlmoid carcinoma

bening Sialoma

Carcinoma ex Pleomorphic adenoma

A

Pleomormphic adenoma

246
Q

“Pleo” in pleomorphic adenoma denotes that tumor consists of

Pleomorphic cells

Dysplastic tissue

both benign and malignant tissue

Malignant tissue

Epithelial and Connective tissue

A

Epithelial and Connective tissue

247
Q

Quiz 2
2 of 3
Diagnostic findings in Sjogren syndrome are

HLA DR2 & 3

HLA DR4 & 6

SS-D & SS-E

Anti Ro & La

RF & CD4

A

Anti Ro & La

248
Q

Mumps virus is typcially of Single serotype.

True

False

A

T

249
Q

influenza virus has following proteins in its structure.

influenza virus has following proteins in its structure.

4 - A,B,C & D

2 - H & N

3 - A, B & Other

29 - 18 H + 11 N

12 - total number

A

12 - total number

250
Q

Cause of seasonal epidemics of influenza is “Antigenic shift”

Cause of seasonal epidemics of influenza is “Antigenic shift”

True

False

A

False

251
Q

Currently, commonest cause of seasonal flu is by this influenza strain.

Currently, commonest cause of seasonal flu is by this influenza strain.

H1N1

H2N2

H3N2

H5N1

B Victoria

A

H1N1

252
Q

Influenza virus attacks upper respiratory epithelium mainly through Hemagglutinin (H) protein.

Influenza virus attacks upper respiratory epithelium mainly through Hemagglutinin (H) protein.

True

False

A

True
Hemagglutinin (H) is the major antigen that contains the sialic-acid-receptor binding site (abundant in respiratory epithelium) and neuraminidase (N) aids in release of viral particles from infected cells.

253
Q

The high error rate of the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RDRP) and reassortment of RNA segments during co-infections provide influenza A viruses with evolutionary power.

True

False

A

T

254
Q

Afluria Quad - Flu vaccine has these virus strain components.

3 A & 1 B

2 A & 2 B

1 A & 3 B

1A, 1B, 1C & 1D.

2A & 1B

A

2 A & 2 B

255
Q

Spanish Flu was caused by

Spanish Flu was caused by

H1N1

H3N2

H3N8

SARS-CoV

MERS-CoV

A

H3N8

256
Q

Olfactory/Gustatory dysfunctions, nausea, vomiting/diarrhoea are more common with COVID.
One of the distinguishing symptom of COVID is,

Fatigue

Myalgia

Arthralgia

Olfactory dysfunction

Arthralgia

A

Olfactory dysfunction

257
Q

Name “Corona virus” is because of this feature,

Name “Corona virus” is because of this feature,

Nucleocapsid protein

Spike glycoprotein

Hemagglutinin esterase

Membrane protein

Envelope protein

A

Spike glycoprotein

258
Q

Variant B.1.1.7 detected in UK in May 2020 was,

Alpha

Beta

Gamma

Delta

Omicron

A

alpha

259
Q

Scientific name of Omicron variant is

Scientific name of Omicron variant is

B..1.351

B.1.617.2

B.1.1.529

B.1.1.7

BA.1

A

B.1.1.529

260
Q

Likely pathogens of future pandemic are Corona Virus, Dengue virus, Ebola virus, Lassa fever virus and this,

Influenza

Smallpox

Adenoviruses

HPV

Hepatitis B

A

Influenza

261
Q

SICCA Syndrome is a primary autoimmune disorder of salivary glands.

True

False

A

True

262
Q

Leukoplakia is a squamous cell carcinoma seen commonly in smokers.

True

False

A

False

263
Q

Leukoplakia differes from carcinoma in that it has intact basement membrane (lack infiltration)

True

False

A

True

264
Q

Commonest connective tissue element seen within pleomorphic adenoma is,

Glands

Fibrous tissue

Bone

Myxoid tissue

Cartilage

A

Cartilage

265
Q

A 35 year old man presents with nasal discharge with
obstruction and facial pain for the past 5 days. The pain is worse on bending
forward. No known history of atopy.
On examination: Temp 37.2, mucoid nasal discharge and erythema of the
nose is noted. Tenderness over both maxillary sinus is noted.
Analgesia is prescribed.
01. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
1. Prescribe antibiotics
2. Organise a plain sinus X-ray
3. Organise a CT of the sinuses
4. Nasal saline irrigation
5. Prescribe antihistamines

A

Nasal saline irrigation

266
Q
  1. What feature on history/examination might suggest progression to from a viral to an acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
  2. Purulent nasal discharge
  3. Loss of smell
  4. Enlarged turbinates
  5. Presence of pruritus
  6. Presence of polyps
A

Purulent nasal discharge

267
Q

What red flag symptoms should you ask when obtaining a
history in this patient?

A
  • visual loss/ disturbances
  • immunosuppression
  • neurological symptoms
  • meningeal signs
  • unilateral symptoms
  • bleeding
  • frontal swelling
268
Q

A 27year old man presents with a sore throat for the past 3/7 associated with a cough and coryzal symptoms. “I’m just here for some antibiotics doc”. No
fevers, rash or dyspnoea. No PMH of note, no meds, no allergies, no travel history
On examination: His oral cavity is shown below. No lymphadenopathy
03. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial tonsillitis
B. Viral tonsillitis
C. Difficult to differentiate

Tonsils red with discharge

A

B. Viral tonsillitis
C. Difficult to differentiate

269
Q

What feature on history/examination would make a streptococcal tonsillitis more likely?
A. Cough
B. Tonsillar exudate
C. Presence of fever
D. Lymphadenopathy
E. Immunosuppression

A

Immunosuppression

270
Q

A guy presents with 3/7 day of sore throat and cough. NOW
He returns 10 days later with a worsening sore throat “feels like razor blades”, painful to
swallow, fevers, voice change and trismus.
He has difficulty eating and can only manage liquids.
On examination: Temp 38.2, hot potato voice, painful cervical lymphadenopathy R>L.
His oral cavity is shown.
06. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Bacterial tonsillitis
2. Glandular fever
3. Mumps
4. Peritonsillar abscess
5. Carcinoma tonsil

A

Peritonsillar abscess

271
Q

What organism commonly causes peritonsilar abscess
1. Staph Aureus
2. H. Influenzae
3. EBV
4. S. Pyogenes
5. S. Viridans

A

S. Pyogenes

272
Q

How do you manage peritonsilar abscess
1. Oral antibiotics
2. IV antibiotics
3. Needle aspiration
4. Swab M/C/S
5. Dexamethasone

A

Needle aspiration

273
Q

Which of the following is a non-suppurative complication of Group A Strep?
1. Septicaemia
2. Otitis media
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Acute Rheumatic Fever
5. Sinusitis

A

Acute Rheumatic Fever
Nephrotic syndrome

274
Q

URTI associated with…
1. 2y with a barking cough, stridor, and hoarse voice.
2. 21y with fevers & chills, dry cough, lethargy, myalgia
3. 3y, unvaccinated. Drooling + fever + hyperextension of neck
4. 6y with a blanching sandpaper rash, peri-oral pallor and a strawberry tongue
5. 17y with 1 week cough & coryza, followed by prolonged cough with post-tussive vomiting.

A
  1. croup -parainfluenza
  2. Influenza
  3. epiglossitis - H influenza
  4. Kawasakis disease/ scarlet fever
  5. pertussis
275
Q

A 19 year old woman presents to the GP with a 10 day history of cough,
fever and sore throat. On examination tender posterior cervical lymphadenopathy with
hepatomegaly and splenomegaly is present.
10. What investigation will confirm your most likely diagnosis?

  1. Respiratory viral PCR panel
  2. EBV VCA-IgG Ab
  3. Throat swab
  4. EBV VCA-IgM Ab
  5. FBC (Atypical lymphocytes)
A

EBV VCA-IgM Ab

276
Q

4 year old boy presents to the GP with a cough, coryza, fevers, myalgia and lethargy. You suspect influenza. His mother disagrees stating, “It can’t be, we’ve had the vaccine. I want Augmentin”
11. What strain does the seasonal influenza vaccine target?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. A and B
  5. A and C
A

A and B

277
Q

A 25 year old woman presents with a 1 week history of a painful lesion on
the inside of the mouth. She is otherwise well and is on no regular medication. On
examination her oral cavity is shown below. No palpable lymph nodes.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  2. Hand foot and mouth disease
  3. Fixed drug eruption
  4. Herpes simplex
  5. Aphthous ulcer
  6. Herpangina
A

Aphthous ulcer

278
Q

A 59 year old man presents with a lesion on his tongue for thepast 6 weeks. It’s “not really painful” but bleeds every now and again when
he’s brushing his teeth. He has a 30 pack year smoking history. He undergoes biopsy.
13. Which of the following reports would suggest the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Fungal hyphae with inflammation
  2. Epithelial dysplasia with inflammation
  3. Epithelial dysplasia with hyperkeratosis
  4. Granulation tissue with inflammation
  5. Infiltrating hyperchromatic, pleomorphic cells
A
  1. Epithelial dysplasia with hyperkeratosis
279
Q

What is the likely pathogen causing these symptoms?
1. Hemophilus influenzae
2. Rhinovirus
3. Influenza
4. Aspergillus
5. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

280
Q

Which of the below is an indication for antibiotics in acute otitis media?
1. Fever
2. Child >12months
3. Otorrhea
4. The parent’s asked for them

A

Otorrhea

281
Q

Classic PUO is defined as fever of >38°C without diagnosed cause for…

> 1 Week

> 3 days of investigations

> 3 weeks

> 4 weeks

> 4 weeks as outpatient

A

> 3 weeks

282
Q

Example of exogenous pyrogens are,

IL-1

IL-6

TNF

All of the above

LPS

A

LPS

283
Q

Mechanism of fever is increase in Prostaglandin synthesis in hypothalamus.

True

False

A

True

284
Q

Important chemical mediators of inflammation & fever are TNF, IL1 and

CRP

Histamine

IFN

IL-6

IL-13

A

IL-6

285
Q

Melioidosis is contracted through

Aedes mosquito

Contaminated Urine

Contaminated soil

Anopheles mosquito

Dust inhalation

A

Contaminated soil

286
Q

Characteristic clinical feature of Melioidosis is,

Fever & Rash

Arthralgia

Myalgia

Pneumonia

Multiple Abscesses

A

Multiple Abscesses

287
Q

Common tropical infection in NQ farmers presenting with jaundice & hemorrahge is,

Q fever

Melioidosis

Leptospirosis

Malaria

Dengue

A

Leptospirosis

288
Q

Q fever can be caused by a single organism Coxiella burnetii.

True

False

A

T

289
Q

Chronic phase of Q fever is characterised by,

Pneumonia

Arthralgia

Myalgia

Endocarditis

skin abscess

A

Endocarditis

290
Q

Blackwater fever in Falciparum malaria is,

Renal failure

BV clogging by parasites

Hemoglobinuria

Splenomegaly

Acidosis

A

Hemoglobinuria

291
Q

Most common stage of parasite seen in peripheral blood film of malaria patient is,

Gametocyte

Sporozoite

Trophozoite

Schizont

Merozoites

A

Trophozoite

292
Q

Ross River Virus is a Flavivirus.

True

False

A

F-
Ross River Virus is a Alpha virus of Arbovirus group.

293
Q

Zoonotic infections are diseases of animals.

True

False

A

T

294
Q

Most patients with Ross River Fever recover without treatment usually within,

1 week

2-4 weeks

4-7 weeks

4-7 months

1-2 years

A

4-7 months

295
Q

Vector of Dengue fever is,

Anopheles

Tick

Aedes

Culex

Bird

A

Aedes

296
Q

Increased hematocrit in a Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever (DHF) patient is because of,

Endothelial damage

Thrombocytopenia

Capillary leakage

Activated T cells

Inflammatory rush

A

Capillary leakage

297
Q

Ascitis in a DHF patient is because of

Thrombocytopenia

Endothelial damage

T cell activation

Serositis

Hepatitis

A

Serositis

298
Q

Common incubation period in most arboviral infections is,

3 days

3 weeks

1 week

6 weeks

1 month

A

1 week

299
Q

Japanese encephalitis is endemic in people of Southeast Asia & Pacific.

True

False

A

JE is endemic in Pigs not humans. Once transfered to humans, they cannot spread to others as viremia is low and short.

300
Q

JE is known to cause epidemics because of this feature.

Transfer to humans by mosquitoes

Virus carried by water birds

Toxicity & infectivity of the Virus

RNA mutations giving survival advantage

By human to human spread

A

JEV is a RNA virus which are known to develop rapid mutations. minor mutations may give survival advantage and result in local epidemics. They are NOT known to spread human to humans.

301
Q

Gold standard test for diagnosis of JE is,

MRI - bilateral thalamic inflammation

JE specific IgG serum antibodies

JE specific IgM antibodies in CSF

Viral RNA detection by Rt-PCR

Multiple factors. No specific test

A

JE specific IgM antibodies in CSF

302
Q

Once infected, this percentage of people become symptomatic.

90%

60%

30%

10%

<1%

A

<1%

303
Q

Cycles of fever in malaria is due to sudden & massive release of what from infected RBCs.

Malarial pigment

Malarial toxins

Sporozoites

Merozoites

Gametocytes

A

Merozoites

304
Q

Parasitemia is more in the severe form of malaria caused by,

vivax

falciparum

malariae

all forms

A

falciparum

305
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of malaria is,

Ag detection by RDT

PCR molecular diagnosis

Blood film Microscopy

Serology - ELISA

A

Blood film Microscopy

306
Q

Special features of Herpes Infections,

Commonest RNA virus infections

Common infective cause of Cancers

Development of immunity for life

LATS & Latency period

VZV & Persistency period

A

LATS & Latency period

307
Q

Microscopic features of Herpes infections are,

Central necrosis with granuloma

Large pink eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion

large double nucleus with owl eye appearance

giant cells with Intranuclear inclusions.

Pleomorphic large cells with hyperchromatic nucleus

A

giant cells with Intranuclear inclusions.

308
Q

Common oropharyngeal cold sores are caused by,

Common oropharyngeal cold sores are caused by,

VZV

HSV-1

HSV-2

HHV-4

HHV-8

A

HSV-1

309
Q

Chicken pox is caused by

Chicken pox is caused by

Reactivation of HSV-1

Primary infection by HSV-1

Primary infection by VZV

Reactivation of HSV-2

Reactivation of VZV

A

Primary infection by VZV

310
Q

**

Commonest clinical feature of CMV infection is,

Commonest clinical feature of CMV infection is,

Bone marrow suppression

URTI like

Otitis Media

Rash & Jaundice

Asymptomatic

Immunosuppression

A

Asymptomatic

311
Q

Reactivation of VZV from spinal dorsal root ganglia results in

Oral herpes

Genital herpes

Herpes zoster

Gillian barre syndrome

B cell lymphoma

A

Herpes zoster

312
Q

Commonest nerve involved in shingles is,

Commonest nerve involved in shingles is,

Ophthalmic

Optic

Trigeminal

Facial

Intercostal

A

Trigeminal

313
Q

Characteristic atypical lymphocytes seen in Infectious mononucleosis are,

Characteristic atypical lymphocytes seen in Infectious mononucleosis are,

B lymphocytes

T lymphocytes

Monocytes

CD4 helper T cells

CD8 suppressor T cells

A

CD8 suppressor T cells

314
Q

All of the following are differential diagnosis for a 51 year old man with fever, rash and an eschar, EXCEPT

All of the following are differential diagnosis for a 51 year old man with fever, rash and an eschar, EXCEPT

Anthrax

Echthyma

Tularemia

Tick Typhus

Impetigo

A

Impetigo

315
Q

Queensland tick typhus is caused by,

Queensland tick typhus is caused by,

Riskettsia rickettsii

Burkholderia pseudomallei

Rickettsia australis

Orientia tsutsugamushi

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Rickettsia australis

316
Q

Typical incubation period for Queensland tick typhus is,

Typical incubation period for Queensland tick typhus is,

6 days

14 days

14-21 days

3-30days

1-3 weeks

A

14 days

317
Q

Gold standard diagnosis for tick typhus and scrub typhus is,

PCR test for Rickettsial DNA

Serology for specific antibodies

Silver stain of wound scrappings

Typical clinical history

Gram stain of wound eschar

A

Serology for specific antibodies

318
Q

Tissue necrosis resulting in amputation is seen in

Tissue necrosis resulting in amputation is seen in

Qld tick typhus

Scrub typhus

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Lyme disease

Cutaneous Anthrax

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

319
Q

Target or “Bulls eye” lesion is typically seen in,

Target or “Bulls eye” lesion is typically seen in,

Tularemia

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Lyme disease

Scrub typhus

Qld tick typhus

A

Lyme disease

320
Q

Although Ixodes ticks are found in Australia, Lyme disease is not endemic in Australia because Australian ticks are not infected by Borrelia burgdorferi.

True

False

A

T

321
Q
A