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FIRST AID ONE LINERS > neuro one liners > Flashcards

neuro one liners Flashcards

1
Q

2 associations of anencephaly

A

low folic acid, maternal diabetes

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1
Q

Chorea is from this lesion

A

basal ganglia i.e. caudate

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1
Q

What is the difference between senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimers? What may senile plaques cause?

A

Senile plaques are extracellular B amyloid plaques that may cause amyloid angiopathy and neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular tau protien aggregates

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1
Q

This is the area of the brain that partial seizures most commonly arise

A

medial temporal lobe

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1
Q

What is a butterfly glioma?

A

A type of GBM (usually) that crosses the corpus callosum to look like a butterfly

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1
Q

What structure is at risk in a cingulate gyrus subfalcine herniation

A

ACA as it runs between the cingulate gyri

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1
Q

How can you differentiate a peripheral nystagmus from a central nystagmus with positional testing?

A

Peripheral nystagmus has a delayed horizontal nystagmus while Central nystagmus has an immediate nystagmus in any direction

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2
Q

Cerebellar input is via which peduncles while cerebelllar ouput is via what peduncles?

A

Input is MCP which is cortical input and ICP which is input from the body while output is via the SCP (Purkinje fibers) to the cortex to modulate movement

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2
Q

Athetosis is from this lesion

A

basal ganglia resulting in slow writhing movements

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2
Q

This is the main autoregulatory molecule for cerebral perfusion

A

PCO2

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3
Q

Response of HIV infected microglia

A

form multinucleated giant cells

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3
Q

Sturge Weber, Neurofibromatosis type I and Von Hippel lindau all share association with this tumor

A

Pheochromocytoma

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4
Q

Where are Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas located

A

Broca’s is inferior frontal gyrus of frontal lobe and Wernickes is superior temporal gyrus of temporal lobe

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5
Q

These thalamic nuclei receive sensory input from the body and face, respectively

A

Body is VPL, and face is VPM

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6
Q

Huntington’s disease is from what trinucleotide repeat? Freidrich’s ataxia? What are the gene products?

A

CAG = Huntingtin protein (chromosome 4) and GAA = Frataxin (chromosome 9)

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8
Q

This is a common cause of locked in syndrome

A

Central pontine myelinolysis

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8
Q

This childhood tumor is characterized by homer-wright rosettes and may send drop metastases to the spc

A

Medulloblastoma

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10
Q

All sensory corpuscles are myelinated except

A

C fibers of free nerve endings, A-delta are myelinated

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11
Q

Lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenburg syndrome) is caused by blockage of this artery

A

PICA paramedian branches

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12
Q

Fried egg on H/E stain

A

oligodendrocyte

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14
Q

Hemiballismus results from this lesion

A

contralateral subthalamic nucleus

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14
Q

The anteromedial surface of the brain is supplied by this artery

A

ACA

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14
Q

This is the major difference between simple and complex partial seizures

A

in complex partial seizures, conciousness is impaired

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16
Q

Most common spinal levels for syringomyelia

A

C8-T1

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17
Q

These 3 causes of dementia may have hydrocephalus ex vacuo

A

Alzheimer’s, Pick’s frontotemporal dementia, and advanced HIV demetia

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17
Q

These 3 proteins are associated with early onset Alzheimer’s also what chromosome?

A

APP (21–assoc with Down’s) Presenilin 1 (14) and presenilin 2 (1)

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18
Q

Which cells are affected in progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy?

A

oligodendrocyte

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19
Q

This artery is a common location of lacunar infarcts

A

lateral striate artery

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20
Q

These 2 nervous system cells are from neural crest.. What stain is used for neural crest? What skin lesion is positive?

A

Scwhann cells and PNS neurons; S-100, malignant melanoma b/c melanocytes from neural crest

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21
Q

Which adult/childhood tumors are GFAP positive?

A

Adult = GBM and Kid = pilocytic astrocytoma (good prognosis)

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22
Q

This childhood tumor is characterized by Rosenthal fibers (eosinophilic corkscrew like fibers)

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma (GFAP positive)

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23
Q

These 4 areas are most susceptible to hypoxia

A

Cerebellum, neocortex, hippocampus, and watershed areas (ACA/MCA and MCA/PCA)

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25
Q

What is the difference between cerebellar vermis lesions and cerebellar hemisphere lesions?

A

Cerebellar vermis lesions lead to truncal ataxia (medially located) whereas cerebellar hemisphere lesions lead to ipsilateral limb ataxia

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26
Q

Major distinguishing factor between epidural and subdural hematoma on CT scan aside from shape?

A

Subdurals can cross suture lines, epidurals cannot

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28
Q

This hypothalamic area is responsible for hunger

A

Lateral hypothalamic area

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29
Q

Essential tremor can be treated with (2)

A

Primidone and Beta blockers

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29
Q

The lateral surface of the brain is supplied by this artery

A

MCA

29
Q

5 Childhood primary brain tumors

A

Medulloblastoma, pilocytic astrocytoma, ependymoma, hemangioblastoma, craniopharyngioma

30
Q

What syndrome are childhood cerebellar hemangioblastomas associated with? Why might they be polycythemic?

A

Von Hippel Lindau (loss of VHL on chromosome 3)? They have the ability to produce EPO

31
Q

This adult tumor is located in the frontal lobes with a chicken-wire capillary appearance

A

oligodendroglioma, recall the cells will have fried egg appearance

33
Q

This tumor has spindle cells in a whorled pattern and is derived from arachnoid cells

A

meningioma (#2 most common primary brain tumor in adult)

35
Q

This childhood tumor is characterized by perivascular pseudorosettes

A

ependymoma poor prognosis

36
Q

Lewy body dementia is from a defect in this

A

alpha-synuclein

38
Q

A lesion of the right parietal lobe results in this

A

Spatial neglect syndrome (agnosia of the contralateral world) this is because the right side is primarily the non-dominant side

39
Q

The middle meningeal artery is a branch of this artery

A

maxillary artery

41
Q

Major association of INTRAparenchymal hemorrhage

A

Chronic HTN i.e. charcot-bouchard anuerysm

42
Q

This hypothalamic area is responsible for satiety

A

ventromedial (if you zap it you grow ventrally and medially)

43
Q

What occurs in severe hypotension with damage to these watershed areas 1) ACA/MCA and 2) PCA/MCA

A

1) upper leg and upper arm defect 2) higher order visual processing defect

43
Q

What is defective in the lysosomal storage diseases: Krabbe Disease and Metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

Krabbe is defective galactocerebrosidase and Metachromatic leukodystrophy is defective arylsulfatase A

43
Q

How can you differentiate a cluster headache from trigeminal neuralgia? What is the DOC for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Trigeminal neuralgia is much shorter in duration i.e. less than 1 min while cluster headaches can be 3 hr… Carbamazepine

44
Q

These 4 nervous system cells are from neuroectoderm

A

CNS neurons, ependymal cells, oligodendroglia, and astroctyes

45
Q

The posterior and inferior sections of the brain are supplied by this artery

A

PCA

46
Q

What are the input and output nerves to the cerebellum called

A

input = climbing and mossy fibers, output are Purkinje fibers

47
Q

A primary brain tumor in adults that is S-100 positive is most likely located where?

A

At the cerebellopontine angle, this describes a schwanomma

48
Q

These are the earliest sign of ischemic brain damage on H/E

A

Red neurons

50
Q

What is xanthochromia on spinal tap? What Tx do they need to prevent a sequelum 2-3 days later?

A

yellow CSF from blood breakdown, since this can lead to vasospasm, prophylax with nimodipine

51
Q

What gene and chromosome are affected in Von Hippel Lindau?

A

VHL tumor suppressor gene, chromosome 3

53
Q

What herniates in an uncal herniation

A

medial temporal lobe

54
Q

Intention tremors imply this lesion

A

cerebellar

55
Q

This capillary type is present in circumventricular organs

A

fenestrated to allow molecules from the blood

55
Q

This occurs with a lesion to the paramedian pontine reticular formation

A

The eyes deviate away from the lesion

56
Q

Alzheimer’s patients have low levels of this neurotransmitter

A

Acetylcholine

57
Q

Transposition of the great vessels and anencephaly share this risk factor

A

maternal diabetes

57
Q

Which type of headache may induce Horner’s syndrome

A

Cluster

58
Q

Classic finding in CSF of Guillian Barre

A

really high protein with normal cell count

60
Q

5 findings in neurofibromatosis type I

A

Caf? au lait spots, Lisch nodules, Optic gliomas, pheochromocytoma, neurofibromatoses of the skin

61
Q

These thalamic nuclei receive sensory input from the eyes and ears respectvely

A

sight = lateral geniculate nucleus, hearing = medial geniculate nucleus

63
Q

3 associations with berry aneuryms?

A

Ehlers Danlos, Marfan’s, and ADPKD (chromosome 16)

65
Q

Type of hydrocephalus caused by scarring of arachnoid granulations

A

communicating hydrocephalus

67
Q

Diagnostic CSF finding in MS

A

oligoclonal bands

68
Q

In general which body parts are most affected in MCA and ACA infarcts

A

MCA upper limb and aphasia and ACA is mostly lower limb

69
Q

This artery travels with CN III and an aneurysm may result in CN III palsy

A

posterior communicating artery

70
Q

This gene/chromosome is affected in Neurofibromatoisis type I (von Recklinghuasen’s disease)

A

NF1 chromosome 17 autosomal dominant

71
Q

Medial medullary syndrome is caused by blockage of this vessel

A

anterior spinal artery

72
Q

These hypothalamic areas are responsible for heating and cooling

A

heating is posterior and cooling is anterior hypothalamus (i.e. Anterior like AC)

73
Q

Lewy bodies are composed of this

A

alpha synuclein

74
Q

This protein is associated with late onset Alzheimer’s

A

APOE4 (chromosome 19)

75
Q

Disinhibition and and deficits in concentration, orientation, and judgement, with REEMERGENCE OF PRIMITIVE REFLEXES may be from this lesion

A

Frontal lobe lesion

76
Q

Post infectious encephalomyelitis is most commonly caused by these 2 agents

A

measles (subacute sclerosing panencephalitis) and VZV

78
Q

these are the 4 deep nuclei of the cerebellum

A

dentate, globose, emboliform, vestigial

79
Q

Moderate and severe forms of holoprosencephaly

A

moderate has cleft lip and palate (or a single front tooth), sever has cyclopia

80
Q

An aphasia that results in the inability to REPEAT but ability to comprehend and speak fluently arises from a lesion where?

A

Arcuate fasiculus which connects Wernickes to Brocas

81
Q

This tumor has a pseudopallisading pleomorphic appearance in an adult

A

GBM

83
Q

5 Adult primary brain tumors

A

Glioblastoma multiforme, oligodendroglioma, meningioma, pituitary adenoma, Schwannoma

84
Q

Bilateral amygdala lesions i.e. Kluver Bucy Syndrome are associated with what infection

A

HSV-1

85
Q

Acetylcholine is produced in this nucleus

A

Basal nucleus of Meynert (nucleus basalis)

87
Q

The classic triad of MS

A

Scanning speech Intention tremor (internuclear ophthlamoplegia, incontinence) and Nystagmus (SIN)

88
Q

2 tests for neural tube defects

A

alpha fetoprotein and acetylcholinesterae

89
Q

5-HT is produced in this nucleus

A

Raphe nucleus

90
Q

2 types of tumors found in Sturge Weber Syndrome, also in what distribution is the Nevus flammeus usually located?

A

Ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomas and pheochromocytomas? The port wine stain is in the V1 distribution

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