Neuro, Lines and Hepatic Flashcards

1
Q

Describe what titration of a medication means

A

Titrating medications is the process of adjusting doses to maximize the benefit of medicaitons without adverse effects. Orders for titration are written to meet parameters of lab results and should be adjusted according to orders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lines: State the concept of the transducer used in arterial line pressure measurement.

A

The transducer is the part of the arterial line that ensures proper pressure readings through its connection to the closed pressure system. In order for accurate pressures to be seen, the transducer must remain at the phlebostatic axis located at midaxillary, 4th intercostal space of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lines: Describe a normal assessment of an arterial line

A

The extremity distal to the arterial line should be warm to the touch and have sensation that is baseline for the patient. The site should be visible without excessive drainage and the surrounding tissue should be soft. Any altered findings should be reported immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neuro: Describe autonomic dysreflexia and the priority actions for treatment

A

Autonomic dysreflexia is a emergent condition that occurs in people with a spinal cord injury occurring at level T5-T6 who are experiencing a stimulus somewhere below the level of injury. Patients present with a sudden increase in blood pressure, decreased heart rate, anxiety, headache, diaphoresis, and skin flushing above the injury site.

The priority action is to eliminate the source of stimuli and then treat the symptoms caused by the condition.

Common stimuli include a blocked urinary catheter, full bladder, urinary tract infection, fecal impaction, tight clothing, and many other possible stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neuro: Describe the goal times for tPA treatment for an embolic stroke

A

The goal for treating an embolic stroke with tPA are time oriented. Best practice is to start tPA within 4 hours of last known well time and within 60 minutes of arrival at treatment center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neuro: Describe the use of Mannitol for management of ICP including side effects

A

Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that elevates blood plasma osmolality, resulting in enhanced flow of water from tissues, including the brain and cerebrospinal fluid, into interstitial fluid and plasma. However, it can also cause fluid to shift into the interstitial space leading to peripheral edema and if not treated, heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neuro: Describe levels of consciousness using the Glascow Coma Scale (GCS)

A

The higher the score on the GCS, the less severe the impact of an injury.

13-15 = mild

9-12 = moderate

3-8 = severe

A decrease in the GCS score is a priority for reporting to the doctor because it indicates a decrease in level of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Neuro: Explain the ICPS acronym for use of a patient with an ICP monitor

A

ICPS is the acronym used to remember ways to prevent spikes in intracranial pressure

I- immobilize the C-spine

C- keep CO2 low in order to prevent vasodilation

P- keep head of bed 30-45 degrees

S- limit the amount of times you suction, hyperventilate when you do suction, and limit attempt to less than 10 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neuro: Describe Cheyne Stokes respirations

A

A respiratory pattern that involves a period of fast, shallow breathing followed by slow, heavier breathing and moments without any breath at all

Cheyne Stokes is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neuro: Describe early and late signs of increased intracranial pressure

A

Early: Restlessness, agitation, change in level of consciousness, mental status change, vomiting without nausea

Late: irregular breathing, seizures, posturing, fixed & dilated pupils, coma, cushing’s triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neuro: Describe the characteristics of Cushing’s Triad

A

Cushing’s triad refers to a set of signs that are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), or increased pressure in the brain. Cushing’s triad consists of bradycardia, irregular respirations, and a widened pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CVC: Describe the rationale for drawing blood with a peripheral stick rather than from a central line in the presence of potential infection

A

When infection is suspected and the source of infection is unknown, it is important to use blood from a peripheral lab draw so that the risk of a false positive central line infection is eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CVC: Describe the methods of confirming proper placement of a central line

A

Use U/S guidance
CXR confirmation before use
Observe color of blood from line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CVC: Explain the rationale for using a 10ml syringe when drawing blood from or administering medications through a central line

A

Anything smaller than 10ml syringe may compromise the central line by altering the pressure within the line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CVC: Describe the rationale for sending a central line catheter tip to the lab for testing

A

When a patient with a central line manifests signs of infection, the central line should be considered suspect for infection. First, the healthcare provider must be notified and then if instructed, the line should be removed and the tip should be sent to the lab to identify the source of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CVC: Explain a pneumothorax as a complication of a subclavian central line insertion

A

The location of a subclavian central line present a high risk for lung puncture during the insertion process. In this instance, the patient would demonstrate diminished breath sounds on the affected side

16
Q

CVC: Explain a pneumothorax as a complication of a subclavian central line insertion

A

The location of a subclavian central line present a high risk for lung puncture during the insertion process. In this instance, the patient would demonstrate diminished breath sounds on the affected side

17
Q

Hep: Explain why a patient with liver failure may demonstrate change in mentation and involuntary hand movement

A

Liver failure prevents the excretion of ammonia which may lead to hepatic encephalopathy