Neuro exam / diagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

What EEG waves are normal

A
  • Beta-waves ->alert wakefulness or REM sleep
  • Alpha-waves -> quiet wakefulness
  • Theta-waves and deta-waves -> slow wave sleep
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2
Q

Where can the lesion be in Horner’s syndrome

A
  • Cervical spine
  • T1-T3 spine
  • Cranial thoracic sympathetic trunk
  • Cervical vago-sympathetic trunk
  • Cranial cervical ganglion
  • Post-ganglionic (cervical sympathetic nerve) - passes through middle ear cavity
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3
Q

Sections of the neuro exam

A
  • Mentation / general observation
  • Gait / posture
  • Cranial nerves
  • Segmental reflexes
  • Proprioceptive placing
  • Palpation
  • Nociception
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4
Q

Where can a lesion causing altered mentation be located

A
  • Brainstem (ascendning reticular activating system)
  • Cerebrum (forebrain)
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5
Q

Name 3 postures that can be noticed on neuro exam and say what localization of lesion they indicate + prognosis

A
  1. Decerebrate posture: opisthotonus with extensor rigidity of 4 limbs and comatose patient
    -> severe midbrain lesion
    Very poor prognosis
  2. Decerebellate posture: opisthotonus with extensor rigidity of front limbs and flexed pelvic limbs. normal consciousness
    -> cerebellum lesion
    No effect on prognosis
  3. Schiff-Sherington posture: hyperextension of forelimbs with pelvic limbs paresis
    -> T3-L7 lesion
    No effect on prognosis
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6
Q

What findings indicate central vestibular disease vs peripheral? What structures can be affected in peripheral vs. central

A
  • Cranial nerve deficits other than ipsilateral CN VII
  • Proprioceptive deficits
  • Paresis
  • Cerebellar deficits
  • Vertical or rotatory nystagmus
  • Altered mentation
    (- Ipsilateral strabismus, CN VII, and ataxia also present with peripheral disease)
  • Peripheral = semicircular canals or CN VIII (except cell body)
  • Central = CN VIII nuclei in brainstem (pons / rostral medulla), cerebellum
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7
Q

What is the pathway of the menace response

A

Afferent: ipsilateral CN II, contralateral thalamus, contralateral occipital cortex

Efferent: Contralateral motor cortex, ipsilateral cerebellum, ipsilateral CN VII

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8
Q

On which side is the lesion of a patient circling to the right if it is a vestibular vs cerebral lesion

A

Lesion on the right in both cases
(Circle towards lesion) unless paradoxical with cerebellar lesion

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9
Q

Where can a lesion be located in case of proprioceptive placing deficits (indicate ipsilateral / contralateral)

A
  • Peripheral nerves including cell bodies / intumescence (ipsi)
  • Spinal cord (ipsi)
  • Brainstem (ipsi)
  • Cerebrum (contra)
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10
Q

A dog was HBC and is presented non-ambulatory. Mentation and cranial nerves are normal. Thoracic limbs are normal. There is severe diffuse back pain. There is bilateral paresis of the pelvic limbs and absent withdrawal reflexes in the pelvic limbs and absent perineal reflex. Where is the lesion?

A
  • Lumbar intumescence L4-S3
  • OR T3-L3 with spinal shock ->need to reassess reflexes in time
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11
Q

What are the pelvic limb reflexes and what segments do they evaluate

A
  • Patellar reflex = femoral nerve -> L4-L6
  • Gastrocnemius reflex = sciatic nerve -> L6-S1
  • Perineal reflex = pudendal nerve -> S1-S3
  • Withdrawal = mostly sciatic (L6-S1) with some femoral (L4-L6) for hip flexion
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12
Q

What are criteria for brain death

A
  • Clinical findings: coma, apnea, no brainstem reflexes
  • BAER (= brainstem auditory evoked response) if patient is not deaf and has no middle or external ear disease -> no waveforms or presence of early waveforms but no later waveforms
  • EEG -> inactivity or burst-suppression
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13
Q

List contra-indications to CSF tap

A
  • Acute TBI
  • Coagulopathy
  • Progressive intracranial hypertension
  • Atlantoaxial luxation or cranial cervical fracture / luxation
  • Brain MRI findings showing diffuse edema / swelling, acute tentorial or foraminal brain herniation
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14
Q

What are possible sites for CSF tap (exact name)? If sampling from multiple sites, which one should be tapped first

A
  • Cerebellomedullary cistern = cisterna magna
  • Lumbar cistern
  • Lateral ventricle

Always start with caudal sites (lumbar then cisternal) to avoid blood contamination since CSF flow is rostral to caudal

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15
Q

What are the landmarks for a cisternal CSF tap

A
  • Halfway between occipital protuberance and spinous process of C2 (just cranial to dorsal arch of C1) on midline
  • OR center of the triangle formed by the occiput and the wings of C1
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16
Q

What volume of CSF can be safely collected

A

1-2 mL in cats and small dogs

Up to 6 mL in large dogs

Take less if increased intracranial pressure to prevent sudden drop in CSF pressure and brain herniation

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17
Q

What are indications for a lumbar CSF tap (vs cisternal)

A
  • Disease of the caudal cervical, thoracolumbar, or sacral spinal cord
  • Ascending lower motor neuron disease
  • Patients who cannot undergo GA
  • Patients with increased intracranial pressure
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18
Q

What are the normal WBC count and proteins in CSF

A

< 3 WBC/uL in cisternal, < 5 WBC/uL in lumbar

< 25 mg/dL in cisternal, < 35 mg/dL in lumbar

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19
Q

What are the most common causes for the following CSF findings:
- mild mononuclear pleocytosis
- moderate / marked neutrophilic pleocytosis
- moderate / marked mononuclear pleocytosis
- marked eosinophilic pleocytosis
- mixed pleocytosis
- albuminocytological dissociation

A
  • Mild mononuclear pleocytosis: inflammation -> viral / rickettsial or non-infectious inflammatory disease, IVDD
  • Moderate / marked neutrophilic pleocytosis: infectious / inflammatory -> bacterial meningoencephalitis, SRMA, FIP
  • Moderate / marked mononuclear pleocytosis: granulomatous meningoencephalitis, breed-related necrotizing encephalitis, lymphoma
  • Marked eosinophilic pleocytosis: parasitic migration (Angiostrongylus, Cuterebra), fungal, eosinophilic meningitis
  • Mixed pleocytosis: fungal, protozoal infection, treated infectious / inflammatory condition, CNS necrosis
  • Albuminocytological dissociation (normal nucleated cell count with high proteins): non-specific, includes compressive / degenerative diseases
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20
Q

What is assessed with the nasal septum response

A
  • Ophthalmic branch of CN V
  • Cortical integration
  • CN VII
21
Q

What are 2 benefits of EEG in seizure management

A
  • Identification of non-convulsive status epilepticus
  • Differentiation between paroxysmal episodes and seizures
22
Q

Where is the lesion in paradoxical vestibular disease? Describe neuro deficits and their side

A

Cerebellum

  • Head tilt and circling away from the lesion (due to decreased inhibition of vestibular system on the side of the lesion)
  • Pathologic nystagmus with rapid phase towards the lesion
    (“paradoxical” vestibular signs)
  • Ipsilateral proprioceptive deficits
  • Cerebellar ataxia (ipsilateral hypermetry) + vestibular ataxia
    +/- intention tremors
    +/- menace response deficit
23
Q

Describe the modified Glasgow Coma Scale

A

See picture

24
Q

How to interpret miosis / mydriasis

A

Assuming the absence of ophthalmic and CN II injury:

  • Mydriasis = midbrain lesion or CN III lesion (ipsilateral)
  • Miosis = severe brainstem lesion or Horner syndrome (sympathetic pathway)
  • Severe bilateral miosis = acute extensive brain disturbance (decreased inhibition of CN III)
  • Severe unresponsive bilateral mydriasis = suspect brain herniation, grave prognosis

(otherwise changes can be secondary to corneal ulcer, uveitis, atropine, iris degeneration, blindness of any cause, etc)

25
What CN are affected by medial strabismus (eye adduction) / lateral strabismus (eye abduction)
- Adduction: lateral rectus muscle -> CN VI or rostral medulla / pons - Abduction: medial rectus muscle -> CN III or midbrain
26
What assessment should be prioritized in a patient with suspect increased ICP
- Level of consciousness - Brainstem reflexes (pupil size / PLR, oculocephalic reflex = nystagmus +/- corneal reflex) - Motor activity (ambulation, voluntary movements + nociception if absent) - Posture - Breathing pattern
27
List invasive methods of ICP monitoring
- Ventriculostomy catheter with external transducer - reliable and allows CSF drainage but very challenging in dogs and cats due to variable anatomy and musculature - Microsensors devices = transducer-tipped catheters inserted in ventricle, brain parenchyma, subdural / subarachnoid space, or epidural space -> strain gauge microtransducer (easiest) -> fiberoptic microtransducer - Fluid-filled catheter inserted in epidural or subdural space connected to arterial pressure transducer - Telemetric ICP monitoring systems using microchip (not used)
28
Name 2 non-invasive methods of ICP monitoring
- Optic nerve sheath diameterer measurement by ultrasonography or MRI - Transcranial Doppler ultrasonography
29
When ICP monitoring is available, what level of increased ICP requires intervention
When ICP 15-20 mmHg in comatose patients or ICP is rising quickly or CPP is not maintained
30
Name 2 severity scores that can be used in TBI
- Modified Glasgow Coma Scale (based on neuro exam) - Koret CT score (based on CT findings)
31
What are the 4 different levels of consciousness?
1. Alert - appropriate response to environmental stimuli 2. Depressed/obtunded - drowsy but arousable 3. Stuporous - sleep state, but arousable with strong stimuli 4. Comatose - unconcsious and cannot be aroused with painful stimuli
32
A lesion to which part of the CNS causes a head tilt? A head turn?
Head tilt: vestibular Head turn: thalamocortex (forebrain)
33
Describe the 3 types of ataxia and localization of the lesion for each
1. Proprioceptive - Interruption of ascending proprioceptive pathways --> loss of sense of limb and body position - Clumsiness, incoordination - White matter of the spinal cord 2. Vestibular - Unilateral --> leaning/falling to one side Bilateral --> crouched position, reluctance to move, side-to-side head motion - Vestibular lesion 3. Cerebellar - Inability to regulate rate and range of movement - Hypermetria - Cerebellum
34
Describe intention tremor, postural tremor, myotonia, myoclonus
- Tremor: rhythmical, oscillatory movement localized to one region of the body or generalized to involve the entire body --> Intention tremor: occurs as body part nears a target --> Postural tremor (occurs as limb or head against gravity) - Myotonia - muscle stiffness relieved by exercise - Myoclonus - brief muscle contraction --> jerking movement
35
What is spinal shock?
Paralysis and absent reflexes caudal to the level of an injury. Can occur immediately after severe spinal cord injury. Generally considered to be short-lived, with reflexes returning within about 30 min. after trauma. Patient exhibits LMN signs in the face of UMN spinal cord localization
36
How to interpret the cutaneous trunk reflex
Obvious cut-off point suggests a spinal cord lesion 1-4 segments cranial to the level of cut-off
37
A patient has conscious proprioceptif deficits with a normal gait. This is the hallmark sign of what type of lesion?
Cerebral dysfunction * proprioceptive deficits usually contralateral to lesion
38
List signs of midbrain dysfunction
- Severe disturbance of consciousness - Gait abnormalities - Decerebrate rigidity - CN III & IV deficits
39
List signs of pons dysfunction
- Severe disturbance of consciousness - Respiratory disturbance - CN V deficits - UMN paresis/paralysis
40
List signs of medulla dysfunction
* Sensory nuclei of CN V + nuclei of VI, VII, IX and XII are here as well as vestibular nuclei - Rostral medulla --> vestibular signs +/- facial nerve deficits - Caudal medulla --> dysphonia, dysphagia, tongue paresis - Respiratory disturbance - UMN paresis/paralysis
41
Which structures are involved in respiration? Lesions to anyone of these could impair breathing
- Brainstem --> pons & medulla - Cervical spine (C5-C7) - Phrenic nerve - Intercostal nerves
42
True or false: the cerebellum is responsible for initiating movement?
False --> it coordinates rate and range of movement Gait is generated in the brain stem of dogs and cats.
43
If a Schiff-Sherington posture is seen with a lesion of spinal cord segment T3-L7, explain why the thoracic limbs are involved
Border cells in the dorsolateral border of the ventral gray column of L1–L7 (mainly L2–L4) are neurons that project to the cervical intumescence, providing tonic inhibitory activity to muscles of the thoracic limbs (UMN). Disinhibition through injury to these neurons --> thoracic limb extensor rigidity but with normal limb function
44
True or false: patients with peripheral neuropathies are often ataxic
False: key clinic feature is lack of ataxia
45
You have a patient with absent menace, but normal PLRs and normal palpebral reflexes. Where is the lesion?
Menace is either CN II, CN VII or forebrain --> Problem is contralateral cerebral cortex Normal PLR --> CN II & III are working Normal palpebral --> CN V & VII working
46
What are the 4 hallmark signs of vestibular disease?
- Vestibular ataxia - Had tilt - Spontaneous or inducible nystagmus - Positional strabismus
47
One of your patients has just undergone general anesthesia for a cisternal CSF collection and recovers with vestibular signs. What can explain this? What is another ore life threatening complication that could have occurred?
Injury from CSF tap --> trauma to cerebellum, brainstem or cervical spinal cord. --> Apnea vs brain herniation in a case of ICH
48
Which space (in the meninges) is CSF collected from?
Subarachnoid space
49
True or false: RBCs should not be present in cisternal fluid but small amounts are usually considered normal in lumbar fluid
True