Neuro CC Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How does a migraine typically present?

A
  • A moderately severe, unilateral, throbbing headache
  • Often associated with nausea, vomiting, and photophobia and
  • May be preceded by (< an hour) an aura — transient neurological symptoms - visual, sensory, or motor.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage, carotid or vertebral dissection features

A
  • Sudden abrupt (may be precipitated by cough, coitus, exertion).
  • Very severe
  • Particularly associated with collapse, confusion, neurological signs, vomiting, or neck stiffness.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Subdural haematoma features

A
  • Hours, days, or weeks after head trauma (particularly if LOC).
  • Gradually worse
  • Nausea, vomiting, confusion, decreased level of consciousness.
  • An extradural haematoma has similar symptoms with much more rapid progression over hours. Life threatening.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Meningitis, encephalitis features

A
  • Fairly rapid with systemic illness.
  • Progressively worse, severe, steady/throbbing.
  • Fever, nausea, vomiting, rash, drowsiness, neck stiffness.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Increased intracranial pressure features (Possible space occupying lesion or benign intracranial hypertension)

A
  • Gradual.
  • Worse on morning waking and improving
    during the day.
  • Nausea, vomiting, can be worse with coughing or sudden head movements.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Temporal arteritis features

A
  • Gradual or rapid
  • Adults >50yrs
  • Fever, tender temporal arteries and scalp, myalgia, weight loss, jaw claudication, raised ESR, sudden visual loss.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Benign intracranial hypertension features

A
  • Gradual
  • Young patient with progressive headache
  • Nausea, vomiting, papilloedema. Tetracyclines (Rx for acne), obesity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What triad of symptoms suggests Meniere’s Disease?

A
  • Episodic vertigo
  • Tinnitus
  • Progressive sensineural deafness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between dysphasia, dysarthria and dysphonia?

A
  • Dysphasia – dominant higher centre disorder in the use of symbols for communication – language
  • Dysarthria – difficulty with articulation
  • Dysphonia – altered quality of the voice – result of vocal cord disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why do we ask the patient to fixate on a distant object when testing the light reflex?

A

This is to avoid the accommodation reflex (where the eyes pupils will usually constrict and the eyes converge) when focusing on a near object.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why should pungent substances such as ammonia be avoided when testing the olfactory nerve (CN I)?

A

Pungent substances such as ammonia should not be used, first because they upset the patient and second because noxious stimuli of this sort are detected by sensory fibres of the fifth (trigeminal) nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the normal pupillary response when assessing RAPD (relative afferent pupillary defect) and what is an abnormal response? What does this abnormal response indicate?

A

Normally you would expect both the pupils to constrict to a similar degree when the torch is shone in either eye (the direct and consensual reflex) and dilate slightly during the “swing” phase when the torch is not shining directly in either eye.

If an eye has optic atrophy or reduced visual acuity from another cause, the affected pupil will dilate paradoxically after a short time when the torch is moved from the normal eye to the abnormal eye. This is called a relative afferent pupillary
defect (RAPD or the Marcus Gunn pupillary sign). It occurs because an eye with even mildly reduced acuity has reduced afferent impulses so that the light reflex is decreased. When the light is shone from the normal eye to the abnormal one the pupil dilates, as reflex pupillary constriction in the abnormal eye is so reduced that relaxation after the consensual response dominates.

The Clinical Practice Handbook 2019 also lists as possible causes:

  • Optic Neuritis
  • Ischaemic optic neuropathy
  • Nerve compression by orbital tumour or at a sight pre- chiasma
  • Asymmetric glaucoma.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What ocular muscles does CN III (Oculomotor) innervate and what would you expect to see clinically, if a patient had an CN III palsy?

A
  • CN III innervates:
    • Superior Rectus
    • Inferior Rectus
    • Medial Rectus
    • Inferior Oblique
  • CN III Palsy: Ptosis, Eye turned down and out, dilated non-reactive pupil, unreactive to accommodation, opposite pupil reacts normally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What ocular muscles does CN IV (Trochlear) innervate and what would you expect to see clinically, if a patient had an CN IV palsy?

A
  • CN IV innervates the Superior Oblique.
  • CN IV Palsy: Weakness of downward and outward gaze. The patient may walk around with his or her head tilted away from the lesion—that is, to the opposite shoulder (this allows the patient to maintain binocular vision)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What ocular muscles does CN VI (Abducens) innervate and what would you expect to see clinically if a patient had an CN VI palsy?

A
  • CN VI innervates the lateral rectus.
  • CN VI Palsy: Weakness of lateral gaze on the affected side (rarely bilateral).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is it best to test sensation of the trigeminal nerve on the forehead, maxilla and mandible approximately along an imaginary vertical line drawn through the eyes?

A

This strategy helps avoid a smaller innervated zone near the maxillary division and the angle of the mandible, which is innervated by the C2 cervical nerve root.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Can you describe how you would test the corneal reflex and which nerves are involved in the afferent and efferent component?

A
  • Using a very fine twist of cotton wool, gently touch the surface of the cornea, while the patient is looking at a focal point across the room.
  • You can rest your hand gently on the patient’s cheek to stabilise the approaching stimulus.
  • Do not cross the line of sight, touch the sclera or the eyelashes.
  • Both eyes should close after the cornea is touched.
  • The afferent sensory signal is via CN V, the Trigeminal Nerve, and the efferent motor response is via CN VII, the Facial Nerve (orbicularis oculi muscle).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do you test the Masseter (Jaw jerk) reflex? What is a normal response? What might an exaggerated response indicate?

A
  • Ask the patient to relax their jaw, with their mouth partly open
  • Place your finger on the anterior surface of the chin
  • Gently strike your finger with a tendon hammer
  • Normally, there is a slight closure of the mouth or no reaction at all. In an upper motor neurone lesion above the pons, the jaw jerk is greatly exaggerated. This is commonly seen in pseudobulbar palsy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In Bell’s palsy (a lower motor neuron lesion - LMN) there is complete hemiplegia of the face whereas after a CVA (an upper motor neuron lesion - UMN) there is forehead sparing in the presence of facial paralysis. Why?

A

This is the result of the bicortical representation of the frontalis muscle within the motor homunculus, in the cerebral cortex, combined with bilateral descending innervation to CNVII’s motor nucleus. It is unknown why this exception exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the Weber Test and explain possible results and their significance?

A
  • Ring a 256Hz tuning fork and place its base on the patient’s forehead (in the midline)
  • Ask the patient which direction the sound/vibration seems to be the loudest
  • Make note of result – midline (normal), lateralised (left or right Weber)
  • Nerve deafness causes the sound to be heard better in the normal ear. A patient withUpdated June 2019
  • conduction deafness finds the sound louder in the abnormal ear.”
  • Note that you can mimic the effect of conductive deafness by blocking off an ear with your finger and doing Weber on yourself – the sound will seem to lateralise to the side that you have blocked off. Give it a try in class. It might help you remember!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe Rinne’s test and explain possible results and their significance?

A
  • Ring a 256Hz tuning fork and place its base on one mastoid process
  • Ask the patient to report to you when they stop hearing the ringing sound
  • Immediately turn the tuning fork to bring the end of the forks close to the external auditory meatus
  • Ask the patient if they can hear anything
  • If the patient can hear the ringing, Air Conduction (AC) in that ear must be greater than
  • Bone
  • Conduction (BC) – Make note of the result e.g. “AC>BC in Right Ear”
  • Repeat on opposite side
  • Normally the note is audible at the external meatus. If the patient has nerve deafness, the note is audible at the external meatus, as air and bone conduction are reduced equally, so that air conduction is better (as is normal). This is termed Rinné-positive. If there is a conduction (middle-ear) deafness, no note is audible at the external meatus. This is termed Rinné negative.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In the cranial nerve exam, if you noticed that the uvula was displaced, what nerve might be damaged? Would the uvula be drawn to the side of the damaged nerve or to the “normal” side?

A

Normally, the posterior edge of the soft palate—the velum —rises symmetrically. If the uvula is drawn to one side this indicates a unilateral tenth nerve palsy. Note that the uvula is drawn towards the normal side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which cranial nerves are responsible for the afferent and the efferent components of the gag reflex?

A
  • Sensory (afferent) – Glossopharyngeal
  • Motor(efferent) - Vagus – Superior Pharyngeal Constrictor muscle
24
Q

In the cranial nerve exam, if you noticed wasting and fasciculation of the tongue and it deviated to one side on protrusion, which cranial nerve is likely affected? Does the tongue usually deviate towards the affected side or the normal side? Is it likely to be an UMN or LMN lesion?

A
  • Hypoglossal nerve.
  • Ask the patient to stick out the tongue, which may deviate towards the weaker (affected) side if there is a unilateral lower motor neurone lesion. The tongue, like the face and the palate, has a bilateral upper motor neurone innervation in most people, so a unilateral upper motor neurone lesion often causes no deviation.
25
Q

Which nerve lesion are we looking for when assessing for voice hoarseness and a bovine cough? Which cranial nerve is this a branch of?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve (branch of Vagus)

26
Q

When we ask the patient to shrug their shoulders and turn their head against resistance which cranial nerve are we testing?

A

Cranial Nerve XI – Accessory Nerve.

27
Q

What is the general order of examination of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A
  • General inspection: posture, muscle bulk/wasting, fasciculations
  • Motor component: assessment of tone, power, reflexes, coordination
  • Sensory component: assessment of pain, temperature, vibration, proprioception, and light touch
  • Functional deficits
28
Q

Anatomically where would an Upper Motor Lesion (UMN) occur? And a Lower Motor Neuron (LMN) lesion?

A
  • UMN – cortex to spine
  • LMN – anterior horn cell to muscle
29
Q

UMN clinical findings

A
  • No wasting
  • No fasciculations
  • Increased tone
  • Decreased power
  • Increased reflexes
  • Ungoing babinski

Causes: stroke, spinal injury, MS, brain tumour

30
Q

LMN clinical findings

A
  • Wasting
  • Fasciculations
  • Decreased tone
  • Decreased power
  • Absent/decreased reflexes
  • Downgoing babinski

Causes: peripheral neuropathy, radiculopathy, polio, MND

31
Q

What are some cerebellar symptoms and signs?

A
  • Ataxia: uncoordinated voluntary movements — most common finding in cerebellar disease.
  • Gait ataxia: tendency to stagger to the side of the lesion (if unilateral) Feet either too far apart or too close together irregularly. If lesion is central, truncal ataxia may be the only abnormality.
  • Limb ataxia: finger/nose and heel/toe — dysdiadochokinesia (refer to below, Neurological examination of the upper limb).
  • Nystagmus: usually conjugate horizontal jerk nystagmus on lateral gaze with increased amplitude looking towards the side of the lesion.
  • Hypotonia: may have pendular tendon reflexes (more than four rebounds). Arm rebound — inability to return arms to original outstretched position without overshooting (tests tone and coordination).
  • Dysarthria: slow slurred speech.
  • Tremor: resting, intention
32
Q

When assessing for arm drift what is the likely cause of deficits?

A

Downward –> weakness of nerve or muscle

Upward –> cerebellar lesion

Searching movements, called pseudoathetosis –> loss of proprioception

33
Q

Describe the grading system for reflexes?

A

0 = Absent

+ = Present but reduced

++ = Normal

+++ = Increased, possibly normal

++++ = Greatly increased, often associated with clonus.

34
Q

What is the main nerve and nerve root assessed by biceps reflex?

A

Musculocutaneous, C5/6

35
Q

What is the main nerve and nerve root assessed by triceps reflex?

A

Radial, C7/8

36
Q

What is the main nerve and nerve root assessed by supinator jerk?

A

Radial, C5/6

37
Q

What is the main nerve and nerve root assessed by finger jerk?

A

Median, C8

38
Q

What is the main nerve and nerve root assessed by knee jerk?

A

Femoral, L3/4

39
Q

What is the main nerve and nerve root assessed by ankle jerk?

A

Post tibial, S1/2

40
Q

What is the main nerve and nerve root assessed by babinski?

A

Afferent–Tibial Nerve, S1

Efferent–Sciatic Nerve, L5/S1

41
Q

When doing the finger-to-nose or toe-to-finger tests what are two possible abnormalities you might notice?

A
  • Past-pointing – pointing beyond the target (visuospatial deficit) especially when moving.
  • Intention Tremor – tremor that is absent at rest but increases the further the arm moves away from the body.
42
Q

What landmarks do we use to assess light touch and pain on the upper limb?

A

C3 supraclavicular fossa

C4 top of AC joint

C5 lateral side of antecubital fossa

C6 thumb

C7 middle finger

C8 little finger

43
Q

What landmarks do we use to assess light touch and pain on the lower limb?

A

T1 medial (ulnar) side of antecubital fossa

T2 apex of axilla

L2 mid-anterior thigh

L3 medial femoral condyle

L4 medial malleolus

L5 dorsal surface of foot over 3rd MTP joint

S1 lateral heel

S2 popliteal fossa

44
Q

What additional dermatomes can we test?

A

T4 fourth IC space (nipple line)

T10 level with the umbilicus

T12 mid-point of inguinal ligament

L1 half-way between T12 and L2 landmarks

S3 ischial tuberosity and S4-S5 peri-anal region (“saddle sensation” area)

45
Q

When assessing proprioception why is it important to hold the sides rather than the top and bottom of the finger or toe?

A

Touching the palmar or dorsal aspect will contribute to pressure reception and will mask any true proprioceptive sensation loss.

46
Q

What would you expect on examination for deformity (D), Motor (M) and Sensory (S) for the radial nerve?

A

D) Wrist drop

M) Loss of wrist extension, wrist supination OR finger extension

S) Loss of sensation over Anatomical Snuffbox.

47
Q

What would you expect on examination for deformity (D), Motor (M) and Sensory (S) for the median nerve?

A

D) Hand of Benediction (while attempting to make a fist)
M) Loss of PIP flexion of all fingers, DIP flexion for Index and Middle finger, LOAF muscles
S) Loss of sensation over Palmar aspect of thumb and index finger

48
Q

What would you expect on examination for deformity (D), Motor (M) and Sensory (S) for the ulnar nerve?

A

D) Understand the partial claw (Ulnar Nerve Paradox) OR wasting of most intrinsic muscles of hand

M) Loss of all actions of intrinsic muscles of hand except LOAF muscles, Froment’s sign

S) Loss of sensation over Palmar and Dorsal aspects of little finger, up to ulnar side of ring finger.

49
Q

When do you get the clinical sign of the “Hand of Benediction” and why does it occur? How does it differ from a “claw hand”?

A

High lesions of the Median nerve can be associated with the “Hand of Benediction”. This will only be seen when the patient tries to make a fist and results from an inability to flex the lateral 2/3 fingers due to loss of Flexor Digitorum Profundus.

By contrast a “claw hand” is seen when the hand is in resting position and can occur if there is an ulnar lesion at the wrist. The unopposed action of extensors of MCP and continuing function of flexors of I/P joints in forearm from the ulnar half of Flexor Digitorum Profundus produces an Ulnar Claw of 4th/5th fingers.

50
Q

What is the ulnar nerve paradox?

A

A lesion at or above the elbow also causes loss of digitorum profundus, leading to less flexion of the interphalangeal joints. This is referred to as the “ulnar nerve paradox” — the more distal the lesion, the greater the deformity.

51
Q

What is Froment’s sign?

A

When testing for an ulnar nerve lesion you can ask the patient to grasp a piece of paper between the thumb and lateral aspect of the index finger as you try to pull it away. In Froment’s sign the affected thumb will flex because of loss of adductor muscles.

52
Q

What myotomes are used when you walk on your heels and when you walk on your tip toes?

A

Walking on heels (L4, L5) – Tibialis anterior

Walking on tip-toes (S1, S2) - Gastrocnemius

53
Q

What would you expect on examination for deformity (D), Motor (M) and Sensory (S) for femoral nerve?

A

D) No deformity

M) Weak knee extension, absent patellar reflex

S) Loss of sensation over medial thigh and proximal leg

54
Q

What would you expect on examination for deformity (D), Motor (M) and Sensory (S) for sciatic nerve?

A

D) Foot drop (plantarflexed foot)

M) Weakness of hamstrings and all muscles below the knee, intact patellar reflex, absent ankle and plantar reflexes
S) Loss of sensation over posterior thigh and leg and foot

55
Q

What would you expect on examination for deformity (D), Motor (M) and Sensory (S) for common peroneal nerve?

A

D) Foot drop (plantarflexed foot)

M) Weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion, intact reflexes

S) Minimal loss of sensation over lateral aspect of dorsal foot

56
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of damage to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh?

A

A lesion of the lateral cutaneous nerve typically results in sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the thigh with no motor loss detectable. The nerve crosses the pelvis and passes under or through the inguinal ligament just medial to the ASIS. The condition is associated with obesity, pregnancy diabetes and tight belts or clothes over the area.