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Neuro Score Builders ROUND 2 > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Posterior portion of the Sylvian fissure separates the

A

Temporal and parietal lobes

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2
Q

What separates the frontal and parietal lobes laterally

A

Central sulcus

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3
Q

What separates the occipital lobe into superior and inferior halves

A

Calcarine sulcus

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4
Q

Lobe responsible for voluntary movement

A

Frontal

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5
Q

Lobe associated with sensation of touch, kinesthesia, perception of vibration, and temperature

A

Parietal

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6
Q

Lobe responsible for primary auditory processing and olfaction

A

Temporal

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7
Q

Lobe responsible for judgement of distance

A

Occipital

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8
Q

Broca area in what lobe

A

Frontal - expressive aphasia

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9
Q

Personality and temper what lobe

A

Frontal

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10
Q

Special and visual perception what lobe

A

Parietal

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11
Q

Injury to what lobe causes memory loss, antisocial behaviors, inability to categorize faces and objects

A

Temporal

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12
Q

Structure responsible for forming and storing new memories

A

Hippocampus

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13
Q

Which structure receives info from the cerebellum, basal ganglia, and all sensory pathways except olfactory tract

A

Thalamus- then relays the info to the appropriate association cortex

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14
Q

What structure regulates hunger thirst sleep sexual

A

Hypothalamus

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15
Q

Structure responsible for regulating movements produced by skeletal muscles. It is associated with basal ganglia and substantial nigra

A

Subthalamus

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16
Q

Internal clock, selected regulation of motor pathways and emotions

A

Epithalamus

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17
Q

Rapid alternating movements and muscle tone regulation

A

Cerebellum

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18
Q

MCA CVA characteristics (4)

A

Impaired body schema, impaired spatial relations, contralateral weakness and sensory loss mostly in face and UE, homonymous hemianopsia

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19
Q

ACA CVA characteristics (4)

A

Contralateral LE weakness and sensory deficits, significant mental changes, apraxia and agraphia, loss of bowel and bladder control

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20
Q

PCA CVA characteristics (4)

A

Thalamic pain syndrome, cortical blindness from bilateral involvement, visual agnosia, contralateral pain and temp loss

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21
Q

Vertebral-basilar artery CVA characteristics (4)

A

Coma, nystagmus, dysarthria, vertigo

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22
Q

Abnormal sensation of pain, temperature, touch, and proprioception which can be debilitating

A

Thalami can pain syndrome

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23
Q

Ipsilateral paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration sense and position sense, contralateral loss of pain and temp

A

Brown sequard syndrome

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24
Q

Dermatome-back, front of thigh to knee

A

L2

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25
Q

L2 myotome

A

Hip flexors and adductors

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26
Q

Dermatome - back, upper buttock, anterior thigh and knee, medial lower leg

A

L3

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27
Q

Myotome- psoas, quads

A

L3

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28
Q

Medial leg, dorsum of foot, big toe Dermatome

A

L4

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29
Q

Extensor hallucis longus, peroneals, df myotome

A

L5

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30
Q

Tibialis anterior(df, inv) and extensor hallucis myotome

A

L4

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31
Q

Dermatorme- dorsum of foot, first second and third toes, medial half of sole

A

L5

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32
Q

Dermatome- lateral and plantar aspect of foot

A

S1

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33
Q

Anterior tongue taste CNs

A

v and vii

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34
Q

Glut max innervation

A

Inferior gluteal nerve(1)

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35
Q

Obturator nerve innervation (5)

A

Adductor longus, brevis, and Magnus
Obturator externus
Gracilis

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36
Q

Superior gluteal nerve innervation (3)

A

Glut med, glut min, tfl

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37
Q

Tib anterior innervation

A

Deep peroneal (5)

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38
Q

Tib posterior innervation

A

Tibial nerve (7)

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39
Q

Extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus/brevis

A

Deep peroneal

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40
Q

Peroneus longus and brevis

A

Superficial peroneal nerve

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41
Q

Soleus and gastroc innervation

A

Tibial nerve

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42
Q

Abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, and flexor hallucis brevis innervation

A

Medial plantar nerve

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43
Q

Flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus

A

Tibial nerve

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44
Q

Opponens digiti minimi, most lumbricals, adductor hallucis innervation

A

Lateral plantar nerve

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45
Q

Normal response for the abdominal reflex

A

Contraction of the abdominals and deviation of the embilicus in the direction of stimulus

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46
Q

Corneal blink reflex normal response

A

Both eyes blink with contact to one eye- asses trigeminal and facial nerves

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47
Q

Brisk and brief elevation of testicle on ipsilateral side is a normal response to which superficial reflex

A

Cremesteric reflex

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48
Q

3 superficial sensations

A

Temp, light touch, pain

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49
Q

Three deep sensations

A

Proprioception, kinesthesia, vibration

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50
Q

Three cortical sensations

A

Stereognosis, two point discrimination, barognosis

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51
Q

A deep sensation which is characterized by being able to identify the direction and extent of movement of a joint or body part

A

Kinesthesia

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52
Q

A deep sensation characterized by being able to identify a static position of an extremity or body part

A

Proprioception

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53
Q

Common cause for musculocutaneous nerve entrapment

A

Fracture of the clavicle

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54
Q

Ulnar nerve entrapment Etiologies

A

Compression in the cubital tunnel, entrapment in guyon’s canal

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55
Q

Type of fluent aphasia characterized by word finding difficulties but good comprehension

A

Conduction aphasia - where as wernicke’s which is characterized by impaired comprehension

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56
Q

Non fluent aphasia characterized by impairment in verbal expression secondary to deficits in motor learning

A

Verbal apraxia - pt is unable to initiate learned movement (talking) even though they understand the task

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57
Q

Slurred speech due to UMNL that affects the muscles that are used to articulate words and sounds

A

Dysarthria

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58
Q

This test is used for diagnosing potential CVA, brain tumor, aneurysm, or vascular malformation

A

Cerebral angiography

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59
Q

A test used to rule out cysts, tumors, epilepsy, hemorrhage, spinal stenosis, encephalitis

A

Ct scan

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60
Q

Test used to rule out seizure disorders, inflammation, etc by continuously measuring electrical activity of the brain

A

Electroencephalography eeg

61
Q

Test used primarily to rule out hemorrhage, inflammation, infection , meningitis and Tumor

A

Spinal puncture

62
Q

Pts taking cholinergic agents for dementia d/t Alzheimer’s disease may experience what side effects?

A

Decrease hr and dizziness

63
Q

Levodopa should be administered when

A

Max benefit from scheduling therapy one hour after administration of dopamine replacement agents for PD. Side effect is OH

64
Q

What disease is caused by deterioration of neurons within the cerebral cortex that are involved in acetylcholine transmission. Results in development of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

A

Alzheimer’s disease

65
Q

Pt’s with ALS will experience weakness which spreads in what path?

A

Distal to proximal ie asymmetrical df weakness first sign

66
Q

Bell’s palsy may be caused by ?

A

Herpes- causes inflammation of the nerve within the auditory canal producing subsequent demyelination of cn vii

67
Q

PT should be ready to call 911 if seizure lasts longer than ?

A

5 min

68
Q

After seizure is over, the PT should place the person on their _____ side until they are fully alert

A

left side - in case pt vomits

69
Q

What is the hypothesized etiology of GBS

A

Autoimmune response to a previous respiratory infection, surgery, or immunization causing an acute polyneuropathy

70
Q

What is the initial presentation of GBS

A

Distal Symmetrical motor weakness, mild distal sensory impairment

71
Q

Autosomal dominant Disease characterized by degeneration of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex within the brain, causing neurotransmitters become deficient and unable to modulate movement

A

Huntingtons disease - ataxia with choreoathetoid movements, rigid

72
Q

Extreme fatiguability and skeletal muscle weakness. Ocular muscles are affected first and approximately half the pts experience ptosis and diplopia. Also CN weakness

A

Myasthenia gravis

73
Q

Myasthenia gravis focus

A

Energy conservation techniques and strengthening using isometrics while avoiding fatigue
Since pt use long term corticosteroids focus on secondary osteoporosis prevention

74
Q

Decrease in production of dopamine by basal ganglia

A

PD- sluggish movement(hypokinesia), difficulty initiating movement ( akinesia) , festering gait, rigidity, freezing during ambulation

75
Q

With myasthenia gravis, are proximal or distal muscles affected more ?

A

Proximal more affected. Also CN involvement. Myasthenia gravis crisis is a medical emergency

76
Q

What are some signs of myasthenia crisis

A

Respiratory difficulty, swallowing issues, labored talking and chewing

77
Q

Five primary risk factors for CVA

A

TIA, smoking, arrhythmias, hypertension, DM

78
Q

Common cardiac disorders that can lead to embolism include?

A

Valvular disease, ischemic heart disease, acute MI, arrhythmias ( a fib), patent foreamen ovale, post cardiac catheterization

79
Q

Plaque formation in cerebral artery causing CVA

A

Thrombus CVA

80
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke precipitating factor

A

Hypertension.

81
Q

Assessment of acute CVA relative to impairment

A

national institute of health stroke scale NIH

82
Q

Provides a level of burden through assessment of mobility and ADL management

A

Functional independence measure FIM

83
Q

Assessment of physical and social disability due to CVA

A

Stroke impact scale

84
Q

Motor, sensory, balance, pain, rom impairment assessment due to stroke

A

Fugl-Meyer assessment of physical performance

85
Q

Which motor learning theory puts a high emphasis on the concept of practice

A

Adams closed loop theory

86
Q

Which motor learning theory puts a high emphasis on feedback and importance of variation with practice

A

Schmidts schema theory

87
Q

Practice of a given task under a uniform condition

A

Constant practice

88
Q

Practice of a given task under differing conditions

A

Variable practice

89
Q

Varying practice amongst different tasks

A

Random practice

90
Q

Consistent practice of a single task

A

Blocked practice

91
Q

An approach that targets normal movement and how it is relearned after neurological insult

A

Carr and Shepard - centered around PT observation during examination in order to identify the variations in normal movement, also feedback, knowledge of results

92
Q

Technique focusing on inhibiting abnormal patterns of movement with simultaneous facilitation of normal patterns, emphasizing rotation during treatment activities and providing orientation to midline by moving in and out of midline with dynamic activity

A

Bobath Neuromuscular developmental treatment NDT

93
Q

Movement combinations that deviate from basic limb synergies should be introduced in what brunnstrom stage ?

A

Stage 4

94
Q

Approach based on the premise that stronger parts of the body are used to stimulate and strengthen the weaker parts

A

Pnf

95
Q

Developmental sequence of agonistic reversals (2)

A

Controlled mobility and skill

96
Q

Developmental sequence of alternating isometrics (1)

A

Stability- AI emphasizes endurance and strengthening

97
Q

Developmental sequence of contract relax and or relax? Which one contracts the agonist? Antagonist?

A

Mobility
Contract-relax- antagonist
Hold-relax- agonist

98
Q

Developmental sequence of hold relax active movement (1)

A

Mobility- improves initiation of movement for muscle groups tested at 1/5 or less

99
Q

Developmental sequence of joint distraction

A

Mobility- inc ROM and initiate movement if used c quick stretch technique

100
Q

Developmental sequence of normal timing (1)

A

Skill- repetition of the pattern produces a coordinated movement of all components

101
Q

Developmental sequence of repeated contraction

A

Mobility- a technique used to initiate movement and sustain a contraction – quick stretch applied at Point of weakness followed by contraction

102
Q

Developmental sequence of resisted progression

A

Skill- used to emphasize coordination of proximal components during gait

103
Q

Developmental sequence of rhythmic initiation

A

Mobility- assist initiation of movement in the presence of hypertonia

104
Q

Developmental sequence of rhythmic stabilization (2)

A

Mobility, Stability- isometric contraction of ALL muscles around a joint. Progression of alternating isometrics which just focuses on flex/ext

105
Q

Developmental sequence of Rhythmic rotation

A

Mobility- passive technique to improve ROM by slowly rotation around longitudinal axis to decrease hypertonia

106
Q

Developmental sequence of slow reversal

A

Stability, controlled mobility, skill- improve control of movement and posture

107
Q

Developmental sequence of slow reversal hold

A

Stability, controlled mobility, and skill- using Slow reversal with the addition of an isometric contraction that is performed in the end of each movement in order to gain stability

108
Q

Developmental sequence of timing for emphasis

A

Skill- used to strengthen weak component of a motor pattern by using muscle contraction to produce overflow

109
Q

8 facilitation techniques

A

Quick stretch, taping, icing, resistance, approximation, traction, light touch, joint compression

110
Q

4 inhibitory techniques

A

Prolonged ice, warmth, sustained stretch, deep pressure

111
Q

Hemiplegia vs hemiparesis

A

Hemiparesis is weakness - hemiplegia is paralysis

112
Q

Inability to formulate an initial motor plan and sequence tasks

A

Ideational apraxia

113
Q

Motor function is preserved below the neurological level, and most key muscles below the neurological level have a muscle grade of less than 3

A

Asia c

114
Q

Which Asia grade represents normal sensory and motor function

A

Asia E

115
Q

Sensory but not motor function is preserved below the neurological level and extends through the sacral segment of s4 and S5

A

Asia B

116
Q

Motor function is preserved below the neurological level and most key muscles below that level have a muscle grade greater than or equal to 3

A

Asia D

117
Q

How to determine sensory level

A

Most caudal dermatome with 2/2 normal score for pin prick and light touch

118
Q

Midanterior thigh dermatome

A

L2

119
Q

L3 dermatome

A

Medial femoral condyle

120
Q

Dorsum of the foot at third MTP joint dermatome

A

L5

121
Q

Medial malleolus dermatome

A

L4

122
Q

Lateral heel dermatome

A

S1

123
Q

Popliteal fossa in the midline dermatome

A

S2

124
Q

Ischial tub dermatome

A

S3

125
Q

Perianal area dermatome

A

S4-5

126
Q

A drop of ____ mmhg of SBP after moving from a supine to sitting position

A

20 mm hg

127
Q

Sacral sparing characteristics

A

Sensation of the saddle Area, movement of toe flexors, and rectal sphincter contraction -‘incomplete lesion

128
Q

Total flaccidity and loss of all reflexes below the level of the lesion

A

Spinal shock- can last 30 min and can last up to several weeks

129
Q

A term used to describe trace of poor motor or sensory function for up to 3 levels below the lesion

A

Zone of preservation

130
Q

An injury that results on the opposite side of the brain due to a rebound effect

A

Contrecoup lesion

131
Q

In terms of TBI what are some examples of secondary injury

A

Inc ICP, hematoma, ischemia, post traumatic epilepsy

132
Q

Concussion grade - no loss of consciousness, some confusion typically resolving within 15 mins

A

Grade 1

133
Q

Concussion grade- transient confusion lasting longer than 15 mins c poor concentration, retrograde and antegrade amnesia

A

Grade 2 - RTP after two weeks asymptomatic

134
Q

Concussion grade- any LOC, Emergency room, a min of one month symptoms free

A

Grade 3

135
Q

Independent sitting achieved when?

A

6-7 months

136
Q

What is Cruising ? And when is it achieved?

A

Walks along furniture, 8-9 months

137
Q

When is walking unsupported achieved?

A

12-15 months

138
Q

Rides tricycle, walks stairs reciprocally, hops on one foot- These are typically achieved by?

A

Two years

139
Q

Skipping, throws and catches ball, jumps over obstacles up to 12 inches

A

3-4 years

140
Q

Jumps rope, gallops, bounces large ball

A

5-8 years

141
Q

Caused by lack of gene that produces the muscle proteins required for production of dystrophin and nebulin

A

Duchenne muscular distrophy

142
Q

Etiology of DMD

A

X linked recessive trait- mother is a silent carrier

143
Q

Small hands feet, almond shaped eyes, obesity, coordination impairment

A

Prader-Willi syndrome - focus on postural control, exercise, fine motor

144
Q

Spinal muscular atrophy is

A

Progressive degeneration of anterior horn cell due to mutation of chromosome 5

145
Q

Type 2 sma onset

A

@6-12 months : can survive into adult hood

146
Q

Type 1 sma onset

A

Birth to 2 months - life expectancy less than one year

147
Q

Type 3 sma onset

A

4-17 year and typically survive into adulthood

148
Q

Anterior portion of the Sylvian fissure separates ?

A

Temporal and frontal lobes

Neuro Score Builders ROUND 2 (1 decks)

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