Neuro 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the risk factors of MS?

A
  • white
  • female:male 2:1 at least
  • EBV
  • late 20s (mean age of onset 30)
  • FH (2% first degree relative, 30% both parents)
  • lives in north
  • smoking
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2
Q

What are the types of MS?

A

Increasing in disability:

  1. Relapsing and remitting (de and remyelination)
  2. Primary progressive MS (no remission)
  3. Secondary progressive MS (after stepwise)
  4. Progressive relapsing and remitting

When progressive you have axonal damage

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3
Q

What are the features of optic neuritis?

A
  • Pain on eye movement
  • rapid decrease of central vision
  • decrease in colour vision
  • centrocaecal scotoma
  • normal disc / mild swelling
  • Improves w/in 3 wks of onset
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4
Q

What are poor prognostic signs of MS?

A
  • older males
  • motor signs at onset
  • many relapses early on
  • many MRI lesions
  • axonal loss
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5
Q

If someone has a clinical isolated syndrome what’s the chance of progressing to MS?

A
  • MRI scan clean then 20% chance of progression to MS in next 10-15 years
  • 2-3 lesions on MRI then 60-80% chance of progression to MS in next 10-15 years

If MRI -; OCB + = 24% vs. 4% (OCB-)
OCB= oligoclonal bands

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6
Q

How do you diagnose MS?

A

It requires lesions disseminated in time and space:

  • clinical history
  • contrast MRI (IV gadolinium leaks out if <30 days) so you would want to see contrast enhancing and non contrast enhancing lesions
  • oligoclonal IgG bands in CSF
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7
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of MS?

A

Sensory

  • dysaesthesia
  • pins and needles
  • vibration sense decreased
  • trigeminal neuralgia

Motor

  • spastic weakness
  • myelitis

Sexual/GU

  • erectile dysfunction
  • anorgasmia
  • urine retention
  • incontinence

GI

  • swallowing disorders
  • constipation

Eye

  • diplopia
  • hemianopia
  • optic neuritis
  • uhthoffs phenomenon (dec vision with heat, and exercise)
  • bilateral inter-nuclear ophthlamoplegia
  • pupil defects

Cerebellum

  • ataxia
  • intention tremor
  • scanning (monotonous) speech
  • falls

Cognitive

  • decline
  • amnesia
  • mood changes
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8
Q

DDx for MS

A

ADEM (Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis)

  • confusion
  • seizures
  • lesions resolve and don’t recur

Neuromyelitis opticia- autoimmune disease against aquaporin 4- (MOG, AQP4 assay)

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9
Q

How do you treat MS?

A

In relapse:

  • high dose methylprednisolone 500mg oral, 2 x daily for 5 days with gastro protection such as omeprazole
  • if severe give methylpred 1g IV daily for 3-5 days within 14 days of onset
  • consider Plasma Exchange

Long term:

  • encourage a stress free life
  • vitamin D
RRMS:
Attack Prevention 1 st Line:
Injectables
• Β-IFN (decreases relapses by 30%)
• Glatiramer Acetate (copaxone)
Orals
Teriflunomide (Aubagio)
Fumarate (Tecfidera)
Attack Prevention 2nd Line
• Fingolimod (Gilenya)
• Natalizumab (Tysabri)
• Alemtuzumab (Lemtrada)**
•Cladribine
- monoclonal antibodies against T cells (alemtuzumab, natalizumab), decreases relapses by 68%
- azothioprine

Secondary progressive MS:
- glatiramer, mitoxantrone (doxorubicin analogue)

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10
Q

How do you define an MS relapse?

A

Rapidly progressive neurological dysfunction
days (hours, days)
• >24 h <1month
• First event – CIS Clinically isolated syndrome (monofocal/multifocal)
- more than 30 days after previous

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11
Q

What are the typical features of transverse myelitis?

A
- bilateral sensory/motor symptoms
 (asymmetric -> incomplete cord)
- defined sensory level
- sphincter disturbance
- Lhermitte’s / paroxysmal tonic spasms
- progression over 4h to 21 days
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12
Q

What are the atypical features of transverse myelitis?

A
  • complete transverse myelitis
  • cauda equina syndrome
  • areflexia
  • progressive symmetric spastic paraparesis
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13
Q

What are the features of MS affecting the cerebellum or brain stem?

A
Typical
- internuclear ophthalmoplegia
- ataxia and nystagmus
- multifocal signs
 (facial sensory loss + vertigo)
- paroxysmal phenomena (> 24 hrs)

Atypical

  • complete external ophthalmoplegia
  • Isolated trigeminal neuralgia
  • fluctuating ocular/bulbar symptoms
  • parkinsonism / movement d/o
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14
Q

What blood tests would you do if you suspect MS?

A
  • full blood count
  • inflammatory markers for example erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein
  • liver function tests
  • renal function tests
  • calcium
  • glucose
  • thyroid function tests
  • vitamin B12
  • HIV serology.
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15
Q

How do you treat a first presentation of optic neuritis?

A

Do MRI brain
- normal -> check vision: worse than 20/40 consider MP and follow up with MRI at 2-4 wks, not normal consider MP and follow up at 3-6 months

  • not normal -> treat with MP
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16
Q

What signs can be seen if you get a patient to open and close their fingers rapidly?

A

Decrease in amplitude: basal ganglia pathology
Decrease in rate: UMN/pyramidal
Decrease in rhythm: cerebellum

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17
Q

What’s the function of the rubrospinal tract?

A

Flexor movement of upper limbs

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18
Q

What’s the function of the lateral vestibulospinal tract

A

Extensors and posture

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19
Q

What’s the function of the reticulospinal tract?

A

Muscle tone and gait (dampens monosynaptic reflex arch so UMN lesions increase reflexes)

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20
Q

What’s the differential for a black out?

A

Syncope
Seizure
Non-epileptic attack

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21
Q

What are the features of syncope?

A
  • Prolonged upright position
  • Sweating prior to LOC
  • Pre-syncopal symptoms
  • Pallor
  • Nausea
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22
Q

What are the features of a seizure?

A
  • Cyanosis
  • Tongue bite
  • Post-ictal confusion
  • LOC for >5 minutes
  • Muscle pain
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23
Q

What are the types of syncope and how would you distinguish between them?

A

Postural
Reflex
Cardiac

With postural and reflex syncope the cause is autonomic (prodromal nausea and sweating). Patients have problems with BP regulation. No change in Life expectancy.

Cardiac
No trigger/abrupt
> 10%/yr risk of death
?FHx sudden death <35 yrs
?RF for IHD
?PMH of IHD

ECG:
>35yrs: LBBB, Q-waves
<35yrs: Delta, PR, QT, LVH

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24
Q

What are the rules about epilepsy and driving?

A

You must be fit free for 12 months before driving.

When coming off AEDs you must be fit free for six months after stopping

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25
Q

Can you drive after a black out?

A

If unprovoked seizure:
- you must be seizure free for 6 months

If syncope suspected (provocative, prodromal, postural):
- you can drive

If reflex vasovagal when sitting:
- you must be seizure free for 6 months

If likely cardiovascular syncope:
- syncope free for 6 months or 1 week if treated

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26
Q

What’s useful when considering if a seizure is epileptic or not?

A

NEA

  • long duration
  • asynchronous movements
  • pelvic thrusting
  • side to side body/head movements
  • closed eyes
  • ictal crying
  • memory recall ok

Epileptic

  • side tongue biting
  • stertorous breathing
  • postictal confusion
  • tense face
  • loss of bowel control
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27
Q

What are the comorbidities of epilepsy?

A

Substance misuse
Anxiety
Depression

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28
Q

What’s the prognosis of treated epilepsy?

A

Seizure control: 50-60% with first AED

Intractable: 10-20%

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29
Q

What’s the risk of seizure recurrence after AED withdrawal?

A

Risk of seizure recurrence:
2 yrs Sz free -> 20-40%
5 yrs Sz free -> 10-20%

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30
Q

What’s the risk of SUDEP?

A

1% if frequent GTCS

0.5% overall

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31
Q

What’s the risk of SUDEP?

A
  • GTCS frequency

- Nocturnal seizures

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32
Q

What is status epilepticus and how do you treat it?

A

If seizure lasts more than 5 minutes.

Diazepam 10−20 mg rectally, repeated once 15 minutes
or Midazolam 10 mg buccally

Early status

  • Lorazepam (i.v.) 2- 4 mg bolus, repeated once after 10−20 minutes
  • Give usual AED medication!!!

Established status

  • Phenytoin 15-20 mg/kg
  • and/or Phenobarbitone 10-15 mg/kg

Refractory status
General anaesthesia:
- Propofol (1-2mg/kg bolus, then 2-10mg/kg/hour)
- Midazolam (0.1-0.2mg/kg bolus, then 0.05-0.5mg/kg/hour)
- Thiopentone (3-5mg/kg bolus, then 3-5mg/kg/hour) fat stores saturation

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33
Q

What’s the diagnosis?

A patient with progressive, painless weakness and wasting with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs

A

motor neuron disease (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)

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34
Q

What are the features of spinal onset ALS?

A
  • 6 months of progressive weakness of upper limb
  • Fasciculations of muscle in affected limb
  • Cramps and spasms
  • Weight loss +
  • Extensor plantars
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35
Q

What are the differentials for weakness and wasting of one upper limb?

A
  • ALS
  • branchial neuritis
  • conduction block neuropathy
  • structural cervical spine disease
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36
Q

What are the features of a conduction block neuropathy?

A
  • Rare
  • Usually onset before 60 years
  • median 6 years (1-20) to diagnosis
  • CB not always demonstrated
  • Weakness in non-wasted muscles
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37
Q

What are the features of bulbar onset ALS?

A
  • 9 months of progressive difficulty in speaking and swallowing
  • Weight loss +++
  • Inappropriate laughing and crying
  • Breathless when lying flat
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38
Q

Which sites are the first affected in ALS?

A
  • Upper limb 30%
  • Lower limb 35%
  • Bulbar 30%
  • Respiratory 1-2%
  • Trunk 1-2%
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39
Q

What are the features of ALS?

A
  • LMN: weakness, wasting and fasciculation

- UMN: stiffness (spasticity), brisk reflexes

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40
Q

What’s the prognosis of MND?

A

50% dead within 30 months

80% dead within 5 years

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41
Q

What’s seen in MND biopsies?

A

Ubiquinated inclusions (e,g TDP-43)
Skein-like inclusion
Bunina Bodies
Dystrophic neurites

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42
Q

What’s the inheritance of MND?

A

90% not inherited
5-10% autosomal dominant

Mutations in C9orf72 explain 40% of cases of familial ALS-FTD (frontotemporal dementia)

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43
Q

What are the treatments for MND?

A
  • Emotionality (amytriptiline)
  • Cramps (baclofen, physio)
  • Secretions (hyoscine, BoTox)
  • Sleep disturbance (NIV)
  • Depression and anxiety (supportive care, antidepressants)
44
Q

What’s the name for a head tremor?

A

titubation

45
Q

What are the features of an essential tremor?

A
  • postural tremor: worse if arms outstretched
  • improved by alcohol and rest
  • most common cause of titubation (head tremor)
46
Q

What’s the management of an essential tremor?

A
  • propranolol is first-line

- primidone is sometimes used

47
Q

Which drugs can cause ataxia?

A
  • carbamazepine
  • phenytoin
  • sodium valproate
48
Q

What are the features of NF1?

A
  • Café-au-lait spots (>= 6, 15 mm in diameter)
  • Axillary/groin freckles
  • Peripheral neurofibromas
  • Iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules) in > 90%
  • Scoliosis
  • Pheochromocytomas
49
Q

What are the features of NF2?

A
  • Bilateral vestibular schwannomas

- Multiple intracranial schwannomas, mengiomas and ependymomas

50
Q

What is NF1 also known as? Which chromosome is the gene on and how many are affected?

A

Recklinghausen’s syndrome
chromosome 17
1 in 4,000

51
Q

Which chromosome is affected by NF2? What’s the incidence?

A

Chromosome 22 and affects around 1 in 100,000

52
Q

What are the features of tuberous sclerosis?

A

Cutaneous features
- depigmented ‘ash-leaf’ spots which fluoresce under UV light
- roughened patches of skin over lumbar spine
(Shagreen patches)
- adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas): butterfly distribution over nose
- fibromata beneath nails (subungual fibromata)
- café-au-lait spots* may be seen but more common in NF1

Neurological features

  • developmental delay
  • epilepsy (infantile spasms or partial)
  • intellectual impairment

Also

  • retinal hamartomas: dense white areas on retina (phakomata)
  • rhabdomyomas of the heart
  • gliomatous changes can occur in the brain lesions
  • polycystic kidneys, renal angiomyolipomata
  • lymphangioleiomyomatosis: multiple lung cysts
53
Q

What type of drug is memantine?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

54
Q

What’s the mechanism of phenytoin?

A

binds to sodium channels increasing their refractory period

55
Q

What is the treatment of choice for restless legs syndrome?

A
  • simple measures: walking, stretching, massaging affected limbs
  • treat any iron deficiency
  • dopamine agonists are first-line treatment (e.g. Pramipexole, ropinirole)
  • benzodiazepines
  • gabapentin
56
Q

What are the causes and associations of restless leg syndrome?

A
  • there is a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS
  • iron deficiency anaemia
  • uraemia
  • diabetes mellitus
  • pregnancy
57
Q

What is the treatment of choice for neuropathic pain (not diabetic)?

A

Amitriptyline or duloxetine or gabapentin or pregabalin

58
Q

What’s Todd’s paresis and which patients are most likely to experience it?

A

Patients with focal seizures may experience post-ictal weakness (Todd’s paresis)

59
Q

What are the features of temporal lobe epilepsy?

A

Hallucinations (auditory/gustatory/olfactory)
Epigastric rising/Emotional
Automatisms (lip smacking/grabbing)
Deja vu/Dysphasia post-ictal

60
Q

What are the features of frontal lobe epilepsy?

A

Head/leg movements , posturing, post-ictal weakness

61
Q

What are the features of parietal lobe epilepsy?

A

Paraesthesia

62
Q

What are the features of occipital lobe epilepsy?

A

Floaters/flashes

63
Q

How do you treat cluster headaches?

A
  • acute: 100% oxygen (80% response rate within 15 minutes), subcutaneous triptan (75% response rate within 15 minutes)
  • prophylaxis: verapamil is the drug of choice. There is also some evidence to support a tapering dose of prednisolone
  • NICE recommend seeking specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging
64
Q

What drugs are used to treat lewy body dementia?

A

Both acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. donepezil, rivastigmine) and memantine can be used as they are in Alzheimer’s.

65
Q

In LEMS what auto antibodies might you see?

A

Voltage-gated calcium-channel antibodies

66
Q

What is the grading scale for muscle strength?

A

Grade 0 No muscle movement
Grade 1 Trace of contraction
Grade 2 Movement at the joint with gravity eliminated
Grade 3 Movement against gravity, but not against added resistance
Grade 4 Movement against an external resistance with reduced strength
Grade 5 Normal strength

67
Q

What are the conditions that make up peripheral neuropathy?

A

Predominately motor loss

  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • porphyria
  • lead poisoning
  • hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) - Charcot-Marie-Tooth
  • chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP)
  • diphtheria

Predominately sensory loss

  • diabetes
  • uraemia
  • leprosy
  • alcoholism
  • vitamin B12 deficiency
  • amyloidosis
68
Q

What’s the pathogenesis of Guillain Barre syndrome?

A
  • cross reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system
  • correlation between anti-ganglioside antibody (e.g. anti-GM1) and clinical features has been demonstrated
  • anti-GM1 antibodies in 25% of patients
69
Q

What is Miller Fisher syndrome?

A
  • variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • associated with ophthalmoplegia, areflexia and ataxia. The eye muscles are typically affected first
  • usually presents as a descending paralysis rather than ascending as seen in other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases
70
Q

How do you manage normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A
  • ventriculoperitoneal shunting
  • around 10% of patients who have shunts experience significant complications such as seizures, infection and intracerebral haemorrhages
71
Q

What is the most common long-term complication of meningitis?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

  • other neurological: epilepsy, paralysis
  • infective: sepsis, intracerebral abscess
  • pressure: brain herniation, hydrocephalus

Most common adult cause (mortality)

  • meningococcus (10%)
  • pneumococcus (25%)
72
Q

What are the risk factors for IIH?

A
  • obesity
  • female sex
  • pregnancy
  • drugs*: oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracycline, vitamin A, lithium

*if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known causes (e.g. Medication) then it is of course not idiopathic

73
Q

How do you manage IIH?

A
  • weight loss
  • diuretics e.g. acetazolamide
  • topiramate is also used, and has the added benefit of causing weight loss in most patients
  • repeated lumbar puncture
  • surgery: optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration may be needed to prevent damage to the optic nerve. A lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt may also be performed to reduce intracranial pressure
74
Q

Loss of corneal reflex with with dizziness and right-sided hearing loss. Diagnosis and investigation of choice?

A

Acoustic neuroma, MRI of the cerebellopontine angle

75
Q

What is the medical management in an acute myasthenic crisis?

A

Plasmapheresis and intravenous immunoglobulin

76
Q

What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Dantrolene and lorazepam

77
Q

What investigations are done for myasthenia gravis?

A
  • single fibre electromyography: high sensitivity (92-100%)
  • CT thorax to exclude thymoma
  • CK normal
  • autoantibodies: around 85-90% of patients have antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. In the remaining patients, about about 40% are positive for anti-muscle-specific tyrosine kinase antibodies
  • Tensilon test: IV edrophonium reduces muscle weakness temporarily - not commonly used anymore due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmia
78
Q

How do you manage MG?

A
  • long-acting anticholinesterase inhibitors e.g. pyridostigmine
  • immunosuppression: prednisolone initially
  • thymectomy
79
Q

Is a CT or MRI scan more sensitive for posterior fossa pathology?

80
Q

Which of the following conditions should be included in your differential diagnosis of vertigo?

A
  • Labyrinthitis
  • Vestibular neuronitis
  • BPPV
  • lateral medullary syndrome
81
Q

In what proportion of cases is CT negative for SAH?

82
Q

Once you have a diagnosis of SAH what do you do?

A
  • CT intracranial angiogram (to identify a vascular lesion e.g. aneurysm or AVM)
  • +/- digital subtraction angiogram (catheter angiogram)
83
Q

How do you treat a SAH?

A
  • The treatment in spontaneous SAH is in accordance with the causative pathology
  • Most intracranial aneurysms are now treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but a minority require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon
  • Until the aneurysm is treated, the patient should be kept on strict bed rest, well controlled blood pressure and should avoid straining in order to prevent a re-bleed of the aneurysm
  • Vasospasm is prevented using a 21-day course of nimodipine (a calcium channel inhibitor targeting the brain vasculature) and treated with hypervolaemia, induced-hypertension and haemodilution**
  • Hydrocephalus is temporarily treated with an external ventricular drain (CSF diverted into a bag at the bedside) or, if required, a long-term ventriculo-peritoneal shunt
84
Q

What are the complicstions of aneurysmal SAH?

A
  • Re-bleeding (in around 30%)
  • Vasospasm (also termed delayed cerebral ischaemia), typically 7-14 days after onset
  • Hyponatraemia (most typically due to syndrome inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone (SIADH))
  • Seizures
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Death
85
Q

What are the predictive factors in SAH?

A
  • conscious level on admission
  • age
  • amount of blood visible on CT head
86
Q

What’s the cushings reflex?

A
  • hypertension

- bradycardia

87
Q

What’s the typical finding of an infant with hydrocephalus?

A
  • increasing head circumference
  • bulging fontanelle
  • sunsetting of eyes caused by pressure on the tectal plate (impaired upward gaze)
  • dilated scalp veins
  • bradycardia
  • seizuers
  • coma
88
Q

How would you investigate hydrocephalus?

A
  • CT head is used as a first line imaging investigation since it is fast and shows adequate resolution of the brain and ventricles
  • MRI may be used to investigate hydrocephalus in more detail, particularly if there is a suspected underlying lesion
  • Lumbar puncture* is both diagnostic and therapeutic since it allows you to sample CSF, measure the opening pressure, but also to drain CSF to reduce the pressure

*Lumbar puncture must not be used in obstructive hydrocephalus since the difference of cranial and spinal pressures induced by the drainage of CSF will cause brain herniation.

89
Q

How do you treat hydrocephalus?

A
  • An external ventricular drain (EVD) is used in acute, severe hydrocephalus and is typically inserted into the right lateral ventricle and drains into a bag at the bedside
  • A ventriculoperitoneal shunt (VPS) is a long-term CSF diversion technique that drains CSF from the ventricles to the peritoneum
  • In obstructive hydrocephalus, the treatment may involve surgically treating the obstructing pathology
90
Q

What does EVD stand for?

A

External ventricular drain

91
Q

What does VPS stand for?

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

92
Q

What’s a subfalcine herniation?

A

When the cingulate gyrus herniates under the falx cerebri

93
Q

What’s the term to describe the brain herniating through an open skull fracture?

A

Transcalvarial herniation

94
Q

How would sheehan’s syndrome look on CT?

A

Acute: CT scan findings in case of acute presentation of Sheehan’s syndrome may show non-hemorrhagic pituitary gland enlargement

Chronic: may show an empty sella or decreased sellar volume.

95
Q

Give examples of neuropathic pain

A
  • diabetic neuropathy
  • post-herpetic neuralgia
  • trigeminal neuralgia
  • prolapsed intervertebral disc
96
Q

What are the features of multiple system atrophy?

A
  • atonic bladder
  • postural hypotension
  • erectile dysfunction
  • ataxia
  • slurred speech
  • parkinsons symptoms
97
Q

Which things would indicate MSA rather than Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • rapid progression of symptoms
  • they’ve experienced falls early on
  • don’t respond to levodopa
  • speech severely affected
  • breath nosily
98
Q

Give examples of parkinson plus syndromes

A

Multiple system atrophy (MSA)
Progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)
Corticobasal degeneration (CBD)

99
Q

Which features would suggest Parkinson-plus syndromes rather than idiopathic PD?

A
  • a lack of or irregular resting tremor
  • a reduced response to dopaminergic drugs
  • early-onset postural instability
  • increased rigidity in axial muscles
  • dysautonomia
  • alien limb syndrome
  • supranuclear gaze palsy
  • apraxia
  • involvement of the cerebellum
100
Q

What are the features of PSP?

A
  • Supranuclear ophthalmoplegia
  • Neck dystonia
  • Parkinsonism
  • Pseudobulbar palsy
  • Behavioral and cognitive impairment
  • Imbalance and walking difficulty
  • Frequent falls
101
Q

What are the causes of a bilateral facial nerve palsy?

A
  • sarcoidosis
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • Lyme disease
  • bilateral acoustic neuromas (as in neurofibromatosis type 2)
  • as Bell’s palsy is relatively common it accounts for up to 25% of cases f bilateral palsy, but this represents only 1% of total Bell’s palsy cases
102
Q

What are the causes of a unilateral facial nerve palsy?

A

In addition to all the things that cause bilateral palsy:

  • Bell’s palsy
  • Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (due to herpes zoster)
  • acoustic neuroma
  • parotid tumours
  • HIV
  • multiple sclerosis*
  • diabetes mellitus
  • stroke (upper motor neuron)
103
Q

What investigations would you do after a stroke?

A
  • CT head
  • carotid dopplers
  • lipid profile
  • fasting glucose
104
Q

What artery supplies the thalamus?

A

Posterior cerebral, thalamogeniculate
Middle cerebral, lenticulostriate
Anterior cerebral, penetrating arteries
Anterior choroidal

105
Q

Which scale is used to assess the degree of dependence following a stroke?

A

Modified Rankin scale

106
Q

Which scale determines if you need thrombolysis?

A

National Institute of health stroke scale

107
Q

What does the basilar artery supply?

A

Pons

Inferior and superior aspect of the cerebellum