Neuro 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what area of the brain is involved with comprehension and understanding of speech? where in the brain is this? what is its main blood supply?

A

Wernicke’s area.
superior temporal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere.
middle cerebral artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what area of the brain is involved with the production of speech? where in the brain is this? what is its main blood supply?

A

Broca’s area.
frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere.
middle cerebral artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what would be the clinical features of a brainstem infarct?

A

quadriplegia, disturbances of gaze and vision, locked-in syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 5 different syndromes produced by lacunar infarcts?

A

ataxic hemiparesis, pure motor, pure sensory, sensorimotor, dysarthria/clumsy hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

if a patient presented with vertigo, headache, ataxia and vomiting, what structure has been affected and what vessel has caused it?

A

cerebellar syndrome - due to occlusion of superior, anterior inferior or posterior inferior cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what rheumatological disease is giant cell arteritis associated with?

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe the 3 main clinical features of giant cell arteritis, and what causes them

A

headache - inflamed superficial temporal/occipital artery that hurts to touch and can become tortuous and thickened (I can’t even comb my hair!)
facial pain - inflammation of facial maxillary and lingual branches of external carotid artery, worse on eating (jaw claudication) - I can’t eat steak anymore!
visual disturbance - arterial inflammation and occlusion causing monocular painless visual loss (amaurosis fugax).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the risk if treatment of giant cell arteritis is delayed?

A

irreversible bilateral visual loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how would you diagnose giant cell arteritis? what should be done first?

A

raised ESR/CRP.

temporal artery biopsy - start steroids first!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how would you treat giant cell arteritis?

A

immediate high dose oral prednisolone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

in Brown-Sequard syndrome, there is a hemisection of the spinal cord, on what side is there a loss of proprioception, vibration, power, pain and temperature?

A

contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

ipsilateral loss of proprioception, vibration and power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the genetic basis of Huntington’s chorea? how many repeats may a patient have before they develop Huntington’s?

A

expansion of CAG repeat on chromosome 4 - overexpression of the huntingtin gene.

> 27 repeats is abnormal.
40 almost definitely will get Huntington’s.
the more repeats, the worse the symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is giant cell arteritis?

A

systemic immune mediated vasculitis affecting medium and large sized arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what 3 clinical features make up Cushing’s triad of signs of raised ICP?

A

irregular resps.
bradycardia.
hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the likely cause of bleeds in the basal ganglia, pons and/or cerebellum?

A

Hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give 3 diseases that are associated with motor neurone damage.

A
  1. Motor neurone disease.
  2. Spinal atrophy.
  3. Poliomyelitis.
  4. Spinal cord compression.
17
Q

Give 3 pathologies that are associated with ventral spinal root damage.

A
  1. Tumours.
  2. Prolapsed intervertebral discs.
  3. Cervical/lumbar spondylosis (wear and tear).