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comptia a+ notes > Networking > Flashcards

Networking Flashcards

1
Q

is the unique identifier number for transmission control and direction.

A

A port

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2
Q

is a set of rules that govern communications.

A

A protocol

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3
Q

is used to manipulate files. can copy files, list and manipulate directories, and view file contents.

A

File transfer protocol FTP

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4
Q

FTP runs on ports

A

20
21

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5
Q

FTP Port 21 is mainly used for ______ and port 20 is used for _______

A

File management
Data transfer

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6
Q

FTP is not secure and transmits in plain text

A

True

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7
Q

is a connection-oriented protocol used to set up secure Telnet connections for remote logins.

A

Secure Shell (SSH)

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8
Q

SSH is secure and runs on port

A

22

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9
Q

is a terminal emulation program that allows for remote access to text on another computer.

A

Telnet

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10
Q

Telnet is not secure and transmits plaintext. Telnet uses port

A

23

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11
Q

is used to send email only and is a push protocol.

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

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12
Q

SMTP uses port

A

25

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13
Q

is used to resolve hostnames to IP addresses

A

Domain Name System (DNS)

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14
Q

Domain Name System (DNS) uses port

A

53

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15
Q

assigns IP addresses dynamically to network clients.

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

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16
Q

DHCP uses port ___for the server and port ___for the client.

A

67
68

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17
Q

manages communications between a web server and a client to view internet content.

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

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18
Q

HTTP is not secure and transmits in plain text. HTTP uses port

A

80

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19
Q

is used for downloading email.

A

Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3)

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20
Q

POP3 uses port

A

110

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21
Q

is an API for communication between computers over a network. _____ works over OSI layer 4 and needs to work with a layer 5 protocol, namely TCP/IP, to function properly.

A

Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS)

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22
Q

NetBIOS runs on ports

A

137
139

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23
Q

NetBIOS over TCP/IP is called

A

NetBT

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24
Q

is currently in its fourth version, or_____ and is used for downloading email.

A

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) or IMAP4

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25
Q

IMAP4 is secure and runs over port

A

143

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26
Q

is used for network management.

A

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

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27
Q

SNMP uses port ___for sending and receiving requests and port ___ for receiving transmissions from managed devices.

A

161
162

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28
Q

is used for accessing information stored in an information directory.

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

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29
Q

LDAP uses port

A

389

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30
Q

is the secure version of HTTP

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

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31
Q

HTTPS uses port

A

443

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32
Q

is primarily a Microsoft protocol used for shared file access. Common Internet File System (CIFS) is an enhanced version of ____

A

Server Message Block (SMB)/Common Internet File System (CIFS)

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33
Q

SMB/CIFS use port

A

445

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34
Q

allows for remote connection to computers.

A

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

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35
Q

RDP uses port

A

3389

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36
Q

is a connection-oriented protocol used to send and receive data over a network. Before data is sent, a connection is established with the receiving host. It is considered a reliable protocol because the receiving host acknowledges that it received the data. ____is used in cases where receiving the proper data is more important than speed.

A

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

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37
Q

is a connectionless protocol. Data is sent without any assurance that the receiving host is actually receiving the data. For that reason, it is considered an unreliable protocol. The advantage of ___over TCP is that it is faster.

A

User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

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38
Q

Connectionless protocols allow for data to flow without guaranteeing an established connection. This allows for faster data flow but does not guarantee reliable data flow. UDP is connectionless.

A

True

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39
Q

Connectionless protocols

A

DHCP—Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
TFTP—Trivial File Transfer Protocol

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40
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to dynamically assign IP configuration information to clients through a lease and uses UDP as its transport protocol. DHCP runs on port 67/68.

A

True

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41
Q

is a faster version of FTP that uses UDP rather than TCP as its transport protocol.

A

TFTP—Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

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42
Q

TFTP uses port

A

69

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43
Q

Connection-oriented communication establishes a set connection before data flow begins between two devices. TCP is connection-oriented.

A

True

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44
Q

Connection-oriented :

A

HTTPS—Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure
Secure Shell (SSH)

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45
Q

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is a connection-oriented protocol that uses TCP as its transport protocol. HTTPS uses port 443.

A

True

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46
Q

Secure Shell (SSH) is a connection-oriented protocol that uses TCP as its transport protocol. SSH uses port 22.

A

True

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47
Q

is a device that connects multiple network devices and determines the best path for reaching a specified device using routing tables.

A

A router

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48
Q

Routers are OSI Layer 3 devices and make decisions based on logical addresses. Key functions of a router include

A

connecting multiple network devices to one another, breaking up broadcast domains, and connecting one LAN to another LAN on a WAN.

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49
Q

is a device that works at OSI Layer 2, examines the header of incoming packets for the MAC address, and forwards the packet to the correct location. _____can be managed or unmanaged.

A

A switch

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50
Q

is one that allows for port configuration, traffic management, and traffic monitoring. offer quality of service (QoS), redundancy, port mirroring, and VLANs.

A

A managed switch

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51
Q

does not allow for configuration and passes on all data for a MAC address to its ports.

A

An unmanaged switch

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52
Q

is technically any device to which a host can connect in order to access a network. ________ include hubs and switches. However, the term usually refers to a wireless access point (WAP) that allows Wi-Fi devices to connect to a network.

A

Access point

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53
Q

is a dumb device that is essentially a large rack-mounted HUB whose sole purpose is to connect cables together.

A

Patch panel

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54
Q

A _______ is a device that broadcasts all data coming in through the input port out over all output ports. A ______ like a patch panel, makes no logical decisions and simply serves as a connection and relay point.

A

Dumb device

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55
Q

is a security appliance, either hardware or software, that filters network traffic based on a preconfigured set of rules.

A

Firewall

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56
Q

is a technology that delivers power to devices over data lines, such as an ethernet cable, rather than having a separate power cord.

A

Power over Ethernet (PoE)

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57
Q

is a midspan device that sits between the switch and the access point and supplies power via an ethernet connection.

A

Injector

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58
Q

sits in front of the midspan injector device and provides power to the ethernet cable.

A

Switch

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59
Q

PoE standards are the IEEE 802.3 standards that define PoE specifications.

A

True

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60
Q

PoE- 802.3af-15.4 W—WAPs, static surveillance cameras, VoIP phones

A

True

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61
Q

PoE+- 802.3at-30W—alarm systems, PTZ cameras, video IP phones

A

True

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62
Q

PoE++- 802.3bt (Type 3)-60 W—multi-radio WAPs, video conferencing equipment

A

True

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63
Q

PoE++- 802.3bt (Type 4)-100 W—laptops, flat-screen monitors

A

True

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64
Q

PoE-

A

802.3af-15.4 W—WAPs, static surveillance cameras, VoIP phones

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65
Q

PoE+-

A

802.3at-30W—alarm systems, PTZ cameras, video IP phones

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66
Q

PoE++-

A

802.3bt (Type 3)-60 W—multi-radio WAPs, video conferencing equipment

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67
Q

PoE++-

A

802.3bt (Type 4)-100 W—laptops, flat-screen monitors

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68
Q

is a dumb Layer 1 device that sends all incoming data to all connected devices as a broadcast. are also known as multiport repeaters.

A

Hub

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69
Q

is a device that connects to a cable line to provide connectivity. A ______is technically no longer a modem, however, since it does not modulate and demodulate analog signals.

A

Cable modem

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70
Q

provides connectivity via a telephone line.

A

Digital subscriber line (DSL)

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71
Q

is one that provides connectivity via a fiber-optic line.

A

Optical Network Terminal (ONT)

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72
Q

also known as a network adapter card, is used to provide the physical interface between a computer and the cabling used for connectivity.

A

Network interface card (NIC)

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73
Q

sets up a network virtually via the cloud. The _____replaces the functionality of the router in a network.

A

Software-Defined Networking (SDN)

74
Q

The two operating frequencies for Wi-Fi are ____ and _____. The frequency has an impact on transmission range and data throughput.

A

2.4 GHz
5 GHz

75
Q

This relatively low frequency (compared with 5 GHz) has a greater transmission range because it passes through objects such as walls and floors better. On the negative side, throughput is slower and it is an open frequency range that other devices use. Devices like cordless phones and microwave ovens can interfere with it.

A

2.4 GHz

76
Q

At this higher frequency, throughput is faster. On the negative side, the transmission range is shorter as the signal is attenuated by objects such as walls and floors.

A

5 GHz

77
Q

are different frequencies that are used for communications between the end-user device and the wireless access point.

A

Channels

78
Q

The _____ has 14 channels, but the top three cannot be used in North America, so the U.S. has 11 available channels. Devices will automatically select a channel, but if there seems to be interference, we can manually select another channel.

A

2.4 GHz range

79
Q

The ______ also has channels, but there is more room in the RF spectrum at that range, so we never have to set those channels.

A

5 GHz range

80
Q

The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has defined 14 different 22 MHz communications channels but only allows for the use of the first 11 channels.

A

True

81
Q

There are 25 defined 20 MHz channels at _____, 24 of which can be used for Wi-Fi communications,

A

5 GHz

82
Q

only has 14 defined channels, 11 of which can be used.

A

2.4 GHz

83
Q

allows devices to communicate over short distances (10 meters) in a personal area network (PAN). It is typically used to connect peripherals, such as headphones, to a laptop or smartphone. It is the IEEE 802.15.1 standard.

A

Bluetooth

84
Q

is part of the IEEE 802 wireless networking standards. It is used for Wi-Fi communications. They all use the ethernet protocol and carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) media access method. The main characteristics that differentiate them are their operating frequencies, theoretical maximum data speed, and throughput.

A

802.11

85
Q

802.11a specs

A

5 GHz frequency, 54 Mbps maximum throughput, 120 meters range

86
Q

802.11b specs

A

2.4 GHz frequency, 11 Mbps maximum throughput, 140 meters range

87
Q

802.11g specs

A

2.4 GHz frequency, 54 Mbps maximum throughput, 140 meters range

88
Q

802.11n specs

A

5/2.4 GHz frequency, 600 Mbps maximum throughput, 250 meters range

89
Q

802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5)

A

5 GHz frequency, 6.5 Gbps maximum throughput, 140 meters range

90
Q

802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6)

A

5/2.4 GHz frequency, 9.6 Gbps maximum throughput, 140 meters range

91
Q

wireless connection is a point-to-point wireless technology that employs the use of directional antennas to send and receive network signals usually from 10 to 20 km.

A

Long-range fixed

92
Q

frequencies are frequencies whose use is granted by the FCC in the US.

A

Licensed

93
Q

frequencies are frequencies that can be used by anyone, such as 2.4 and 5 GHz. The common use of these frequencies, however, often causes interference and can create susceptibility to eavesdropping.

A

Unlicensed

94
Q

can be transmitted via long-range fixed wireless and is commonly known as

A

wireless power transfer (WPT)

95
Q

Regulatory Requirements for Wireless Power

WPT technology is regulated by the FCC in the US.

A

True

96
Q

has a very short range of a few inches. It is used for contactless communications between devices that are right next to one another. The most common use today is for contactless payment systems.

A

NFC

97
Q

uses a radio signal to send information from an _____ tag with identifying information. This is commonly used to streamline the inventory of tracking applications.

A

Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID)

98
Q

request services from a server application.

A

Client applications

99
Q

A server is not necessarily a stand-alone piece of hardware. A server is usually a process running in memory on a networked system that responds to requests from a remote client system.

A

True

100
Q

Two public DNS servers are needed for an enterprise to host a website, with one DNS server acting as redundancy.

A

True

101
Q

Records of hostname IP address sets are held in a zone file. If the DNS address is not located in the zone file, it requests the information from a higher-level DNS server called the

A

Root server

102
Q

servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses.

A

Domain name system (DNS)

103
Q

server provides IP configuration information, such as an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server address, automatically to clients.

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server

104
Q

The scope of a DHCP server contains the information that is permitted to be shared with a client.

A

True

105
Q

is a central repository for the storage, management, and access of network files. A network can also use network-attached storage (NAS) for a _____

A

A fileshare or file server

106
Q

is a server that manages print requests and connects printers to a network.

A

Print server

107
Q

is responsible for sending, receiving, and managing emails. A mail server must be running a specialized server package, such as Microsoft Exchange, Sendmail, Postfix, or Exim, to be considered a _____

A

Mail server

108
Q

in a client-server model is responsible for collecting information obtained through system monitoring, such as login events or errors. Messages compiled in a ______server include the facility code, the severity level, and a textual description of the logged events.

A

Syslog server

109
Q

Syslog servers are composed of three primary components:

A

the listener, the database, and the management and filtering software.

110
Q

listens for incoming requests. The requests are executed by the _______ and provide the requested content, including text, images, videos, and the running of scripts. Common ________ platforms include Microsoft’s Internet Information Services (IIS) and Apache.

A

Web server

111
Q

server is an access control server that acts as a gatekeeper for critical network components.

A

authentication, authorization, and accounting (triple A or AAA) server

112
Q

AAA servers are also known as

A

Domain controllers

113
Q

Examples of AAA servers include

A

remote access service (RAS), Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+), and Kerberos.

114
Q

is a device that aids in internet access and helps users access the internet safely.

A

Internet appliance

115
Q

also known as an antispam gateway, is an internet appliance whose purpose is to block malicious emails from accessing the network.

A

A spam gateway

116
Q

acts to centralize security management on a network.

A

Unified Threat Management (UTM)

117
Q

UTM typically provides packeting filtering and inspection, IPS, gateway antimalware, spam blocking, malicious website blocking, and application control.

A

True

118
Q

is responsible for evenly distributing requests over servers to balance the system.

A

A load balancer

119
Q

Common load balancing configurations include identical, cross-region, and content-based load balancing.

A

True

120
Q

makes requests for resources on behalf of a client. The ______ acts as an intermediary between the client and the target server.

A

Proxy server

121
Q

are older systems that for one reason or another have not been updated. It is usually due to essential applications that will not run on the updated platform.

A

Legacy systems

122
Q

are devices other than computers that have computer technology running within. Like legacy systems, these may not be able to stay updated.

A

Embedded systems

123
Q

is an example of a critical legacy system category. A _____system is a high-level management system used to control manufacturing machines and processes, manage large-scale infrastructure settings, and run building components.

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA)

124
Q

device connects to the network through a central controller or coordinating device. Common examples of ____ devices include smart devices such as thermostats and home automation and security devices.

A

Internet of things (IoT)

125
Q

When setting up a small office/home office (SOHO) network, keep the following steps in mind:

A
  • Understand relevant regulations.
  • Make a map.
  • Locate the server(s).
  • Identify client computer locations.
  • Locate network resources.
  • Determine user connectivity type.
  • Designate additional connectivity options if needed.
126
Q

is the assignment of a unique device identifier on a local network or the internet. The IP address is responsible for managing logical network addresses.

A

Internet protocol (IP) addressing

127
Q

is a 32-bit hierarchical address that identifies a host on a network and is typically written in dotted-decimal notation. The 32-bit address is divided into 4 bytes, or octets, containing 8 bits each (ex: 192.168.10.55).

A

An IPv4 address

128
Q

IPv4 addresses are divided into designated classes, A, B, C, D, E, and F, based on the first 3 bits of the IP address. IPv4 addresses are finite and are running out.

A

True

129
Q

is not routable on the internet.

A

A private IP address

130
Q

Class __ private address range: 10.0.0.0–10.255.255.255

A

A

131
Q

Class __private address range: 172.16.0.0–172.31.255.255

A

B

132
Q

Class __private address range: 192.168.0.0.–192.168.255.255

A

C

133
Q

are routable on the internet. Public addresses are purchased and only one computer can hold any given _______ at a time.

A

Public addresses

134
Q

are 128-bit addresses expressed in hexadecimal notation and are composed of eight 16-bit fields separated by colons

A

IPv6 address

135
Q

2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab, which can be reduced to

A

2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab

136
Q

assigns an IP address to a device that was not assigned a static or dynamic IP address. The address will be in the 169.254.0.0 network.

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)

137
Q

This is generally not useful, other than being an indication that the device failed to get an IP address through normal means. These addresses are also referred to as link-local addresses.

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)

138
Q

is one that is set manually by a user or administrator. A device that is assigned a _______ will keep that address until someone changes the configuration.

A

A static address

139
Q

is one that is automatically assigned, typically by a router or DHCP server. The next time a device that was dynamically assigned an IP address joins the network, it may be assigned a different IP address.

A

A dynamic address

140
Q

is a router that connects your network to another network, typically the Internet. When configuring a device on the network, you specify the internal IP address of the _____ as a default destination to send traffic.

A

Gateway

141
Q

The domain name system (DNS) has only one function:

A

to resolve hostnames to IP addresses.

142
Q

are usually given out via DHCP along with IP address information, but this can be done manually as well. This allows the user (client) to resolve domain names to IP addresses in order to perform searches or lookups. These are usually given out in a primary and secondary fashion for redundancy purposes.

A

DNS settings

143
Q

Addresses are contained on the DNS server in

A

Zone files

144
Q

maintains records of hostname-to-IP address mappings and contains information such as the name of the server or computer, internet protocol address, record type, computer address, and comments.

A

The zone file

145
Q

is a common DNS record type that signifies that the host record is an IPv4 address.

A

A

146
Q

is a common DNS record type that signifies the host record is an IPv6 address.

A

AAAA, pronounced “quad A”

147
Q

is a common DNS record type that signifies that the host record is the name or address of an email server.

A

Mail exchanger (MX)

148
Q

is a common DNS record type that signifies that the host record is a text record for human-readable or machine-readable data.

A

Text (TXT) record

149
Q

is the process of determining if data is spam or valid.
DKIM—DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) is a type of spam management that authenticates using encryption through a public-private key pair.

A

Spam management

150
Q

is a type of spam management that authenticates an email server based on its IP address.

A

Sender Policy Framework (SPF)

151
Q

is a type of spam management that combines DKIM and SPF in one framework and offers more control over what the user can do with spam email.

A

Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance (DMARC)

152
Q

automatically assigns all of the settings needed to access resources on your LAN or the internet. It can provide IP address, subnet, gateway, and DNS information. If you want to ensure that a device gets a specific IP address, you can configure a DHCP reservation in the DHCP server.

A

The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

153
Q

is a temporary IP configuration assigned by the DHCP server to a client. A ____ typically includes an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server address.

A

A lease

154
Q

is the reserving of an IP address for a specific client based on the client’s MAC address and is primarily used for devices that require a static IP address.

A

A reservation

155
Q

is information provided outside the IP address and the subnet mask issued by the DHCP server, such as the default gateway, DNS server address, or domain name.

A

The scope

156
Q

is a logical subnet, typically configured on a switch, that acts as a separate subnet.

A

virtual local area network (VLAN)

157
Q

Without VLANs, every device connected to a switch would be on the same subnet. By configuring VLANs on the switch, you can have devices on that one switch in different subnets or VLANs.

A

True

158
Q

is an encrypted connection between two networks or between a host and a network. When a host connects to a network over a _____, it is assigned a separate IP address that is in the network’s address range.

A

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

159
Q

is a wireless connection type that employs the use of satellites to achieve connectivity. are typically slower than wired broadband connections and require a satellite dish. Weather and misalignment can affect connectivity.

A

Satellite

160
Q

is a type of wired connection that uses a fiber-optic cable made of thin flexible glass or plastic fiber surrounded by a rubberized outer sheath to send data via light signals. offers fast data transmission.

A

Fiber

161
Q

There are two types of fiber varieties:

A

single-mode fiber (SMF) and multimode fiber (MMF).

162
Q

is a type of wired connection that uses a cable, either coaxial/coax or twisted pair, for data transmission. Coax and twisted pair cables use different connector types and cable specifications.

A

Cable connection

163
Q

is a type of wired connection that uses existing phone lines paired with a DSL modem to provide internet service.

A

A digital subscriber line (DSL)

164
Q

is a type of wireless connection type that uses a provider’s cellular network for connectivity.

A

Cellular

165
Q

is a wireless connection type in which an internet service provider (ISP) offers connectivity using wireless technology. _____ connections are fixed point-to-point connections.

A

A wireless internet service provider (WISP)

166
Q

Network types define the general area that is covered by a network.

A

True

167
Q

is a collection of devices connected to one another in one physical area, such as an office building, and can be small or large.

A

Local Area network (LAN)

168
Q

is a network that covers a large geographical area and is composed of multiple LANs. The internet is a

A

Wide area network (WAN)

169
Q

is composed of primarily Bluetooth-connected devices.

A

Personal area network (PAN)

170
Q

is a network larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN and limited to a smaller geographical area, such as a city or a campus.

A

Metropolitan area network (MAN)

171
Q

is a network area composed of storage devices.

A

Storage area network (SAN)

172
Q

is a LAN in which the connections are wireless rather than wired.

A

Wireless local area network (WLAN)

173
Q

is used to connect a connector to a cable. It is not usually practical to use cables of a fixed length. It is also easier to run cable without the connectors on it. So, the cable is run and cut to the desired length, and then the connector is crimped on using a

A

Crimper

174
Q

There are different types of crimpers for ethernet, coaxial, and fiber-optic cables.

A

True

175
Q

are used to remove the insulation from the end of a cable before the connector is crimped onto it.

A

Cable stripper

176
Q

used to design, optimize, or troubleshoot a Wi-Fi network. This device is used to show strong and weak spots in wireless coverage. It is a way to visualize Wi-Fi network coverage.

A

Wifi analyzer

177
Q

are used to locate cables in a wiring closet. The tone generator is typically placed at the user end, and a probe is waved around in the wiring closet to locate the connection. It will make a distinctive noise when it is near the correct cable.

A

Toner probe

178
Q

is used to connect the exposed ends of a wire into a wiring harness

A

Punchdown tool

179
Q

is used to certify that the cable meets the standards of the wiring code and to ensure it can be used for communication. It will identify broken wires or missing pin connections.

A

Cable tester

180
Q

is a special cable that is wired to transmit and receive on a single connector.

A

Loopback plug

181
Q

There are loopback plugs for different types of connectors, like USB or ethernet, for testing network interface cards (NICs).

A

True

182
Q

is a hardware device that creates a copy of network traffic for use by monitoring devices without interfering with network traffic. A _____ can be easily moved from location to location to identify problems.

A

network test access port (TAP)

comptia a+ notes (5 decks)

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