Network Security Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of firewall initiates a new connection on behalf of the client and presents its own IP to the server when a client initiates a connection to a server?

A

Circuit level

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2
Q

Which feature of a firewall allows an organization to use private non-routable networks while enabling communication to the internet?

A

Port Address Translation (PAT)

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3
Q

What is the meaning of “state” when referring to stateful inspection in firewalls?

A

It refers to the connection state of a conversation between two computers.

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4
Q

What can a user install to detect malicious software?

A

Antivirus

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5
Q

Which feature of a network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) uses a lists of known bad IP addresses to protect the network?

A

Reputation-based prevention

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6
Q

A company provides access to employees’ tax and personal information via a public-facing web portal.

What should the company implement to encrypt employees’ web access to this information?

A

Transport layer security (TLS)

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7
Q

Which attack tricks a client into mapping an IP address to a spoofed MAC address?

A

ARP spoofing

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8
Q

Which type of port has access to all VLANs by default in a traditional layer 2 switch?

A

Trunk

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9
Q

Which cloud feature is used to prevent data loss and provide for data retrieval in the event of a disaster?

A

Data backups and archives

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10
Q

Which cloud-hosting model provides exclusive cloud access for a single company?

A

Private

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11
Q

What should a cloud provider use to secure data in flight?

A

Private key encryption

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12
Q

Which type of wireless security protocol is the most secure?

A

WPA2 + AES

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13
Q

Which statement is true when comparing AES encryption to Triple DES (3DES)?

A

AES requires less CPU utilization and uses a larger block size than 3DES.

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14
Q

What is the best defense against fake access attacks?

A

Never use unsecured Wi-Fi hotspots.

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15
Q

Which type of firewall technology reads and analyzes the actual content of a message before forwarding to its destination?

A

Proxy servers

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16
Q

An organization’s IT department is concerned that malicious insiders may be using elevated access rights.

Which security control can be used to draw attacks away from critical systems?

A

Honeypots

17
Q

Which network device is usually placed in-line between a trusted network and an untrusted network?

A

Firewall

18
Q

What is end-to-end encryption?

A

Data is encrypted on the sender’s system and only the recipient is able to decrypt it.

19
Q

Which phrase describes unencrypted data?

A

In the clear

20
Q

An adminstrator fails to configure protection for usernames and passwords transmitted across the network.

Which component of the AAA model is weakened?

A

Authentication

21
Q

A user is mistakenly granted access to customer accounts not required for his duties.

Which component of the AAA model is violated?

A

Authorization

22
Q

What device creates an array of MAC addresses and functions on the Data Link layer?

A

Switch

23
Q

What device connects 2 or more networks, but does not analyze the information? On Layer 2.

A

Bridge

24
Q

What device takes packets from the router and sends it to devices on network?

A

Hub

25
Q

What layer of the OSI model does the router function on?

A

Layer 3/ Network

26
Q

What layer of the OSI model does the modem function on?

A

Physical/Layer 1

27
Q

Describe the speed and distance of Cat5 cables.

A

100 mpbs/ 100 meters

28
Q

Describe the speed and distance of Cat5e cables.

A

Double twisted pairs. 1 gps over 100 meters. Used for switch/hub/router

29
Q

What are Cat6 cables used for?

A

Ethernet LANs and Data centers

30
Q

How many tightly woven pairs are in Cat6 cables?

A

4

31
Q

What is the speed and distance of Cat6 cables?

A

1 gps/100 meters.

32
Q

what does the traceroute or tracert command do?

A

traces the route an IP packet takes to the destination.

33
Q

What command is tracepath similar to?

A

tracert

34
Q

What command provides user w/ the IP, subnet mask and default gateway?

A

ipconfig