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Network And Security Foundations. > Network Security Foundations > Flashcards

Network Security Foundations Flashcards

1
Q

Is this TCP/IP or OSI?

Application Layer: This layer is responsible for the communication protocols between nodes. The protocols in this layer include hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP and HTTPS), Secure Shell (SSH), and network time protocol (NTP), among many others.
Transport Layer: This layer is responsible for the end-to-end transport of data. The protocols that live in this layer are transmission control protocol (TCP) and user datagram protocol (UDP).
Network Layer: This layer defines the logical transmission protocols for the whole network. The main protocols that live in this layer are internet protocol (IP), internet control message protocol (ICMP), and address resolution protocol (ARP).
Network Interface Layer: This layer establishes how data should be physically sent through the network.

A

TCP/IP

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2
Q

Application Layer.

Transport Layer.

Network Layer.

Network Interface Layer.

Which is this, OSI or TCP/IP?

A

TCP/IP

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3
Q

The ……. ? model is used for practical application when locating specific protocol.

A

TCP/IP

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4
Q

The #1……..? model was developed by the International Standards Organization (ISO) after the #2…….? model to provide greater granularity of networking assignments within the model.

A

1. OSI

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5
Q

OSI stands for what?

A

Open System Interconnection model.

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6
Q

Which computer/internet protocol uses seven layers?

A

OSI (Open System Interconnection)

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7
Q

The ……..? model consists of a seven-layer architecture that organizes the sending of data from hosts across a network.

A

OSI (Open System Interconnection)

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8
Q

The …… is widely used throughout networking documentation and discussions. Layers are often referred to by number, not name, so memorizing the numbers and having a good understanding of each layer’s uses are essential for success in the IT community.

A

OSI model

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9
Q

Example:
Receives the frames and data and sends them via the local media (copper wires, fiber-optic cables, etc.) to the switches, routers, etc., along the network path. All of this takes a matter of microseconds to achieve.

What model and what layer is the above example?

Layer 1

Layer 5

Layer 7

Layer 3

A

OSI

Layer 1

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10
Q

What number is the transport layer of OSI?

A

Layer 4

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11
Q

What number is the Session Layer of OSI?

A

Layer 5

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12
Q

Example:
This layer is responsible for the error-free delivery of data to the receiving device or node. This layer is implemented through the use of devices such as switches and bridge devices, as well as anything with a network interface, like wireless or wired network cards.

What OSI layer is this and what is its name?

A

Layer 2

Data Link Layer

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13
Q

Application Layer.
This layer is responsible for network applications (like HTTP or FTP) and their production of data to be transferred over the network.

What number is the Application Layer?

A

Layer 7

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14
Q

Receives the packets and adds physical addressing by adding sender and receiver MAC addresses to each data packet. This information forms a unit called a frame.

What OSI Layer is this? And what number?

A

Layer 2

Data Link Layer

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15
Q

This layer is responsible for translating data from the application layer into the format required to transmit the data over the network as well as encrypting the data for security if encryption is used.

What layer is this and what number?

A

Layer 6

OSI Presentation Layer

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16
Q

This layer is responsible for the transmission of data between hosts in different networks as well as routing of data packets. This layer is implemented through the use of devices such as routers and some switches.

What layer is this and what number?

A

Network Layer

Number 3

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17
Q

Layer 5 of the OSI model is?

A

Session Layer

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18
Q

Which layer of the OSI model establishes, manages, and terminates connections?

Session

Application

Presentation

Network

A

Session layer

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19
Q

Which layer of the OSI model does a bridge use to make decisions about forwarding data packets?

Network

Physical

Data Link

Transport

A

Data Link

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20
Q

Which transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) layer performs addressing and routing?

Application

Transport

Presentation

Network

A

Network layer

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21
Q

OSI model:
The …….. represents network communication at a MAC-address level and forwards packets on …….. devices, like a bridge.

A

Data Link layer (Layer 2)

Layer 2

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22
Q

Which device is used to connect host devices within a local area network?

Gateway

Repeater

Switch

Router

A

Switch

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23
Q

Which device operates at layer 2 of the OSI model?

Hub

Repeater

Switch

Router

A

Switch

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24
Q

A …….. is a layer 3 device that connects networks together

Hub

Repeater

Switch

Router

A

Router

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25
Q

……. is also used in Ethernet LANs and data centers. …… is made up of four tightly woven twisted pairs (more twists per linear foot) and supports 1 Gbps for up to 100 meters or 10 Gbps for up to 55 meters.

A

Cat6 cables

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26
Q

…….. is used in Ethernet LANs containing two twisted pairs allowing for up to 100 Mbps up to 100 meters between the device and the switch, hub, or router. This has been practically replaced by the …. specification.

A

Cat5

Cat5e

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27
Q

……… is an improvement of the Cat6 standard, supporting the same standards and lengths (with the ability to run 10 Gbps over 100 meters maximum), but using a higher quality cable that is more resistant to interference. This is most commonly used in wired networks today.

A

Cat6a

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28
Q

There are several different connectors that can be connected to the end of these UTP cables; the two most common are:

A

RJ11

&

RJ45

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29
Q

UTP cables.

UTP stands for?

A

Unshielded twisted pair cables.

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30
Q

…… is made up of four tightly woven twisted pairs (more twists per linear foot) and supports 1 Gbps for up to 100 meters or 10 Gbps for up to 55 meters.

A

Cat6

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31
Q

……. are analog cables made of copper but specifically engineered with a metal shield intended to block signal interference. This cable was patented in 1880 by Oliver Heaviside and was used as an improvement over the bare copper cables widely used in that day.

A

Coaxial Cables

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32
Q

Copper cables:

There are several types of ….. cables, but since they are not widely used in networking today, they are not discussed further.

A

coaxial

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33
Q

……….use glass or plastic threads within cables to transfer the data using light (lasers or LEDs) as opposed to traditional metal cables using electricity.

A

Fiber optic cables (Fiber cables)

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34
Q

……….. cables are useful for high bandwidth needs, meaning they can carry more data at one time.

A

Fiber optic cables

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35
Q

…….. cables are lighter and thinner to install but are much more expensive.

A

Fiber optic cables

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36
Q

There are two types of fiber cables:

These are?

A

single-mode

multimode.

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37
Q

………. fibers are highly effective over medium distances (500 meters or less at higher speeds) and are generally used within a LAN.

A

Multimode

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38
Q

The benefit of a ……. fiber cable is the ability to carry higher bandwidth for 50 times the distance of a multimode cable.

A

single (fiber optic cable mode)

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39
Q

…….. cables are more protected from outdoor weather than traditional copper cables.

A

Fiber optic cables

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40
Q

Connectors:

…………? : This stands for ……… This is a smaller version of the standard connector (SC). This supports more ports to be used in the same space. This is probably the most common type used in corporate data centers today and is usually used with SFP (small form-factor pluggable) transceivers.

A

LC

lucent connector

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41
Q

………? : This stands for a ………. This was the most commonly used connector with multimode fiber until the mid-2000s. It was used on campuses, corporate networks, and for military purposes. Today, LC connectors are usually used instead, as they are denser and more convenient at almost the same cost.

A

ST

Straight tip connector

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42
Q

……..cables are used to connect two computing devices of the same type directly to each other. In computers, this is accomplished via their network interface controllers (NIC) or switches.

A

Crossover cable

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43
Q

……….. are used to connect a device to a wall outlet, for example. The wall outlet is wired to another patch panel in the networking closet, and that networking panel is wired into a switch. These cables can also be used to wire servers in a rack to the top-of-rack (ToR) switch.

A

Patch cables

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44
Q

……. is an association of professional electronic and electrical engineers responsible for many of the standards created in networking today. Founded in 1963.

IEEK

BCGF

KBIE

IEEEC

IEEE

A

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

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45
Q

….. is one of the most basic tools for testing connectivity to other hosts.

A

Ping

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46
Q

……….. are used to trace the route an IP packet takes to a destination.

A

Traceroute and tracert

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47
Q

Ipconfig stands for?

A

Internet Protocol Configuration

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48
Q

…….. is similar to traceroute or tracert in that it displays the path taken by a packet from its source to its destination.

A

Tracepath

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49
Q

……… provides the user with the IP, subnet mask, and default gateway for each network adapter by default with the /all option information, such as MAC address, DHCP status, and lease information.

A

Ipconfig (internet protocol configuration)

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50
Q

Similar to ipconfig, …….. is used to configure the kernel network interfaces. It is implemented at the time of booting to configure the necessary interfaces. Once the interfaces are configured, it is used for debugging or tuning the system. It is primarily used in Linux.

A

ifconfig

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51
Q

Network Commands:

ARP stands for?

A

Address Resolution Protocol

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52
Q

……… displays the IP to physical (MAC) address mappings for hosts that have been discovered in the …….

A

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)

ARP cache

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53
Q

telnet/ssh

tcpdump

nmap

finger

These are examples of what?

A

Network Commands

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54
Q

……. displays information about active ports and their state and can be useful in troubleshooting and capacity management. The command netstat -r displays routing information for network adapters. It is available in Windows, MacOS, and Linux.

A

Netstat (network statistics)

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55
Q

…….. displays information for displaying DNS information and troubleshooting DNS problems. It is useful in displaying names to IP address mappings.

A

Nslookup (name server lookup)

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56
Q

………….is a command used to query the DNS name servers. It is helpful in troubleshooting DNS problems. It is also used for lookups and will display answers from the query. It is a replacement for nslookup.

dig

nslookup

ARP

ipconfig

A

dig

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57
Q

Dig stands for?

A

domain information groper

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58
Q

……..is a tool most often used to look up who owns a domain or block of IP addresses on the internet, including name, email address, and physical address. However, there are many privacy options that hide this information from being returned. It is primarily used in Linux.

A

Whois

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59
Q

……. can be used to display the current route tables on a host.

A

Route

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60
Q

The ……… command is used to securely copy files between servers, leveraging SSH (secure shell) for authentication and encryption.

A

SCP (Secure Copy Protocol)

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61
Q

………. copies the file from one host to another host.

telnet/ssh

FTP

Netstat

Dig

A

FTP (file transfer protocol)

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62
Q

Network commands:

SSH stand for?

A

Secure shell

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63
Q

………. transfers a file from either a client to a server or from a server to a client using UDP (user datagram protocol) instead of TCP, and so it is usually used on reliable (local) networks.

ARP

dig

tftp

ftp

A

TFTP (trivial file transfer protocol)

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64
Q

………. displays information about a user or users on a remote system, including things such as last log-in time and username. It is primarily used in Linux.

dig

ftp

ifconfig

Finger

A

Finger

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65
Q

……….. scans networks to see what it can find in terms of hosts and open ports (including well-known ones for many applications). It is commonly used to determine what is deployed on a network for vulnerability analysis, security scans, and related activities.

A

Nmap (Network Mapper)

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66
Q

…….. and …….. are not native to either Linux or Windows but can be downloaded for free and used with both.

dig

finger

tcpdump

nslookup

Nmap

A

tcpdump

Nmap

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67
Q

……….. displays TCP/IP packets and other network packets that are being transmitted over the network system.

A

Tcpdump

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68
Q

…………: It is a form of protocol analyzer (sometimes called a sniffer) and is designed to show the contents of network packets in human-readable form for troubleshooting, security analysis, etc.

A

Tcpdump

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69
Q

…….. allows a user to manage accounts and devices remotely but unencrypted.

A

Telnet

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70
Q

………….allows a user to manage accounts and devices remotely but it is encrypted.

A

SSH Secure Shell

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71
Q

An organization needs to perform an analysis to identify vulnerabilities such as open firewall ports, unauthorized operating systems or device types, and weak passwords. Which tool is recommended?

nslookup

nmap

tracepath

finger

A

nmap

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72
Q

The ………. utility is the correct answer and can perform many types of vulnerability scans by sending specially crafted data packets and learning about the target(s) based on the responses of the target(s).

A

Network Mapper (nmap)

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73
Q

A server administrator is tasked to harden the database servers, and one of the requirements is to document any firewall ports that are open and closed. Which native Windows command line utility should the administrator use?

finger

tcpdump

dig

netstat

A

netstat

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74
Q

The …… is used in Linux to limits the number of pings within a single session. In this example, the ping command attempts transmission eight times and is the correct answer.

A

-c switch

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75
Q

Which protocol provides remote access over encrypted connections?

File transfer protocol (FTP)

Secure shell (SSH)

Domain Name System (DNS)

Internet control method protocol (ICMP)

A

Secure shell (SSH)

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76
Q

What does the address resolution protocol (ARP) cache map?

IP addresses to network destinations

IP addresses to MAC addresses

MAC addresses to interfaces

MAC addresses to ICMP

A

IP addresses to MAC addresses

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77
Q

Bluetooth ear pods connected to a phone or laptop would be an example of what kind of network?

LAN

WAN

PAN

WLAN

A

PAN

Personal Area Network

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78
Q

Networks:

SAN stand for?

A

Storage Area Network

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79
Q

WAN stands for?

WLAN stands for?

A

Wide Area Network (WAN)

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

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80
Q

Examples of ….. are a home, lab, or office building. Most often, ….. use Ethernet, Wi-Fi, or both to connect the network devices.

A

LANs

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81
Q

Many private homes use …. in the form of Wi-Fi, as it allows for multiple users to be connected to the network (and usually the broader internet), but not be tied down to a specific location in the home.

A

WLAN

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82
Q

………… allow servers to access devices such as tape libraries and disk arrays while presenting them to the operating system like any other locally attached device.

A

SANs

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83
Q

………. may also use other protocols, such as Fibre Channels that do not usually operate on traditional network equipment.

A

SANs

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84
Q

….. there is no individually designated server or client. Each machine on the network can act as both server and client, sometimes requesting data from other nodes and sometimes answering requests from others. Bitcoin and Tor are examples of ……. networks.

A

Peer to Peer (P2P)

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85
Q

The server is the system that stores data and information. The client is the machine that needs access to that data. This is the traditional model of networking since the 1990s.

This is an example of what networking model?

A

Client Server

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86
Q

Unlike other topologies such as bus, ring, or star, …….? topologies are not necessarily constructed using physical network cables. The nodes may connect using Wi-Fi or radio signals or by virtual links such as virtual private networks (VPNs).

What topology is this?

A

Mesh topology

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87
Q

…….. networks are typically used where communication within a network must be highly available and redundancy is needed.

Which topology is this?

Star

Bus (Linear)

Mesh

Ring

A

Mesh

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88
Q

Architecturally speaking, there are two extremes in networking and computing architecture:

Which are?

A

centralization

&

decentralization

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89
Q

In the early days of mainframe computers, nearly all computing and network power was …… in a large data center.

A

centralized

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90
Q

The performance is also much more constant and reliable.

While security is a great benefit of …….?

The above is an example of what type of network architecture.

Centralized?

Or…

Decentralized?

A

Centralized

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91
Q

Another advantage of ……….. is the lack of a single point of failure, or, perhaps more accurately, each computer is its own single point of failure because the computers do not rely on each other.

A

decentralization

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92
Q

What is the principle advantage of wireless networks?

Redundancy

Stability

Security

Portability

A

Portability

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93
Q

Which network model is characterized by client computers that act as both servers and workstations?

Client/server

Wired

Wireless

Peer-to-peer

A

Peer-to-peer

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94
Q

Virtualization relies on a special type of software, known as a …….., which creates the virtual hardware for devices.

A

hypervisor

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95
Q

Regardless, all …….. have something in common: they use software to create the illusion of physical hardware.

A

hypervisors

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96
Q

…… is essentially programming instructions baked into copper and silicon chips.

A

Hardware

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97
Q

Each instance of virtual hardware is called a ……, or VM.

A

virtual machine

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98
Q

NOT A FLASHCARD.

The operating system (OS) installed within the VM is often referred to as a guest OS to differentiate it from the operating system of the underlying physical computer, which is called the host OS.

A
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99
Q

The ……. serves as a resource traffic cop in that it manages how each VM (virtual machine) accesses and consumes the physical hardware resources, such as CPU, RAM, networking, and storage.

A

hypervisor

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100
Q

…….. hypervisors typically requires dedicated hardware and are installed as that machine’s operating system, making them more commonly found in data centers than in home networks.

Type 1

Type 2

Which?

A

Type 1

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101
Q

Bare metal hypervisor is….

Type 1

Or…

Type 2

A

Type 1 hypervisor is bare metal

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102
Q

Hypervisor that is hosted is….

Type 1

Or…

Type 2

A

Type 2 hypervisor is hosted (Installed as an application in the device’s operating system.

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103
Q

VMware Workstation or Microsoft Hyper-V…

Are examples of what type of hypervisor?

Type 1

Or…

Type 2

A

Type 2

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104
Q

…… hypervisor for MacOS, such as VMware Fusion or Parallels Desktop, which would allow you to create and run a Linux VM on your laptop.

Which type of hypervisor?

Type 2

Or…

Type 1.

A

Type 2

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105
Q

……….hypervisor is competing for hardware resources with all the other running applications on your computer; and second, the hypervisor does not have direct and unrestricted access to the physical hardware but instead must send all your VM’s hardware requests through your computer’s operating system.

This is what type of hypervisor?

Type 1

Or…

Type 2

A

Type 2

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106
Q

What kind of software will the IT team need to install on a Mac to enable it to run this Windows environment?

Keyboard video mouse (KVM) switch

Type 2 hypervisor

Virtual machine (VM)

Type 1 hypervisor

A

Type 2 hypervisor

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107
Q

What is a hypervisor?

A hardware tool used to host virtual systems

A virtual application developer

A software tool used to host virtual systems

A virtual system administrator

A

A software tool used to host virtual systems

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108
Q

……. are like a layer of system software between computer hardware and virtualized systems.

A

Hypervisors

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109
Q

Which cloud service model requires the customer to be responsible for operating systems?

PaaS

IaaS

SaaS

A

IaaS

Infrastructure as a Service

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110
Q

PaaS stand for?

A

Platform as a Service

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111
Q

SaaS stands for?

A

Software as a Service.

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112
Q

However, the industry also includes the catch-all term …. as a service, where …. could be nearly anything from security, accounting, hardware, etc.

A

XaaS

X as a Service

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113
Q

Facebook

Salesforce

Gmail

Outlook

Are examples of?

IaaS

SaaS

PaaS

DaaS

A

SaaS

Software as a Service

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114
Q

Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, or Google Cloud Platform (GCP)….

These are examples of Public Cloud providers or Private Cloud providers?

A

Public Cloud providers.

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115
Q

Which type of cloud between Public Cloud or Private Cloud providers is more likely to be secure?

A

Public Cloud providers.

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116
Q

……. is the concept of leveraging the services of multiple public cloud providers, such as hosting your website at AWS and GCP and balancing the users between these providers. This concept, in practice, can add redundancy and flexibility.

Which cloud is the above an example of?

Public cloud.

Private cloud.

Community cloud.

Multi-cloud.

A

Multi-cloud

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117
Q

For …… cloud computing, the customer will require a dedicated connection between their on-premises data center and the public cloud provider.

This is an example of?

Hybrid cloud

Public cloud

Private cloud

Community cloud

Multi-cloud

A

Hybrid cloud

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118
Q

Why would a business likely choose a hybrid cloud solution?

They want a cloud provider to take responsibility for all hardware aspects of their systems.

They want to maintain total control of all hardware their software runs on.

They want to jointly own and control the hardware their software runs on.

They want to use their own systems but add the ability to scale up for burst demand.

A

They want to use their own systems but add the ability to scale up for burst demand.

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119
Q

The ….. is a reference model that takes into account confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

A

CIA triad

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120
Q

…….: The abbreviation for IT security operations; a discipline within IT responsible for protecting assets by reducing the risk of attacks.

A

SecOps

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121
Q

……. : A weakness in software, hardware, facilities, or humans that can be exploited by a threat.

A

Vulnerability

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122
Q

……. : The potential of a threat to exploit a vulnerability via an attack.

A

Risk: The potential of a threat to exploit a vulnerability via an attack.

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123
Q

……: Something or someone that can exploit a vulnerability to attack an asset.

A

Threat

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124
Q

…….: An action taken by a threat that exploits a vulnerability that attempts to either block authorized access to an asset, or to gain unauthorized access to an asset.

A

Attack

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125
Q

………: A person, device, location, or information that SecOps aims to protect from attack.

A

Asset: A person, device, location, or information that SecOps aims to protect from attack.

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126
Q

To gain access to the information, the attacker needs to get into the middle of the conversation; however, to do so, the attacker must impersonate the sender and receiver of the traffic. This act is known as “……? its identity.”

This is an example of?

Spoofing

Taking control

SQL Attack

Buffer overflow

A

Spoofing

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127
Q

An application called a “……..” can systematically check each of these ports by sending thousands of TCP/IP packets to the victim’s computer, each packet on a different TCP port.

A

port scanner

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128
Q

An attacker just needs to send traffic to each and every port to learn which services are running. Unfortunately for the attacker, there are tens of thousands of ports, numbered from 0 to 65,535.

This type of attack is called?

A

Port Scanning

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129
Q

The …… attack overwhelms a victim’s computer with an immense volume of ICMP echo-request packets, all containing a forged, randomized source address.

A

Ping flood attack

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130
Q

Threats known as ……. attacks do just that: they deny someone access to a service, usually by overwhelming the victim with enormous amounts of useless traffic.

A

denial-of-service (DoS)

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131
Q

Two common social engineering attacks are:

Impersonation

Phishing

Denial of Service

Spoofing

Wiretapping

Poor physical security measures

A

Impersonation

&

Phishing

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132
Q

A ….. attack creates half-open connections.

SYN

Wiretapping

Spoofing

Smurf attack

A

SYN attack

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133
Q

How does a Smurf attack operate?

It causes hosts to reboot repeatedly.

It creates multiple VPN connections with hosts.

It creates half-open connections.

It spoofs the source address for all ICMP packets.

A

It spoofs the source address for all ICMP packets.

This is a Denial-Of-Service attack.

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134
Q

Another example involves ARP poisoning, which is a method attackers use to cause an Ethernet switch to flood all traffic to every port on the switch, including the attacker’s computer.

What kind of attack is the above?

Spoofing

Wiretapping

Denial of Service

A

Spoofing

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135
Q

The Smurf Attack is what kind of attack?

(It spoofs the source address for all ICMP packets)

Spoofing

Wiretapping

Phishing

Denial-of Service.

A

Denial-of-Service.

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136
Q

A …… attempts to spoof the source address of ICMP packets and broadcast to the network in an attempt to flood it.

A

Smurf attack

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137
Q

……..software protects against malware, identifies it, quarantines it, and removes it.

A

Antivirus

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138
Q

…….. may prevent unwanted connections to a system.

Which is the correct answer?

Antivirus

Personal Firewalls

Content Filter

A

Personal firewalls

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139
Q

……. prevent malicious or inappropriate network traffic.

Which is the correct answer?

Antivirus

Encryption

Content Filter

A

Content filters

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140
Q

……. makes content unreadable unless a private key is used.

Content Filter

Firewall

Encryption

A

Encryption

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141
Q

Which software protection provides malware identification?

Antivirus

Content Filter

Encryption

A

Antivirus

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142
Q

Which device provides web content filtering and URL scanning?

Web proxy

Stateful firewall

Router

Intrusion detection

A

Web proxy

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143
Q

A ….. compares inbound and outbound packets and determines whether they are allowed.

Antivirus

Stateful firewall

Content Filter

A

Stateful firewall

144
Q

An …….. device or system detects network attacks based on signature.

A

intrusion detection

145
Q

A ….. moves traffic from a network to a different network.

Antivirus

Content filter

Router

A

Router

146
Q

A ….. filters internet content and performs security checks on sites visited, files downloaded, etc.

Antivirus

Web proxy

Phishing

A

Web proxy

147
Q

It is also known as a “tar pit” because it is intended to attract or distract would-be attackers from the actual targets on the network.

This is an example of?

Antivirus

Honeypot

Smurf Attack

A

Honey Pot

148
Q

Some attacks are …… and may not cause obvious damage right away. Such is the case with rootkits, backdoor attacks, and Trojan horses.

Forced.

Silent.

Announced.

A

Silent.

These attack; rootkits, backdoor attacks, and Trojan horses… are meant to be silent and not cause any detection.

149
Q

CIA triad:

Helps maintain the accuracy of data and to identify the trustworthiness of the information.

This is an example of?

Availability

Integrity

Confidentiality

A

Integrity

150
Q

CIA Triad:

Ensures the data is always accessible by its authorized user

This is an example of?

Availability

Integrity

Confidentiality

A

Availability

151
Q

CIA Triad:

Helps limit access to information, preventing an unauthorized user from accessing, copying, or transmitting the information.

This is an example of?

Integrity

Confidentiality

Availability

A

Confidentiality

152
Q

Firewall:

A ……. is a firewall that operates at Layers 3 and 4 of the OSI network model: network and transport.

A

Packet filter firewall

153
Q

Firewall:

A ……. is a device that operates as a middleman between two or more systems to help conceal the true identity of the client and server.

A

circuit-level gateway

154
Q

Firewall:

…….are the foundation of network address translation (NAT) and port address translation (PAT), which are commonly used in firewalls to allow private IP address ranges to communicate on the internet.

A

Circuit-level gateways

155
Q

Firewall:

These firewalls inspect incoming (ingress) and outgoing (egress) traffic and compare the following attributes to a database of
…….. rules that determine if the firewall will forward (allow) or drop (deny) the traffic.

This is an example of what type of Firewall?

A

Packet Filter

156
Q

Remember, ……… firewalls lack the ability to inspect the contents of the packets. Because of this, malicious traffic could pass into the network unchecked.

A

Packet filter

157
Q

A system administrator wants to protect the local network from untrustworthy external traffic. Which device should this system administrator implement?

Switch

Repeater

Router

Firewall

A

Firewall

158
Q

A network …. is a barrier that intercepts and inspects traffic moving from one network to another.

A

Firewall

159
Q

Which three levels of the OSI model does stateful inspection require?

Layers 1, 2 and 3

Layers 3, 4, and 5

Layers 2, 4, and 7

Layers 3, 5, and 7

A

Layers 3, 4, and 5

160
Q

In order for a ….. to understand whether there is a conversation going on between two endpoints, it must be able to analyze the address (Layer 3), it must be able to analyze the type of traffic—usually TCP or UDP—which requires Layer 4 inspection, and it must be able to analyze Layer 5 data in order to recognize that a session has been requested and established.

This is an example of?

Antivirus

Hypervisor Type 1

Firewall

Hypervisor Type 2

A

Firewall

161
Q

Which layers of the OSI model does a packet-filtering firewall operate in?

Layers 1 and 2

Layers 3 and 4

Layers 4 and 5

Layers 6 and 7

A

OSI Layers 3 & 4

162
Q

……. intercept and block threats.

Which one?

IPS

or

IDS

A

IPS

Intrusion Prevention System

163
Q

……monitor the network to detect threats.

Which one?

IDS

or

IPS

A

IDS

Intrusion Detection System

164
Q

Both types of systems (IPS & IDS) can be configured to operate in …., which is where they attach to the network as listening devices only. (Eavesdropping/Wiretapping listening devices)

Which mode is this called?

A

tap mode

165
Q

Tap mode works wells for ……?

IDS

or

IPS

A

IDS

Intrusion detection system

166
Q

For an ……. device to stop traffic, it must be positioned in the middle of the traffic stream, a configuration known as in-line mode.

Which one is the correct answer?

IDS

IPS

Circuit-level gateway

A

IPS Intrusion Prevention System

167
Q

There are also cases where the IPS device may block traffic, particularly files that are known to carry viruses and malware. This is a method known as ………?

IDS

Tap mode

CIA triad

reputation-based protection

A

reputation-based protection

168
Q

A good example of this is when IPS devices and firewalls block executable (EXE) attachments or downloads.

This is called?

CIA Triad

Reputation-based protection

OSI Layer 7

Protocol

A

Reputation-based protection

169
Q

Intercepts and blocks threats
Has many network ports to operate as input/output pairs
Has cables routed physically through devices to create choke points

The above is an example of?

IDS

IPS

OSI Layer 3

Antivirus

A

IPS Intrusion Prevention System

170
Q

Monitors the network to detect threats
Listens passively on the network
Alerts network admin of any detected suspicious behavior

This is an example of?

Antivirus

CIA Triad

IDS

IPS

A

IDS Intrusion Detection System

171
Q

Identifies malicious traffic
Available as virtual and host-based applications
Can be configured to operate in tap mode

This is an example of?

IPS

IDS

IDS & IPS (Both)

CIA Triad

Mesh Topology

A

IDS & IPS (Both)

172
Q

Suspicious traffic comes into the switch
Intrusion system inspects traffic and alerts. admin of suspicious packets.
An alarm is sent to admin’s management system.

This is an example of?

OSI Layer 6

IDS deployment

IPS deployment

CIA Triad

A

IDS deployment

173
Q

Suspicious traffic comes in.
An intrusion system blocks suspicious packets before it gets to the switch.

This is an example of?

IPS deployment

IDS deployment

OSI layer 5

Hadoop

A

IPS deployment

174
Q

Consider the security-related differences between a wired network using Category 6 cables versus a wired network using fiber optic cables. If wiretapping or electronic eavesdropping is a concern, the ……………. provide greater security.

Which cable provides better security?

Fiber optic cables

or

Cat6 (Category 6) cables

A

Fiber optic cable

175
Q

Wiretapping is a …… threat because it involves tampering with the physical cables of a victim’s network

What OSI layer is wiretapping?

OSI layer 3

OSI layer 6

OSI layer 7

OSI layer 1

A

OSI Layer 1 Physical

176
Q

For instance, check the security of the locks on the doors to the data center, equipment racks, and wiring closets throughout your building.

What OSI layer is the above example?

Layer 4

Layer 7

Layer 3

Layer 1

A

Layer 1 Physical

177
Q

An attacker executes a radio jammer attack at ………..?. The radio jammer sends radio signals, which interfere with the victim’s wireless network card and prevents the victim from communicating with a wireless access point (WAP).

What OSI Layer is this?

Layer 5

Layer 3

Layer 7

Layer 1

A

Layer 1 Physical

178
Q

WAP stands for?

A

Wireless access point

179
Q

The attacker sends special Ethernet frames on the network that quickly poison or overwhelm the switch’s internal traffic-handling database called the forwarding information base (FIB). Without the FIB, the switch no longer knows where to forward traffic, and so it begins flooding all its ports with every frame it receives, allowing the attacker to receive a copy of all the traffic passing through the switch. When coupled with a packet sniffer, the attacker can reconstruct and analyze the received frames to gather information that will help the attacker to conduct further attacks against the network.

What kind if attack is this and what OSI layer?

Smurf attack, layer 2.

or

ARP poisoning, layer 2.

A

ARP poisoning, layer 2.

180
Q

What is the best defenses against ARP poisoning?

IPS

IDS

Hadoop

OSI layer 7

A

IPS

181
Q

Spoofing is an attack that can occur at both OSI layer ……? & OSI Layer …..?

Layer 4 & Layer 7

Layer 5 & Layer 6

Layer 4 & Layer 1

Layer 2 & Layer 3

A

Layer 2 (Data link) & Layer 3 (Network)

182
Q

The best defense of a Spoofing attack is?

IDS

CIA Triad

IPS

A

IPS

183
Q

Port scanner attacks happen typically on what layer of OSI?

Layer 2

Layer 7

Layer 4

Layer 6

A

OSI Layer 4 Transport

184
Q

Remote procedure call (RPC) is an example protocol at Layer ….? and is used by computers to execute functions and procedures on other computers, such as a central server launching a program or print job.

Layer 3

Layer 7

Layer 2

Layer 5

A

Layer 5 (Session)

185
Q

Man-in-the-middle attack happens at what OSI Layer?

Layer 3

Layer 6

Layer 4

Layer 5

A

Layer 6 (Presentation)

186
Q

Encryption typically happens at what OSI Layer?

Layer 4

Layer 7

Layer 3

Layer 6

A

Layer 6 (Presentation)

187
Q

The ……. layer serves as a translation and security layer between applications, allowing computers to encode and encrypt data.

Physical Layer 1

Network Layer 3

Presentation Layer 6

Session Layer 5

A

Presentation Layer 6

188
Q

TLS and SSL (Shell) are commonly performed at what OSI Layer?

Presentation Layer 6

Physical Layer 1

Network Layer 3

Data Link Layer 2

A

Presentation Layer 6

189
Q

For example, the ping sweep attack sends pings to a large number of IP addresses to detect which computers are online and may, therefore, be susceptible to other attacks. Fortunately, these attacks can be easily mitigated by using a …….?

Packet-filtering firewall

IPS

IDS

CIA triad

A

Packet-filtering firewall

190
Q

Ping flood DoS attack described in an earlier lesson, are typically intended to disrupt ……. on the network.

A

Communication

191
Q

Ping attacks commonly are performed at what OSI layer?

Layer 4

Layer 5

Layer 3

Layer 1

A

Layer 3 Network

192
Q

API stands for?

A

application programming interface

193
Q

Another way to mitigate attacks at the Application layer 7 is to leverage a ……. that is able to scan the incoming packet for malicious behavior instead of simply forwarding the malicious payload to the destination. An IPS device will also protect against these threats.

A

reverse proxy system

194
Q

Security professionals use a tool called a ………. to detect problems and known bad code that result in vulnerabilities in your applications.

A

vulnerability scanner

195
Q

A security analyst is testing the security of an organization’s website by placing a script directly into a search box. Which level of the OSI model is the analyst addressing?

Layer 4

Layer 5

Layer 6

Layer 7

A

Layer 7 (Application)

196
Q

The Application layer 7 defines how users connect with the application services through protocols such as ……? & ….?

A

HTTP

HTTPS

197
Q

Application layer is an application programming interface (API) endpoint for web services and websites, both of which leverage the ….. and ….. protocols. Prime targets are web servers, especially web servers that host APIs.

A

HTTP

HTTPS

198
Q

Which Transport layer protocol is best suited for streaming audio and video?

User datagram protocol (UDP)

Internet protocol (IP)

Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)

Transmission control protocol (TCP)

A

User datagram protocol (UDP)

199
Q

The analyst in this scenario is testing for cross-site scripting vulnerabilities, which would affect the Layer ….?

A

Layer 7 Application

200
Q

SQL Injection Attack
Security solution: Leverage a reverse proxy system and scan incoming packets for malicious behavior.
OSI Layer…..?

A

Layer 7 Application

201
Q

Man-in-the-Middle Attack
Security solution: Mitigate by using an application-layer proxy or an IPS, and train users about fake security certificates.
OSI Layer ….?

A

Presentation Layer 6

202
Q

RPC Attack
Security solution: Mitigate with regular OS and application patching.
OSI Layer ……?

A

Session Layer 5

203
Q

Wiretapping
Security solution: Look for physical vulnerabilities, check the locks on doors, racks, and wiring closets.
OSI Layer:……?

A

Layer 1 Physical

204
Q

VLAN Hopping
Security solution: Configure the VLAN tagging per the switch vendor’s recommendation.
OSI Layer: …..?

A

Data Link Layer 2

205
Q

Ping Sweep Attack
Security solution: Mitigate by using a packet-filtering firewall.
OSI Layer: ….?

A

Network Layer 3

206
Q

Port Scanner
Security solution: Mitigate by using a packet-filtering firewall.
OSI Layer: …..?

A

Transport Layer 4

207
Q

…………..?, also known as private key encryption, uses the same key to encrypt the data as it does to decrypt the data, meaning that when used for data transmissions, symmetric key encryption requires that both the sender and the receiver possess the same cipher key.

Symmetric key encryption

Asymmetric key encryption

Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC)

A

Symmetric key encryption

208
Q

………………? rely on two different keys to encrypt and decrypt the traffic. This is particularly useful on the internet where the encryption of the data being sent to and from e-commerce and banking websites is needed.

Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC)

Asymmetric key ciphers

Symmetric key encryption

A

Asymmetric key ciphers

209
Q

PKI is an asymmetric key solution that allows two parties to exchange encrypted data without having first exchanged a private or shared key with one another.

This is used in?

Elliptic Curve Cryptography

Asymmetric Key Encryption

Symmetric key encryption

A

Asymmetric Key Encryption

210
Q

In order to add complexity to the keys that defies current brute force attack methods, a new breed of asymmetric key creation was unveiled: ………?

PKI

Symmetric Encryption

Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC)

A

Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC)

211
Q

………….? uses the algebraic structure of elliptic curves to create a key that is even smaller than traditional asymmetric keys, yet it is substantially more difficult to crack without the aid of quantum computers.

A

ECC elliptical curve cryptography

212
Q

…………..?, as well as ………….?, is performed using a symmetric key to optimize its speed, but that key is exchanged using an asymmetric key cipher to ensure perfect secrecy of the key exchange.

(These are hybrid encryption methods that use both symmetric and asymmetric encryption techniques)

A

Transport Layer Security (TLS) encryption

Bulk data encryption

213
Q

Which encryption application provides authentication and encryption services that are commonly used to create VPN tunnels at OSI Layer 3?

Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

Internet protocol security (IPSec)

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

A

Internet protocol security (IPSec)

214
Q

What is a characteristic of symmetric key encryption?

Use of a public key and a private key

Public key infrastructure

Use of a shared key

Elliptic curve cryptography

A

Use of a shared key

215
Q

…….? data is called plaintext.

A

Unencrypted

216
Q

Encrypted plaintext is called……..?

A

Ciphertext.

217
Q

IPSec is commonly used to create …… at OSI Layer 3.

A

VPN tunnels

218
Q

What is the fastest encryption method for bulk encryption of data?

Asymmetric key encryption

TLS

Symmetric key encryption

PKI

A

Symmetric key encryption

219
Q

An ………….? relies on two different keys to encrypt and decrypt the data.

Which one?

Asymmetric key cipher

Symmetric key encryption

A

Asymmetric key cipher

220
Q

………… dictate how long a piece of data should remain available, whether in active day-to-day storage or in archive copies.

Retention policies

Data protection

Device hardening

Encryption of Data at Rest

A

Retention policies

221
Q

The key used to encrypt and decrypt your data is called a ………?

A

data encryption key (DEK)

222
Q

When you encrypt the DEK, you use an asymmetric encryption key called a ………….? . To help keep all these keys organized, you will store the encrypted DEK inside a key management server (KMS) that grants access to the key based on the validity of your KEK.

A

key encryption key (KEK)

223
Q

To help keep all these keys organized, you will store the encrypted DEK inside a ……?

A

key management server (KMS)

224
Q

It is equally important to encrypt your data in transit, also known as “……”.

A

“data in flight.”

225
Q

If you are developing a web application that will require internet users to create credentials for your application, consider instead using an authentication service known as ……?

Federated identity management

Key management server

Data in flight

A

Federated identity management

226
Q

IAM stands for?

A

identity and access management (IAM)

227
Q

Form of encryption:

SSL stands for?

A

Secure Sockets Layer

228
Q

Encryption:

TLS stand for?

A

Transport Layer Security

229
Q

Encryption:

IPsec stands for?

A

Internet Protocol Security

230
Q

………..? provides an authentication and encryption solution that secures IP network traffic at Layer 3 of the OSI model.

A

Internet protocol security (IPsec)

231
Q

This is in contrast to the ….. protocol discussed above, which operates at Layer 6.

A

TLS

232
Q

Which layer does TLS operate at?

A

OSI Layer 6

233
Q

What is the name of OSI Layer 6?

A

OSI Presentation layer 6.

234
Q

Currently, the most secure algorithm for storing and encrypting data at rest is the……….?

A

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

235
Q

Depending on the key length, as many as 14 transformations can be made against a given block of data, making it exceptionally difficult, if not impossible, to reverse the encryption without the key or the aid of quantum computers.

This is what type of encryption?

TLS

SSL

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Elliptic curve cryptography

A

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

236
Q

Regardless of your backup solution plan, be sure to test it regularly. In fact, consider automating a restore process once a …..? to check for failures or inconsistencies in the backup.

Month.

Year.

Day.

Week.

Quarter.

A

Week.

237
Q

Encryption:

DEK stands for?

A

Data encryption key

238
Q

Concepts of data encryption:

These two terms are used in IT Security:
True or False?

Encryption of Data at Rest

Encryption of Data in Transit

A

True

239
Q

MFA stands for?

A

multifactor authentication

240
Q

API stands for? (keys)

A

application programming interface

241
Q

Public cloud providers keep detailed …. of the actions taken within their system to help you account for changes and to discover any unauthorized use of privileged credentials.

A

audit logs

242
Q

……..? are scalable, single-tenant clusters of computing, storage, and networking resources owned and maintained by a single company, typically (but not always) located within a data center belonging to that company.

A

Private clouds

243
Q

…….? are hosted by companies, such as Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform (GCP), and tend to offer highly scalable, multi-tenant solutions in data centers placed around the world.

A

Public clouds

244
Q

A …… is the combination of services running in both public and private clouds.

A

hybrid cloud

245
Q

IAM stands for?

A

Identity & Access Management

246
Q

Cloud Security

Steps:
Log in using Google ID
User verified with identity token

This would be?

Application

Network

Cloud Platform

A

Application

247
Q

Cloud Security

Steps:
Configure firewalls to inspect traffic
Add layers to protect against an attacker

This is an example of?

Network

Application

Cloud Platform

A

Network

248
Q

Cloud Security

Steps:
Employs IAM to determine who has access to specific resources
Service provider maintains physical equipment

This is an example of?

Application

Cloud Platform

Network

A
249
Q

The ….. algorithm uses only 56-bit encryption and can be compromised by brute force software running on modern hardware in less than a day.

A

Triple DES aka 3DES

250
Q

……. is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses the now antiquated DES (data encryption standard) algorithm three times in a row to encrypt your data

A

Triple DES (often abbreviated 3DES)

251
Q

………? can be used with a 128-bit, 192-bit, or 256-bit key

A

AES advanced encryption standard

252
Q

WEP stands for?

A

Wired equivalent privacy

253
Q

Because all packets are encrypted by that key, …..? is very vulnerable to attack today.

A

WEP wired equivalent privacy

254
Q

……..? key is either 10 or 26 hexadecimal digits. Each hexadecimal digit is 4 bits.

WPA

WPA2

WEP

AES

WPA3

3DES

A

WEP

255
Q

WPA stands for?

A

Wi-Fi protected access WPA

256
Q

Why would someone choose to implement Advanced Encryption Standards (AES) encryption over Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES) encryption?

For transmission over longer distances.

For a more secure level of encryption due to increased complexity.

Because they prefer to use a symmetric key algorithm.

To hide the network name from discovery protocols

A

For a more secure level of encryption due to increased complexity.

257
Q

Which IEEE 802 standard is for wireless LAN connections?

802.3

802.1x

802.11

802.15

A

802.11

258
Q

What is one disadvantage of using WPA3 on a wireless network?

The licensing fees can be costly on large networks.

Security levels are higher using WEP.

Transmission rates are higher using WPA2.

WPA3 may not be supported by many older network devices.

A

WPA3 may not be supported by many older network devices.

259
Q

In …….? , all wireless communication is performed in a peer-to-peer fashion and does not require or involve a WAP.

A

ad-hoc mode

260
Q

Which network type does not require a wireless router or access point between clients?

WAN

Ad-hoc

SAN

Infrastructure

A

Ad-hoc

261
Q

EAP stands for?

And is a?

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol

Protocol

262
Q

The …..? security standard was designed to fit that exact situation. It provides network access control at the port level, whether physical or wireless, and it provides an authentication standard based on the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

802.3

802.1x

802.11

802.15

A

802.1x

263
Q

In WPA3, all devices now use the ………..? (SAE) method to exchange the network key as defined in the IEEE 802.11-2016 standard.

A

simultaneous authentication of equals

264
Q

A …. is a way for perpetrators to force victims to connect to rogue networks. In other cases, it interrupts the operation of security systems to facilitate burglaries or porch piracy.

A

deauth attack

265
Q

………. is a denial-of-service (DoS) attack where the attacker can force any client (or even every client) off of the network.

A

Deauthentication (abbreviated deauth)

266
Q

Best defense against a Deauth Attack?

A

WPA3

267
Q

The attacker sets up an illegitimate wireless network using their own WAP and may even share their own cellular data to create an internet hotspot. The attacker usually opens this network without any security or authentication so as to entice people in a hurry to connect to the attacker’s rogue WAP.

This type of attack is called?

A

Fake Access

268
Q

AAA stands for?

A

Authentication, authorization, and accounting.

269
Q

AAA

Confirm user is who they claim to be
Usernames and passwords
Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificates

This is?

Accounting

Authentication

Authorization

A

Authentication

270
Q

AAA

Report on user’s access
Provides forensic trail after a security breach
Logs successful and unsuccessful connection attempts

This is?

Accounting

Authentication

Authorization

A

Accounting

271
Q

AAA

Define what the user can access, permissions.
Give permissions to a user
Write and delete or read-only

This is?

Accounting

Authentication

Authorization

A

Authorization

272
Q

AAA

A system can confirm your identity via usernames and passwords or with certificates, as is the case with …….?

This is?

Accounting

Authentication

Authorization

A

1.
public key infrastructure (PKI)

2.
Authentication

273
Q

Below are examples of what?

Change Default Passwords

Remove Unnecessary Logins

Enforce a Strong Password Policy

Remove Unnecessary Services

Keep Patches Up to Date

Limit Physical Access to the Device

Only Allow Changes from a Trusted Network

Require Encryption for Wireless Networks

Audit Access

Backup

A

Device Hardening methods

274
Q

…… ? is a common way to gather the logs and send them to a …..? server for storage. There are many applications, both commercial and open-source, that can review these logs and alert you when anomalies are detected and should be further investigated by a person.

A

Syslog

Syslog server

275
Q

Which OSI layer is related to the function of the IP protocol suite?

Transport

Network

Data link

Session

A

Network

276
Q

Which OSI layer is responsible for organizing how bits are passed over the physical layer between devices within the same collision domain?

Frame

Connection

Transport

Data link

A

Data Link

277
Q

Which OSI layer would define the scope of a protocol that makes sure packets of data are received correctly and resends them if they are not?

Validation

Transmission

Transport

Connection

A

Transport

278
Q

Which protocol suite performs functions of OSI layer 4?

IPX

MAC

CSMA/CD

TCP

A

TCP

279
Q

Which type of Ethernet cable can maintain 10Gbps transmission speeds through the course of its maximum 100-meter length?

CAT 5e

CAT 5

CAT 3

CAT 6a

A

CAT 6a

280
Q

Which Internet access technology uses ordinary telephone wires for data transmission?

DSL

Cable

Wi-Fi

Hotspot

A

DSL

281
Q

Which device is used to organize network cables as they run between switches and other network devices?

Jack

Hub

Patch panel

Router

A

Patch panel

282
Q

Which network device is used to connect two or more network segments by performing OSI layer 3 functions like packet-forwarding?

Router

Repeater

Wire

Switch

A

Router

283
Q

Which network device is used to convert between digital information from a LAN and analog signals for transmission over a standard telephone wire?

Repeater

Modem

Signal generator

Bit stretcher

A

Modem

284
Q

Which device could be used to send commands to the mainframe for remote execution in early mainframe installations?

Distributed screens

Dumb terminals

Execution displays

Command receivers

A

Dumb terminals

285
Q

Which device is responsible for implementing network address translation (NAT)?

Modem

Router

NIC

Switch

A

Router

286
Q

Which command produces the following output?

Non-authoritative answer:
Name: www.google.com
Address: 172.217.11.132

dig

nslookup

whois

nmap

A

nslookup

287
Q

Which command should be used to manually enter the default gateway for a computer?

route

ipconfig

arp

netstat

A

Route

288
Q

Which network diagnostic tool displays the path packets take between two endpoints?

ifconfig

traceroute

ftp

nslookup

A

traceroute

289
Q

Which network type is used to wire multiple PCs to a home router?

LAN

PAN

MAN

WAN

A

LAN

290
Q

An office’s infrastructure connects network devices and printers through a central access point without the use of cabling.

Which network type does this office use?

WLAN

WAN

CAN

SAN

A

WLAN

291
Q

What type of medium is commonly used within a 1000 Mbps Ethernet network?

CAT 5

CAT5e

Coax

Wireless

A

CAT5e

292
Q

Which network topology is being implemented when each node connects to exactly two other nodes, forming a single continuous pathway for signals through each node?

Star

Full mesh

Ring

Bus

A

Ring

293
Q

In which physical LAN topology are nodes connected to each other with a backbone cable that loops around and ends at the same point it started?

Ring

Bus

Star

Tree

A

Ring

294
Q

Which OSI layer ensures error-free packets?

Application

Transport

Session

Presentation

A

Transport

295
Q

Which topology uses a switch or hub to connect to all devices in the same network?

Mesh

Ring

Star

Bus

A

Star

296
Q

Which cloud service provides hardware, operating systems, and web servers but not end-user applications?

IaaS

PaaS

SaaS

RaaS

A

PaaS

297
Q

Which cloud model provides an exclusive cloud computing service environment that is shared between two or more organizations?

Public

Private

Community

Hybrid

A

Community

298
Q

Which type of software is used to provide virtualization?

Database

Hypervisor

Antivirus

Spreadsheet

A

Hypervisor

299
Q

A user that does not want to be identified while communicating on a network uses an application to alter the computer’s identity.

Which type of exploit is being perpetrated?

Denial-of-service

ARP poisoning

Smurf attack

Spoofing

A

Spoofing

300
Q

An attacker attempts to misdirect traffic on a network back to the attacker by corrupting the network computer’s cache of IP address to MAC address mappings that are cached.

Which exploit is the attacker perpetrating?

Port scanning

Wiretapping

Denial-of-service

ARP poisoning

A

ARO poisoning

301
Q

Which exploit actually breaches the physical medium or uses devices to monitor signals from outside the physical medium itself?

Spoofing

Wiretapping

Sniffing

Port scanning

A

Wiretapping

302
Q

Which type of attack can overwhelm a web server by inserting more data into a web form than the system was configured to hold?

Buffer overflow

ARP poisoning

Session hijacking

Cross-site scripting

A

Buffer overflow

303
Q

Which type of attack sends an email claiming to be from a reputable business in order to entice the recipient to provide sensitive information?

Denial-of-service

Phishing

Password attacks

Man-in-the-middle

A

Phishing

304
Q

A user on a network is planning to launch an exploit against a coworker in a neighboring department. The user needs to identify the IP address of a coworker in the desired department.

Which tool or utility will allow the user to watch network traffic in real time to identify a target?

Port scan

Antivirus software

Sniffer

Port redirection

A

Sniffer

305
Q

Which group of attackers is typically used for penetration testing?

Red team

Blue team

White team

Gray team

A

Red team

306
Q

Which type of attack exploits an unpatched software vulnerability?

Zero-day

Brute-force

Diffie-Hellman

Man-in-the-middle

A

Zero-day

307
Q

A company has the policy that all new user passwords are P@ssw0rd but does not require new users to change their password. An employee randomly tries a coworker’s account with the new user password to see if they can log in as the coworker.

Which type of vulnerability does this create?

BYOD

Weak password

Default password

Misconfigured firewall rules

A

Default password

308
Q

An employee that does not want to miss emails from important clients sets up her cellular smartphone to allow her to check email. Unfortunately, she does not install antivirus software on the cellular phone.

What type of vulnerability is represented?

Industry threat

Misconfigured firewall rules

Weak passwords

BYOD/Mobile

A

BYOD/Mobile

309
Q

It is a weakness which can be exploited by a threat, such as an attacker, to perform unauthorized actions within a computer system.

This is the definition of vulnerability, in computer security.

True or False?

A

True

310
Q

What is required to establish a secure connection to a remote network over an insecure link?

Virtual Private Network (VPN) service

Linux

Command Line Interface

TOR Network

A

Virtual Private Network (VPN) service

311
Q

An organization is concerned about brute force attacks.

How should the organization counter this risk?

Install a mantrap and biometric scanner at the entrance of its data center.

Implement a system hardening policy that ensures operating system updates and software patches are installed regularly.

Institute a log-in policy that locks users out of an account after three failed password attempts.

Initiate role-based access to its systems to reduce the possibility of escalated privileges.

A

Institute a log-in policy that locks users out of an account after three failed password attempts.

312
Q

An organization suffers a social engineering attack that results in a cybercriminal gaining access to its networks and to its customers’ private information.

How can the organization mitigate this risk in the future?

Update user antivirus software to the latest version

Implement a stronger password policy

Provide regular cybersecurity training for employees

Install a sophisticated intrusion detection system

A

Provide regular cybersecurity training for employees

313
Q

An attacker plans to exploit flaws in an operating system to gain access to a user’s computer system.

What is a prevention mechanism for this type of attack?

Firewall

Patching

Antivirus

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

A

Patching

314
Q

An unauthorized third-party has gained access to a company network.

How can they be prevented from deleting data?

Access controls

Physical controls

Biometrics

Man trap

A

Access controls

315
Q

An attacker has gained access to the passwords of several employees of a company through a brute force attack.

Which authentication method would keep the attacker from accessing the employees’ devices?

MFA (multi-factor authentication)

AAA (authentication, authorization, and accounting)

PKI (public key infrastructure)

TCP/IP (transmission control protocol/internet protocol

A

MFA (multi-factor authentication)

316
Q

After downloading a CD/DVD burning program, a user notices that someone is remotely accessing the computer during nighttime hours.

Which type of malware is likely found in the CD/DVD software?

Virus

Adware

Worm

Trojan horse

A

Trojan horse

317
Q

An analyst has identified an active denial of service attack.

Which category of the CIA triad is affected?

Confidentiality

Availability

Integrity

Application

Checkmark

A

Availability

318
Q

While investigating a security incident, a technician discovers an unauthorized packet-capturing tool on the network.

Which category of the CIA triad is being attacked?

Authenticity

Confidentiality

Availability

Integrity

A

Confidentiality

319
Q

A malicious user was able to lock a user’s account after guessing the user’s password multiple times unsuccessfully.

Which category of the CIA triad did the malicious user target in this attack?

Confidentiality

Integrity

Availability

Accessibility

A

Availability

320
Q

Which category of the CIA triad is affected when an unauthorized user changes the data within a read-only file?

Confidentiality

Integrity

Authenticity

Accessibility

A

Integrity

321
Q

Which type of firewall initiates a new connection on behalf of the client and presents its own IP to the server when a client initiates a connection to a server?

Application level

Packet filtering

Circuit level

Stateful inspection

A

Circuit level

322
Q

Which feature of a firewall allows an organization to use private non-routable networks while enabling communication to the internet?

Port Address Translation (PAT)

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

Static routing

Packet filtering

A

Port Address Translation (PAT)

323
Q

What is the meaning of “state” when referring to stateful inspection in firewalls?

Which one?

It refers to the connection state of a conversation between two computers.

It refers to the connection state of a computer to the network.

A

It refers to the connection state of a conversation between two computers.

324
Q

What can a user install to detect malicious software?

Proxy

Antivirus

Firewall

Patch

A

Antivirus

325
Q

Which feature of a network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) uses a lists of known bad IP addresses to protect the network?

Reputation-based prevention

Anomaly-based protection

Behavior-based analysis

Cloud-based sandbox environment

A

Reputation-based prevention

326
Q

A company provides access to employees’ tax and personal information via a public-facing web portal.

What should the company implement to encrypt employees’ web access to this information?

Transport layer security (TLS)

Network intrusion detection system (NIDS)

Advanced encryption standard (AES)
L
Two-factor authentication (2FA)

A

Transport layer security (TLS)

327
Q

Which attack tricks a client into mapping an IP address to a spoofed MAC address?

ARP spoofing

Evil-twin attack

Rogue DHCP server

IP starvation

A

ARP spoofing

328
Q

Which type of port has access to all VLANs by default in a traditional layer 2 switch?

Uplink

Downlink

Trunk

Console

A

Trunk

329
Q

What is end-to-end encryption?

Data is encrypted on the sender’s system and only the recipient is able to decrypt it.

True or False?

A

True

330
Q

Which phrase describes unencrypted data?

In the clear

At rest

In transit

Ciphertext

A

In the clear

331
Q

Which statement is true when comparing AES encryption to Triple DES (3DES)?

AES requires less CPU utilization and uses a larger block size than 3DES.

3DES requires less CPU utilization and uses a larger block size than AES.

3DES is a superior encryption protocol due to the triple nature.

A

AES requires less CPU utilization and uses a larger block size than 3DES.

332
Q

What is the best defense against fake access attacks?

Never use unsecured Wi-Fi hotspots.

Never open unsolicited offers.

Never click on a link within an email.

Never reply to an unsolicited email.

A

Never use unsecured Wi-Fi hotspots.

333
Q

Which cloud feature is used to prevent data loss and provide for data retrieval in the event of a disaster?

Data backups and archives

Database encryption

Data cleansing and analytics

Database monitoring

A

Data backups and archives

334
Q

Which cloud-hosting model provides exclusive cloud access for a single company?

Private

Public

Community

Hybrid

A

Private

335
Q

What should a cloud provider use to secure data in flight?

Private key encryption

Demilitarized zone

Multifactor authentication

Updated antivirus software

A

Private key encryption

336
Q

An adminstrator fails to configure protection for usernames and passwords transmitted across the network.

Which component of the AAA model is weakened?

Authentication

Authorization

Access

Availability

A

Authentication

337
Q

67.
A user is mistakenly granted access to customer accounts not required for his duties.

Which component of the AAA model is violated?

Authentication

Authorization

Availability

Access

A

Authorization

338
Q

Which type of firewall technology reads and analyzes the actual content of a message before forwarding to its destination?

Proxy servers

Stateful

Stateless

Router

A

Proxy servers

339
Q

An organization’s IT department is concerned that malicious insiders may be using elevated access rights.

Which security control can be used to draw attacks away from critical systems?

Firewalls

Honeypots

IDS

IPS

A

Honeypots

340
Q

CIA Triad Some of the common actions that can compromise the ………..? of data include: denial-of-service (DoS) and distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks, which prevent legitimate users from accessing the resource by sending an overwhelming amount of data to the target server.

Availability

Integrity

Confidentiality

A

Availability

341
Q

Some of the compromises of data …..? include:

Man-in-the-middle attacks, where an attacker changes the contents of the message after it was sent, but before it was received

Confidentiality

Availability

Integrity

A

Integrity

342
Q

In the CIA Triad,

Privacy can be equated to …….?

A

Confidentiality

343
Q

CIA Triad

Social engineering is a method used by attackers to gain an unsuspecting victim’s trust to provide information, such as passwords or server names, or even just to gain physical building access.

This is an example of?

Integrity

Availability

Confidentiality

A

Confidentiality

344
Q

CIA Triad

The physical theft of a device gives an attacker an unlimited time window to break the encryption of your data.

This would be an example of?

Integrity

Confidentiality

Availability

A

Confidentiality

345
Q

CIA Triad

Accidents and malfunctions also play into the equation. For example, …..? of information can easily be breached by storing files in the wrong location, emailing data to the wrong person, or printing ……. information to a public printer.

Confidentiality

Availability

Integrity

A

Confidentiality

Printing confidential information to a public printer

346
Q

CAT6

Cat6 is also used in Ethernet LANs and data centers. Cat is made up of four tightly woven twisted pairs (more twists per linear foot) and supports 1 Gps for up to 100 meters or 10 Gbps for up to 55 meters.

A
347
Q

Cat5e doubles the number of twisted pairs to four for up to 1 Gbps (Gigabits per second over up to 100 meters.

A
348
Q

Cat5 is used in Ethernet LANs containing two twisted pairs allowing for up to 100
Mbps up to 100 meters between the device and the switch, hub, or router. This has been practically replaced by the Cate specification.

A
349
Q

CAT6a is an improvement of the CAT6 standard, supporting the same standards and lengths (with the ability to run 10 Gbps over 100 meters maximum), but using a higher quality cable that is more resistant to interference. This is most commonly used in wired networks today.

A
350
Q

Cat4 supports 16 Mbps for up to 100 meters and is not commonly used today.

A
351
Q

Cat3 supports up to 10 Mbps (Megabits per second for up to 100 meters and is commonly used for phone lines today.

A
352
Q

OSI Layer 1 Physical

Cables
Hubs
Modem devices
Repeaters

A
353
Q

OSI Layer 2 Data Link

Switches
Bridge devices
Network Interface Cards (Wireless or Wired)

A
354
Q

OSI Layer 3 is Network

Routing data packets.
Routers and some switches.

A
355
Q

OSI Layer 4 Transport

This layer is often called the Heart of OSI.
Provides services to the Application layer (Layer 7)

A
356
Q

OSI Layer 5 Session

Connection establishment
Session Maintenance
Authentication

A
357
Q

OSI Layer 6 Presentation

Translating data
Encryption

A

Network And Security Foundations. (2 decks)

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