Network Security Flashcards
Sara, the security administrator, must configure the corporate firewall to allow all public IP addresses on the internal interface of the firewall to be translated to one public IP address on the external interface of the same firewall. Which of the following should Sara configure?
A. PAT
B. NAP
C. DNAT
D. NAC
Answer: PAT
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.
Most home networks use PAT. In such a scenario, the Internet Service Provider (ISP) assigns a single IP address to the home network’s router. When Computer X logs on the Internet, the router assigns the client a port number, which is appended to the internal IP address. This, in effect, gives Computer X a unique address. If Computer Z logs on the Internet at the same time, the router assigns it the same local IP address with a different port number. Although both computers are sharing the same public IP address and accessing the Internet at the same time, the router knows exactly which computer to send specific packets to because each computer has a unique internal address.
Which of the following devices is MOST likely being used when processing the following?
- PERMIT IP ANY ANY EQ 80
- DENY IP ANY ANY
A. Firewall
B. NIPS
C. Load balancer
D. URL filter
Answer: Firewall
Explanation:
Firewalls, routers, and even switches can use ACLs as a method of security management. An access control list has a deny ip any any implicitly at the end of any access control list. ACLs deny by default and allow by exception.
The security administrator at ABC company received the following log information from an external party:
10: 45:01 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3056, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Directory traversal
10: 45:02 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3057, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Account brute force
10: 45:03 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3058, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Port scan
The external party is reporting attacks coming from abc-company.com. Which of the following is the reason the ABC company’s security administrator is unable to determine the origin of the attack?
A. A NIDS was used in place of a NIPS.
B. The log is not in UTC.
C. The external party uses a firewall.
D. ABC company uses PAT.
Answer: ABC company uses PAT
Explanation:
PAT would ensure that computers on ABC’s LAN translate to the same IP address, but with a different port number assignment. The log information shows the IP address, not the port number, making it impossible to pin point the exact source.
Which of the following security devices can be replicated on a Linux based computer using IP tables to inspect and properly handle network based traffic?
A. Sniffer
B. Router
C. Firewall
D. Switch
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ip tables are a user-space application program that allows a system administrator to configure the tables provided by the Linux kernel firewall and the chains and rules it stores.
Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model?
A. Packet Filter Firewall
B. Stateful Firewall
C. Proxy Firewall
D. Application Firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has mandated that all IT systems with credit card data be segregated from the main corporate network to prevent unauthorized access and that access to the IT systems should be logged. Which of the following would BEST meet the CISO’s requirements?
A. Sniffers
B. NIDS
C. Firewalls
D. Web proxies
E. Layer 2 switches
Answer: C
Explanation:
The basic purpose of a firewall is to isolate one network from another.
Which of the following network design elements allows for many internal devices to share one public IP address?
A. DNAT
B. PAT
C. DNS
D. DMZ
Answer: B
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.
Most home networks use PAT. In such a scenario, the Internet Service Provider (ISP) assigns a single IP address to the home network’s router. When Computer X logs on the Internet, the router assigns the client a port number, which is appended to the internal IP address. This, in effect, gives Computer X a unique address. If Computer Z logs on the Internet at the same time, the router assigns it the same local IP address with a different port number. Although both computers are sharing the same public IP address and accessing the Internet at the same time, the router knows exactly which computer to send specific packets to because each computer has a unique internal address.
Which of the following is a best practice when securing a switch from physical access?
A. Disable unnecessary accounts
B. Print baseline configuration
C. Enable access lists
D. Disable unused ports
Answer: D
Explanation:
Disabling unused switch ports a simple method many network administrators use to help secure their network from unauthorized access. All ports not in use should be disabled. Otherwise, they present an open door for an attacker to enter.
Which of the following devices would be MOST useful to ensure availability when there are a large number of requests to a certain website?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Load balancer
C. VPN concentrator
D. Web security gateway
Answer: B
Explanation:
Load balancing refers to shifting a load from one device to another. A load balancer can be implemented as a software or hardware solution, and it is usually associated with a device—a router, a firewall, NAT appliance, and so on. In its most common implementation, a load balancer splits the traffic intended for a website into individual requests that are then rotated to redundant servers as they become available.
Pete, the system administrator, wishes to monitor and limit users’ access to external websites. Which of the following would BEST address this?
A. Block all traffic on port 80.
B. Implement NIDS.
C. Use server load balancers.
D. Install a proxy server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A proxy is a device that acts on behalf of other(s). In the interest of security, all internal user interaction with the Internet should be controlled through a proxy server. The proxy server should automatically block known malicious sites. The proxy server should cache often-accessed sites to improve performance.
Mike, a network administrator, has been asked to passively monitor network traffic to the company’s sales websites. Which of the following would be BEST suited for this task?
A. HIDS
B. Firewall
C. NIPS
D. Spam filter
Answer: C
Explanation:
Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity.
Which of the following should be deployed to prevent the transmission of malicious traffic between virtual machines hosted on a singular physical device on a network?
A. HIPS on each virtual machine
B. NIPS on the network
C. NIDS on the network
D. HIDS on each virtual machine
Answer: A
Explanation:
Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host.
Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?
A. NIPS
B. HIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it
An administrator is looking to implement a security device which will be able to not only detect network intrusions at the organization level, but help defend against them as well. Which of the following is being described here?
A. NIDS
B. NIPS
C. HIPS
D. HIDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it
In intrusion detection system vernacular, which account is responsible for setting the security policy for an organization?
A. Supervisor
B. Administrator
C. Root
D. Director
Answer: B
Explanation:
The administrator is the person responsible for setting the security policy for an organization and is responsible for making decisions about the deployment and configuration of the IDS.
When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified vulnerability.
Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described?
A. Network based
B. IDS
C. Signature based
D. Host based
Answer: C
Explanation:
A signature-based monitoring or detection method relies on a database of signatures or patterns of known malicious or unwanted activity. The strength of a signature-based system is that it can quickly and accurately detect any event from its database of signatures.
The network security engineer just deployed an IDS on the network, but the Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has concerns that the device is only able to detect known anomalies. Which of the following types of IDS has been deployed?
A. Signature Based IDS
B. Heuristic IDS
C. Behavior Based IDS
D. Anomaly Based IDS
Answer: A
Explanation:
A signature based IDS will monitor packets on the network and compare them against a database of signatures or attributes from known malicious threats.
Joe, the Chief Technical Officer (CTO), is concerned about new malware being introduced into the corporate network. He has tasked the security engineers to implement a technology that is capable of alerting the team when unusual traffic is on the network. Which of the following types of technologies will BEST address this scenario?
A. Application Firewall
B. Anomaly Based IDS
C. Proxy Firewall
D. Signature IDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Anomaly-based detection watches the ongoing activity in the environment and looks for abnormal occurrences. An anomaly-based monitoring or detection method relies on definitions of all valid forms of activity. This database of known valid activity allows the tool to detect any and all anomalies. Anomaly-based detection is commonly used for protocols. Because all the valid and legal forms of a protocol are known and can be defined, any variations from those known valid constructions are seen as anomalies.
Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Answer: B
Explanation:
A protocol analyzer is a tool used to examine the contents of network traffic. Commonly known as a sniffer, a protocol analyzer can be a dedicated hardware device or software installed onto a typical host system. In either case, a protocol analyzer is first a packet capturing tool that can collect network traffic and store it in memory or onto a storage device. Once a packet is captured, it can be analyzed either with complex automated tools and scripts or manually.
Which the following flags are used to establish a TCP connection? (Select TWO).
A. PSH
B. ACK
C. SYN
D. URG
E. FIN
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
To establish a TCP connection, the three-way (or 3-step) handshake occurs: SYN: The active open is performed by the client sending a SYN to the server. The client sets the segment’s sequence number to a random value A.
SYN-ACK: In response, the server replies with a SYN-ACK. The acknowledgment number is set to one more than the received sequence number i.e. A+1, and the sequence number that the server chooses for the packet is another random number, B.
ACK: Finally, the client sends an ACK back to the server. The sequence number is set to the received acknowledgement value i.e. A+1, and the acknowledgement number is set to one more than the received sequence number i.e. B+1.
Which of the following components of an all-in-one security appliance would MOST likely be configured in order to restrict access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites?
A. Spam filter
B. URL filter
C. Content inspection
D. Malware inspection
Answer: B
Explanation:
The question asks how to prevent access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites. You access a website by browsing to a URL using a Web browser or peer-to-peer file sharing client software. A URL filter is used to block URLs (websites) to prevent users accessing the website.
Pete, the system administrator, wants to restrict access to advertisements, games, and gambling web sites. Which of the following devices would BEST achieve this goal?
A. Firewall
B. Switch
C. URL content filter
D. Spam filter
Answer: C
Explanation:
URL filtering, also known as web filtering, is the act of blocking access to a site based on all or part of the URL used to request access. URL filtering can focus on all or part of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), specific path names, specific filenames, specific fi le extensions, or entire specific URLs. Many URL-filtering tools can obtain updated master URL block lists from vendors as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.
The administrator receives a call from an employee named Joe. Joe says the Internet is down and he is receiving a blank page when typing to connect to a popular sports website. The administrator asks Joe to try visiting a popular search engine site, which Joe reports as successful. Joe then says that he can get to the sports site on this phone. Which of the following might the administrator need to configure?
A. The access rules on the IDS
B. The pop up blocker in the employee’s browser
C. The sensitivity level of the spam filter
D. The default block page on the URL filter
Answer: D
Explanation: A
URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL. There are a number of URL-filtering tools that can acquire updated master URL block lists from vendors, as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.
Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called:
A. Firewalls
B. Content filters
C. Routers
D. NIDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
A content filter is a is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.
Pete, an employee, attempts to visit a popular social networking site but is blocked. Instead, a page is displayed notifying him that this site cannot be visited. Which of the following is MOST likely blocking Pete’s access to this site?
A. Internet content filter
B. Firewall
C. Proxy server
D. Protocol analyzer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Web filtering software is designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorized to access, especially when utilized to restrict material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means.
A review of the company’s network traffic shows that most of the malware infections are caused by users visiting gambling and gaming websites. The security manager wants to implement a solution that will block these websites, scan all web traffic for signs of malware, and block the malware before it enters the company network. Which of the following is suited for this purpose?
A. ACL
B. IDS
C. UTM
D. Firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
An all-in-one appliance, also known as Unified Threat Management (UTM) and Next Generation Firewall (NGFW), is one that provides a good foundation for security. A variety is available; those that you should be familiar with for the exam fall under the categories of providing URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection.
Malware inspection is the use of a malware scanner to detect unwanted software content in network traffic. If malware is detected, it can be blocked or logged and/or trigger an alert.
Which of the following is BEST at blocking attacks and providing security at layer 7 of the OSI model?
A. WAF
B. NIDS
C. Routers
D. Switches
Answer: A
Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is an appliance, server plugin, or filter that applies a set of rules to an HTTP conversation. Generally, these rules cover common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection. By customizing the rules to your application, many attacks can be identified and blocked. The effort to perform this customization can be significant and needs to be maintained as the application is modified.
As the protocols used to access a web server (typically HTTP and HTTPS) run in layer 7 of the OSI model, then web application firewall (WAF) is the correct answer.
Which of the following should the security administrator implement to limit web traffic based on country of origin? (Select THREE).
A. Spam filter
B. Load balancer
C. Antivirus
D. Proxies
E. Firewall
F. NIDS
G. URL filtering
Answer: D,E,G
Explanation:
A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers.
Firewalls manage traffic using a rule or a set of rules.
A URL is a reference to a resource that specifies the location of the resource. A URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL.
A security engineer is reviewing log data and sees the output below:
POST: /payload.php HTTP/1.1
HOST: localhost
Accept: */*
Referrer: http://localhost/
*******
HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden
Connection: close
Log: Access denied with 403. Pattern matches form bypass Which of the following technologies was MOST likely being used to generate this log?
A. Host-based Intrusion Detection System
B. Web application firewall
C. Network-based Intrusion Detection System
D. Stateful Inspection Firewall
E. URL Content Filter
Answer: B
Explanation:
A web application firewall is a device, server add-on, virtual service, or system filter that defines a strict set of communication rules for a website and all visitors. It’s intended to be an applicationspecific firewall to prevent cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and other web application attacks.
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
Answer: C
Explanation:
The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it
A company has proprietary mission critical devices connected to their network which are configured remotely by both employees and approved customers. The administrator wants to monitor device security without changing their baseline configuration. Which of the following should be implemented to secure the devices without risking availability?
A. Host-based firewall
B. IDS
C. IPS
D. Honeypot
Answer: B
Explanation:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. IDS come in a variety of “flavors” and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every organization.
IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of important observed events and produce reports. Many IDPSes can also respond to a detected threat by attempting to prevent it from succeeding. They use several response techniques, which involve the IDPS stopping the attack itself, changing the security environment (e.g. reconfiguring a firewall) or changing the attack’s content.
Configure the firewall.
Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task.
- *10.4.255.10/24 | 10.4.255.101 | 443 | TCP | Allow
10. 4.255.10/23 | 10.4.255.2 | 22 | TCP | Allow
10. 4.255.10/25 | 10.4.255.102 | Any | Any | Allow**
Explanation:
Firewall rules act like ACLs, and they are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule’s criteria: Block the connection Allow the connection Allow the connection only if it is secured
The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default. Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication.
- The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.
- The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default SCP port
- The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default TFTP port.
Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit.
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default.
Rule #1 allows the Accounting workstation to ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port, which is TCP port 443.
Rule #2 allows the HR workstation to ONLY communicate with the Financial server over the default SCP port, which is TCP Port 22
Rule #3 & Rule #4 allow the Admin workstation to ONLY access the Financial and Purchasing servers located on the secure network over the default TFTP port, which is Port 69.
Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers?
A. deny udp any any port 53
B. deny ip any any
C. deny tcp any any port 53
D. deny all dns packets
Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.
A security administrator suspects that an increase in the amount of TFTP traffic on the network is due to unauthorized file transfers, and wants to configure a firewall to block all TFTP traffic. Which of the following would accomplish this task?
A. Deny TCP port 68
B. Deny TCP port 69
C. Deny UDP port 68
D. Deny UDP port 69
Answer: D
Explanation:
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple file-exchange protocol that doesn’t require authentication. It operates on UDP port 69.
Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor?
A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address.
B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.
A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another?
A. Implement a virtual firewall
B. Install HIPS on each VM
C. Virtual switches with VLANs
D. Develop a patch management guide
Answer: C
Explanation:
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments.
A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces?
A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128.
B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it.
C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic.
D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.
Joe, a technician at the local power plant, notices that several turbines had ramp up in cycles during the week. Further investigation by the system engineering team determined that a timed .exe file had been uploaded to the system control console during a visit by international contractors. Which of the following actions should Joe recommend?
A. Create a VLAN for the SCADA
B. Enable PKI for the MainFrame
C. Implement patch management
D. Implement stronger WPA2 Wireless
Answer: A
Explanation:
VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. This can be accomplished by not defining a route between different VLANs or by specifying a deny filter between certain VLANs (or certain members of a VLAN). Any network segment that doesn’t need to communicate with another in order to accomplish a work task/function shouldn’t be able to do so.
The security administrator needs to manage traffic on a layer 3 device to support FTP from a new remote site. Which of the following would need to be implemented?
A. Implicit deny
B. VLAN management
C. Port security
D. Access control lists
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the OSI model, IP addressing and IP routing are performed at layer 3 (the network layer). In this question we need to configure routing. When configuring routing, you specify which IP range (in this case, the IP subnet of the remote site) is allowed to route traffic through the router to the FTP server.
Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted.
Matt, the network engineer, has been tasked with separating network traffic between virtual machines on a single hypervisor. Which of the following would he implement to BEST address this requirement? (Select TWO).
A. Virtual switch
B. NAT
C. System partitioning
D. Access-list
E. Disable spanning tree
F. VLAN
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. A virtual switch is a software application that allows communication between virtual machines. A combination of the two would best satisfy the question.
A database administrator contacts a security administrator to request firewall changes for a connection to a new internal application. The security administrator notices that the new application uses a port typically monopolized by a virus. The security administrator denies the request and suggests a new port or service be used to complete the application’s task. Which of the following is the security administrator practicing in this example?
A. Explicit deny
B. Port security
C. Access control lists
D. Implicit deny
Answer: C
Explanation:
Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted.
An administrator needs to connect a router in one building to a router in another using Ethernet. Each router is connected to a managed switch and the switches are connected to each other via a fiber line. Which of the following should be configured to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network?
A. Configure each port on the switches to use the same VLAN other than the default one
B. Enable VTP on both switches and set to the same domain
C. Configure only one of the routers to run DHCP services
D. Implement port security on the switches
Answer: D
Explanation:
Port security in IT can mean several things: The physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port. The management of TCP and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports. If a service is active and assigned to a port, then that port is open. All the other 65,535 ports (of TCP or UDP) are closed if a service isn’t actively using them. Port knocking is a security system in which all ports on a system appear closed. However, if the client sends packets to a specific set of ports in a certain order, a bit like a secret knock, then the desired service port becomes open and allows the client software to connect to the service.
At an organization, unauthorized users have been accessing network resources via unused network wall jacks. Which of the following would be used to stop unauthorized access?
A. Configure an access list.
B. Configure spanning tree protocol.
C. Configure port security.
D. Configure loop protection.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port security in IT can mean several things. It can mean the physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port. This can be accomplished by locking down the wiring closet and server vaults and then disconnecting the workstation run from the patch panel (or punch-down block) that leads to a room’s wall jack. Any unneeded or unused wall jacks can (and should) be physically disabled in this manner. Another option is to use a smart patch panel that can monitor the MAC address of any device connected to each and every wall port across a building and detect not just when a new device is connected to an empty port, but also when a valid device is disconnected or replaced by an invalid device.
On Monday, all company employees report being unable to connect to the corporate wireless network, which uses 802.1x with PEAP. A technician verifies that no configuration changes were made to the wireless network and its supporting infrastructure, and that there are no outages.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this issue?
A. Too many incorrect authentication attempts have caused users to be temporarily disabled.
B. The DNS server is overwhelmed with connections and is unable to respond to queries.
C. The company IDS detected a wireless attack and disabled the wireless network.
D. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service server certificate has expired.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question states that the network uses 802.1x with PEAP. The 802.1x authentication server is typically an EAP-compliant Remote Access Dial-In User Service (RADIUS). A RADIUS server will be configured with a digital certificate. When a digital certificate is created, an expiration period is configured by the Certificate Authority (CA). The expiration period is commonly one or two years. The question states that no configuration changes have been made so it’s likely that the certificate has expired.
A company determines a need for additional protection from rogue devices plugging into physical ports around the building. Which of the following provides the highest degree of protection from unauthorized wired network access?
A. Intrusion Prevention Systems
B. MAC filtering
C. Flood guards
D. 802.1x
Answer: D
Explanation:
IEEE 802.1x is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols and provides an authentication mechanism to wireless devices connecting to a LAN or WLAN.
While configuring a new access layer switch, the administrator, Joe, was advised that he needed to make sure that only devices authorized to access the network would be permitted to login and utilize resources. Which of the following should the administrator implement to ensure this happens?
A. Log Analysis
B. VLAN Management
C. Network separation
D. 802.1x
Answer: D
Explanation:
802.1x is a port-based authentication mechanism. It’s based on Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) and is commonly used in closed-environment wireless networks. 802.1x was initially used to compensate for the weaknesses of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), but today it’s often used as a component in more complex authentication and connection-management systems, including Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Diameter, Cisco System’s Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+), and Network Access Control (NAC).
A network administrator wants to block both DNS requests and zone transfers coming from outside IP addresses. The company uses a firewall which implements an implicit allow and is currently configured with the following ACL applied to its external interface.
PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 80
PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 443
Which of the following rules would accomplish this task? (Select TWO).
A. Change the firewall default settings so that it implements an implicit deny
B. Apply the current ACL to all interfaces of the firewall
C. Remove the current ACL
D. Add the following ACL at the top of the current ACL DENY TCP ANY ANY 53
E. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACL DENY ICMP ANY ANY 53
F. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACL DENY IP ANY ANY 53
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn’t present. DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers. These are zone file exchanges between DNS servers, special manual queries, or used when a response exceeds 512 bytes. UDP port 53 is used for most typical DNS queries.
Users are unable to connect to the web server at IP 192.168.0.20. Which of the following can be inferred of a firewall that is configured ONLY with the following ACL?
PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 80
PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 443
A. It implements stateful packet filtering.
B. It implements bottom-up processing.
C. It failed closed.
D. It implements an implicit deny.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn’t present.
The Human Resources department has a parent shared folder setup on the server. There are two groups that have access, one called managers and one called staff. There are many sub folders under the parent shared folder, one is called payroll. The parent folder access control list propagates all subfolders and all subfolders inherit the parent permission. Which of the following is the quickest way to prevent the staff group from gaining access to the payroll folder?
A. Remove the staff group from the payroll folder
B. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the staff group
C. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the managers group
D. Remove inheritance from the payroll folder
Answer: B
Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default.
A company has several conference rooms with wired network jacks that are used by both employees and guests. Employees need access to internal resources and guests only need access to the Internet. Which of the following combinations is BEST to meet the requirements? A. NAT and DMZ B. VPN and IPSec C. Switches and a firewall D. 802.1x and VLANs
Answer: D
Explanation:
802.1x is a port-based authentication mechanism. It’s based on Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) and is commonly used in closed-environment wireless networks. 802.1x was initially used to compensate for the weaknesses of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), but today it’s often used as a component in more complex authentication and connection-management systems, including Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Diameter, Cisco System’s Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+), and Network Access Control (NAC).
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. By default, all ports on a switch are part of VLAN 1. But as the switch administrator changes the VLAN assignment on a port-by-port basis, various ports can be grouped together and be distinct from other VLAN port designations. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
Matt, the IT Manager, wants to create a new network available to virtual servers on the same hypervisor, and does not want this network to be routable to the firewall. How could this BEST be accomplished?
A. Create a VLAN without a default gateway.
B. Remove the network from the routing table.
C. Create a virtual switch.
D. Commission a stand-alone switch.
Answer: Create a virtual switch.
Explanation:
A Hyper-V Virtual Switch implements policy enforcement for security, isolation, and service levels.
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is tasked with outsourcing the analysis of security logs. These will need to still be reviewed on a regular basis to ensure the security of the company has not been breached. Which of the following cloud service options would support this requirement?
A. SaaS
B. MaaS
C. IaaS
D. PaaS
Answer: MaaS
Explanation:
Monitoring-as-a-service (MaaS) is a cloud delivery model that falls under anything as a service (XaaS). MaaS allows for the deployment of monitoring functionalities for several other services and applications within the cloud.
Joe, a security administrator, believes that a network breach has occurred in the datacenter as a result of a misconfigured router access list, allowing outside access to an SSH server. Which of the following should Joe search for in the log files?
A. Failed authentication attempts
B. Network ping sweeps
C. Host port scans
D. Connections to port 22
Answer: Connections to port 22
Explanation:
Log analysis is the art and science of reviewing audit trails, log files, or other forms of computergenerated records for evidence of policy violations, malicious events, downtimes, bottlenecks, or other issues of concern.
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH also use TCP port 22, such as SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin.
An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes to combine the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Unified Threat Management
B. Virtual Private Network
C. Single sign on
D. Role-based management
Answer: Unified Threat Management
Explanation:
When you combine a firewall with other abilities (intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc.), what used to be called an all-in-one appliance is now known as a unified threat management (UTM) system. The advantages of combining everything into one include a reduced learning curve (you only have one product to learn), a single vendor to deal with, and—typically—reduced complexity.
An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes to integrate the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Unified Threat Management
B. Virtual Private Network
C. Single sign on
D. Role-based management
Answer: Unified Threat Management
Explanation:
Unified Threat Management (UTM) is, basically, the combination of a firewall with other abilities. These abilities include intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc. Advantages of combining everything into one:
You only have one product to learn.
You only have to deal with a single vendor.
IT provides reduced complexity.
A security administrator is segregating all web-facing server traffic from the internal network and restricting it to a single interface on a firewall. Which of the following BEST describes this new network?
A. VLAN
B. Subnet
C. VPN
D. DMZ
Answer: DMZ
Explanation:
A DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization’s local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network. The name is derived from the term “demilitarized zone”, an area between nation states in which military operation is not permitted.
Which of the following devices would MOST likely have a DMZ interface?
A. Firewall
B. Switch
C. Load balancer
D. Proxy
Answer: Firewall
Explanation:
The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
A security analyst needs to ensure all external traffic is able to access the company’s front-end servers but protect all access to internal resources. Which of the following network design elements would MOST likely be recommended?
A. DMZ
B. Cloud computing
C. VLAN
D. Virtualization
Answer: DMZ
Explanation:
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
Which of the following network architecture concepts is used to securely isolate at the boundary between networks?
A. VLAN
B. Subnetting
C. DMZ
D. NAT
Answer: DMZ
Explanation:
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
When designing a new network infrastructure, a security administrator requests that the intranet web server be placed in an isolated area of the network for security purposes. Which of the following design elements would be implemented to comply with the security administrator’s request?
A. DMZ
B. Cloud services
C. Virtualization
D. Sandboxing
Answer: DMZ
Explanation:
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
Which of the following BEST describes a demilitarized zone?
A. A buffer zone between protected and unprotected networks.
B. A network where all servers exist and are monitored.
C. A sterile, isolated network segment with access lists.
D. A private network that is protected by a firewall and a VLAN.
Answer: A buffer zone between protected and unprotected networks.
Explanation:
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
Which of the following would allow the organization to divide a Class C IP address range into several ranges?
A. DMZ
B. Virtual LANs
C. NAT
D. Subnetting
Answer: Subnetting
Explanation:
Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.
Drag and drop the correct protocol to its default port.
FTP uses TCP port 21.
Telnet uses port 23.
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec,
and slogin, also use TCP port 22. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file-transfer facility
based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). Secure FTP (SFTP) is a secured alternative to
standard File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
SMTP uses TCP port 25.
Port 69 is used by TFTP.
SNMP makes use of UDP ports 161 and 162.
