Network + Practice Exam 2

Question 1

1. Which utility is shown in the following figure (portions of which have been obscured to prevent telegraphing the answer)?

❍ A. tracert

❍ B. arp

❍ C. ping

❍ D. netstat **NOTE: this question has image not present**

Answer 1

A. The tracert utility is used in Windows-based operating systems to trace the route taken to reach a particular host. This same functionality is provided in UNIX/Linux-based operating systems by traceroute. arp (Answer B) is used for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses. ping (Answer C) tests if connectivity exists, whereas netstat (Answer D) displays protocol statistics and current TCP/IP network connections.

Question 2

2. You are the administrator for a company that has more than 200 Windows 7 workstations. You want to prevent each workstation from seeing other network computers and devices as well as prevent people on other network computers from seeing your workstations. Which setting must you turn off? ❍ A. MAN ❍ B. SAN ❍ C. Network discovery ❍ D. CRAN

Answer 2

C. Toggling off network discovery prevents the workstation from seeing other networked computers and devices as well as prevents people on other networked computers from seeing each workstation on which discovery is toggled off. A metropolitan area network, or MAN (Answer A), is a network that spans a defined geographic location, such as a city or suburb. A storage area network, or SAN (Answer B), is a network of storage disks. Answer D, CRAN, is a nonexistent choice.

Question 3

3. Most UNIX/Linux-based systems include the ability to write messages (either directly or through applications) to log files by using which utility with syslog? ❍ A. scribe ❍ B. master ❍ C. recorder ❍ D. logger

Answer 3

D. Most UNIX/Linux-based systems include the ability to write messages (either directly or through applications) to log files via syslog. This can be done for security or management reasons and provides a central means by which devices that otherwise could not write to a central repository can easily do so (often by using the logger utility). Answers A, B, and C are nonexistent utility choices.

Question 4

4. Which tool is shown in the following figure? Exam Questions 563 ❍ A. Voltmeter ❍ B. Micrometer ❍ C. Punchdown ❍ D. Event recorder **NOTE: this question has image not present**

Answer 4

C. Punchdown tools are used to attach twisted-pair network cable to connectors within a patch panel. Specifically, they connect twisted-pair wires to the insulation displacement connector (IDC). Answers A, B, and D are tools that are not shown in the figure.

Question 5

5. At what layer of the OSI model do time domain reflectometers operate? ❍ A. Session ❍ B. Presentation ❍ C. Application ❍ D. Physical

Answer 5

D. TDRs work at the physical layer of the OSI model, sending a signal through a length of cable, looking for cable faults. Answers A, B, and C are OSI layers above the physical layer and thus higher than that at which time domain reflectometers operate.

Question 6

6. Which switch is used with ipconfig to purge the DNS cache? ❍ A. /release ❍ B. /flushdns ❍ C. /purgedns ❍ D. /purge

Answer 6

B. The /flushdns switch is used with ipconfig to purge the DNS cache. The /release switch (Answer A) is used to release the IPv4 lease. The other options (Answers C and D) are not valid switches for use with ipconfig.

Question 7

7. Which utility is shown in the following figure (portions of which have been obscured to prevent telegraphing the answer)? ❍ A. ipconfig ❍ B. ifconfig ❍ C. nslookup ❍ D. nbtstat

Answer 7

C. nslookup is used to perform manual DNS lookups and is shown in the figure. The nbtstat utility (Answer D) is used to view statistics related to NetBIOS name resolution and to see information about current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. ipconfig (Answer A) is used to view and renew TCP/IP configuration on a Windows system, whereas ifconfig (Answer B) is its counterpart in the UNIX/Linux operating systems.

Question 8

8. Your boss returns from a conference and can’t stop talking about EUI-64, which he no doubt overheard other administrators discussing. What is he referring to? ❍ A. An IPv4 subnet mask ❍ B. The last 64 bits of an IPv6 address ❍ C. The MAC address ❍ D. The conference that he most likely attended

Answer 8

B. The last 64 bits of an IPv6 address are known as EUI-64 (Extended Unique Identifier, 64-bit). The other choices are incorrect (Answers A, C, and D) because EUI-64 is the last 64 bits of an IPv6 address.

Question 9

9. You’ve been summoned to a small law firm to help a client with networking issues that cropped up when it added a number of new workstations. The CIDR notation appearing in the documentation kept on site is 192.168.12.0/26. What is the range of IPv4 addresses that can be assigned to workstations? ❍ A. 192.168.12.1 to 192.168.12.255 ❍ B. 192.168.12.1 to 192.168.12.128 ❍ C. 192.168.12.1 to 192.168.12.62 ❍ D. 192.168.12.1 to 192.168.12.32

Answer 9

C. The IP addresses available beneath 192.168.12.0/26 range from 192.168.12.1 to 192.168.12.62. With 26 mask bits, only 62 hosts can exist on a subnet. The other choices are incorrect (Answers A, B, and D) because they do not represent the correct range of IPv4 addresses that can be assigned to workstations.

Question 10

10. Traffic is not being allowed through port 53 of the firewall. Which TCP or UDP protocol is associated with that port by default? ❍ A. IMAP ❍ B. RDP ❍ C. DNS ❍ D. DHCP

Answer 10

C. Port 53 is associated with DNS, by default. Port 3389, by default, is associated with RDP (Answer B), whereas port 143 is associated with IMAP (Answer A), and ports 67 and 68 are associated with DHCP (Answer D).

Question 11

11. Which command is shown in the following figure (portions of which have been obscured to prevent telegraphing the answer)? 564 Practice Exam 2 ❍ A. arp -d ❍ B. arp -a ❍ C. arp -s ❍ D. traceroute **NOTE: this question has image not present**

Answer 11

B. The –a option is used with arp to display entries in the routing table. The –d option (Answer A) is used to delete an entry, whereas –s (Answer C) is used to add an entry. traceroute (Answer D) is a UNIX/Linux utility for tracing the route from one host to another.

Question 12

12. Which layers of the OSI model match the Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose all that apply.) ❍ A. Application ❍ B. Presentation ❍ C. Session ❍ D. Transport ❍ E. Network ❍ F. Data Link ❍ G. Physical

Answer 12

F and G. The network interface layer of the TCP/IP model matches the data link and physical layers of the OSI model in functionality. The other choices (Answers A, B, C, D, and E) are incorrect because they are OSI model layers other than those that match the network interface layer of the TCP/IP model.

Question 13

13. Which of the following are considered vulnerability scanners? (Choose all correct choices.) ❍ A. NMAP ❍ B. NESSUS ❍ C. OVAL ❍ D. BLACKHOLE

Answer 13

A and B. Both NMAP and NESSUS are considered vulnerability scanners. OVAL (Answer C) is a language and BLACKHOLE (Answer D) is a fictitious entity.

Question 14

14. IPv4 has automatic private IP addressing within the range beginning 169.254.0.0. What is the equivalent addressing in IPv6? ❍ A. There is not an equivalent. ❍ B. FFFF:: prefix ❍ C. 0000:: prefix ❍ D. FE80:: prefix

Answer 14

D. Within IPv6, the FE80:: prefix is equivalent to the 169.254.0.0 range (automatic private IP addressing) in IPv4. The other choices (Answers A, B, and C) are incorrect because the FE80:: prefix is equivalent to the 169.254.0.0 range in IPv4.

Question 15

15. What is the next step in the troubleshooting methodology after identifying the problem? ❍ A. Test the theory to determine the cause. ❍ B. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary. ❍ C. Establish a theory of probable cause. ❍ D. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Answer 15

C. The next step is to establish a theory of probable cause. The steps in the methodology are 1. Identify the problem, 2. Establish a theory of probable cause (Answer C), 3. Test the theory to determine cause (Answer A), 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, 5. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary (Answer B), 6. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and 7. Document findings, actions, and outcomes (Answer D).

Question 16

16. Which of the following enables electrical power to transmit over twisted-pair Ethernet cable? ❍ A. PPPoE ❍ B. PoE ❍ C. MaMM ❍ D. EESR

Answer 16

B. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a technology that enables electrical power to transmit over twisted-pair Ethernet cable. The power is transferred, along with data, to provide power to remote devices. These devices may include remote switches, wireless access points, VoIP equipment, and more. Answer A, PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) is used for encapsulating frames and does not enable electrical power to transmit over Ethernet. The other options (Answers C and D) are fictitious choices.

Question 17

17. Which of the following can be used on the Internet to capture data traveling between computers? ❍ A. Registered jack ❍ B. NIDS ❍ C. NIPS ❍ D. Packet sniffer

Answer 17

D. A packet sniffer can be used on the Internet to capture data traveling between computers. A registered jack (Answer A) is a connector used with wiring. NIDS (Answer B) is a Network-based Intrusion Detection System, whereas NIPS (Answer C) is a Network-based Intrusion Prevention System.

Question 18

18. Which type of connector is used with coaxial cable? ❍ A. ST ❍ B. SC ❍ C. F ❍ D. MT-RJ

Answer 18

C. F-type connectors (which are screw-type connectors) are used with coaxial cable. ST (Answer A), SC (Answer B), and MT-RJ (Answer D) connectors are associated with fiber cabling.

Question 19

19. Which two of the following define types of wiring closets? (Choose two.) ❍ A. MDF ❍ B. BDF ❍ C. FDF ❍ D. IDF

Answer 19

A and D. Main Distribution Frame (MDF) and Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) define types of wiring closets. The main wiring closet for a network typically holds the majority of the network gear, including routers, switches, wiring, servers, and more. When multiple wiring closets are used, the main distribution frame (MDF) connects to secondary wiring closets or intermediate distribution frames (IDFs). The Building Distribution Frame, or BDF (Answer B), is the superset of which both MDF and IDF constitute. Answer C is incorrect because FSF is a nonexistent entity.

Question 20

20. Traffic is not being allowed through ports 67 and 68 of the firewall. Which TCP or UDP protocol is associated with those ports by default? ❍ A. IMAP ❍ B. RDP ❍ C. DNS ❍ D. DHCP

Answer 20

D. Ports 67 and 68 are associated with DHCP by default. Port 53 is associated with DNS (Answer C). Port 3389 by default is associated with RDP (Answer B), whereas port 143 is associated with IMAP (Answer A).

Question 21

21. Which of the following are link-state protocols? (Choose all that apply.) ❍ A. IGRP ❍ B. OSPF ❍ C. RIP ❍ D. IS-IS

Answer 21

B and D. Link-state protocols include Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS). Answer A, Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP), and Answer C, Routing Information Protocol (RIP), are examples of distance-vector protocols.

Question 22

22. Which utility is shown in the following figure (portions of which have been obscured to prevent telegraphing the answer)? Exam Questions 567 ❍ A. tracert ❍ B. arp ❍ C. ping ❍ D. netstat **NOTE: this question has image not present**

Answer 22

D. The netstat utility is used to view the current TCP/IP connections on a system. The tracert utility (Answer A) is used in Windows-based operating systems to trace the route taken to reach a particular host. arp (Answer B) is used for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses. ping (Answer C) tests if connectivity exists.

Question 23

23. Which of the following refers to the connection point between the ISP’s part of the network and the customer’s portion of the network? ❍ A. loop ❍ B. rubicon ❍ C. demarcation ❍ D. DMZ

Answer 23

C. A network’s demarcation point refers to the connection point between the ISP’s part of the network and the customer’s portion of the network. A demilitarized zone, or DMZ (Answer D), is part of a network where you place servers that must be accessible by sources both outside and inside your network. The other choices (Answers A and B) are fictitious options.

Question 24

24. In a traditional crossover cable, which sets of wires are crossed? (Choose all correct answers.) ❍ A. 1 and 3 ❍ B. 2 and 6 ❍ C. 4 and 8 ❍ D. 5 and 7

Answer 24

A and B. In a traditional crossover cable, wires 1 and 3 and wires 2 and 6 are crossed. The other options (Answers C and D) are not correct wiring choices for a traditional crossover cable.

Question 25

25. Which of the following is a security protocol designed to provide centralized validation of users who attempt to gain access to a router or Network Access Server (NAS)? ❍ A. RDP ❍ B. AAA ❍ C. TACACS+ ❍ D. ASDM

Answer 25

C. Terminal Access Controller Access Control System+ (TACACS+) is a security protocol designed to provide centralized validation of users who attempt to gain access to a router or Network Access Server (NAS). RDP, Remote Desktop Protocol (Answer A), is a presentation layer protocol that supports traffic between a Windows Terminal Client and Windows Terminal Server. AAA (Answer B) represents the authentication, authorization, and accounting model. ASDM (Answer D) is incorrect because it is a fictitious choice.

Question 26

26. Which of the following is a digitally signed statement that associates the credentials of a public key to the identity of the person, device, or service that holds the corresponding private key? ❍ A. certificate ❍ B. record ❍ C. card ❍ D. ticket

Answer 26

A. A certificate is a digitally signed statement that associates the credentials of a public key to the identity of the person, device, or service that holds the corresponding private key. The other choices (Answers B, C, and D) are not correct names for a digitally signed statement associating the credentials of a public key to the identity of the person, device, or service holding the private key.

Question 27

27. To prevent intruders from gaining access to your live data, you have been instructed to create another server that may lure attackers in and allow you to catch them in the act. What type of server do you need to create? ❍ A. NAT ❍ B. DMZ ❍ C. ACL ❍ D. Honeypot

Answer 27

D. A honeypot is a site created to lure attackers in and hopefully allow you to catch them in the act. Network Address Translation, or NAT (Answer A), is a standard that enables the translation of IP addresses used on one network to a different IP address that is acceptable for use on another network. A demilitarized zone, or DMZ (Answer B), is part of a network where you place servers that must be accessible by sources both outside and inside your network. An Access Control List, or ACL (Answer C), is a list of trustees assigned to a file or directory. A trustee can be any object available to the security subsystem.

Question 28

28. Which of the following is a collection of software, standards, and policies combined to enable users from the Internet or other unsecured public networks to securely exchange data? ❍ A. Honeynet ❍ B. PKI ❍ C. X.509 ❍ D. X.503

Answer 28

B. A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a collection of software, standards, and policies that are combined to allow users from the Internet or other unsecured public networks to securely exchange data. A honeynet (Answer A) is an entire network set up to monitor attacks from outsiders. X.509 (Answer C) and X.503 (Answer D) are standards not related to the question being asked and thus incorrect choices.

Question 29

29. Which of the following is a security protocol designed to ensure privacy between communicating client/server applications? ❍ A. STFP ❍ B. TFTP ❍ C. IGMP ❍ D. TLS

Answer 29

D. TLS is a security protocol designed to ensure privacy between communicating client/server applications. STFP (Answer A) is a protocol for securely uploading and downloading files to and from a remote host. TFTP (Answer B) is a UDP-based protocol for file transfer that does not include security or error checking. IGMP (Answer C) provides a mechanism for systems within the same multicast group to register and communicate with each other.

Question 30

30. Which type of RAID implements disk striping with distributed parity? ❍ A. RAID 1 ❍ B. RAID 5 ❍ C. RAID 0 ❍ D. RAID 0 + 1

Answer 30

B. RAID 5, disk striping with distributed parity, requires a minimum of three disks—the total size of a single disk being used for the parity calculation. RAID 1 (Answer A) is a fault-tolerant standard that mirrors data between two disks to create an exact copy. RAID 0 (Answer C) requires a minimum of two disks, offers no fault tolerance and improves I/O performance. RAID 0 + 1 (Answer D) combines RAID levels 1 and 0.

Question 31

31. Traffic is not being allowed through port 143 of the firewall. Which TCP or UDP protocol is associated with that port by default? ❍ A. IMAP ❍ B. RDP ❍ C. DNS ❍ D. DHCP

Answer 31

A. Port 143 is associated with IMAP by default. Port 3389, by default, is associated with RDP (Answer B), whereas port 53 is associated with DNS (Answer C), and ports 67 and 68 are associated with DHCP (Answer D).

Question 32

32. Which of the following refers to the rate of data delivery over a communication channel? ❍ A. Cost ❍ B. Convergence ❍ C. Throughput ❍ D. Latency

Answer 32

C. In the networking world, throughput refers to the rate of data delivery over a communication channel. Cost (Answer A) is a value used to encourage or discourage the use of a certain route through a network. Convergence (Answer B) is the time it takes for the routers to detect and accommodate a change. Latency (Answer D) is the delay induced by a piece of equipment or device used to transfer data.

Question 33

33. Which of the following involves the use of multiple antennas to increase data throughput? ❍ A. MIMO ❍ B. HSPA+ ❍ C. LTE ❍ D. WiMAX

Answer 33

A. The use of multiple antennas to increase throughput is a part of MIMO (multiple-input and multiple-output). The other technologies given as options (Answers B, C, and D) do not apply to antennas.

Question 34

34. Which of the following defines specifications for the Logical Link Control (LLC)? ❍ A. 802.2 ❍ B. 802.3 ❍ C. 802.11 ❍ D. 802.5

Answer 34

A. 802.2, the LLC sublayer, defines specifications for the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer in the 802 standard series. 802.3 (Answer B) defines the carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) media access method used in Ethernet networks. 802.11 (Answer C) is the standard for wireless local area networks (WLAN), whereas 802.5 (Answer D) is associated with token ring networks.

Question 35

35. Which of the following protocols enable client systems to access and run applications on a remote system, using that system’s resources? (Choose all correct answers.) ❍ A. RDP ❍ B. PCN ❍ C. NCV ❍ D. ICA

Answer 35

A and D. The RDP and ICA protocols allow client systems to access and run applications on a remote system, using that system’s resources. Only the user interface, keystrokes, and mouse movement are transferred between the client and server computers. Answers B (PCN) and C (NCV) are fictitious choices and thus incorrect.

Question 36

36. Which key is a nonsecret key that forms half of a cryptographic key pair used with a public key algorithm and freely given to all potential receivers? ❍ A. Open ❍ B. Public ❍ C. Private ❍ D. Restricted

Answer 36

B. A public key is a nonsecret key that forms half of a cryptographic key pair that is used with a public key algorithm. The public key is freely given to all potential receivers. A private key is the secret half of a cryptographic key pair that is used with a public key algorithm. The private part of the public key cryptography system is never transmitted over a network. The other choices (Answers A, C, and D) are incorrect terms for the public key.

Question 37

37. Which of the following is true on a network that uses CSMA/CD? ❍ A. Nodes can be prioritized for access to the network media. ❍ B. No node is given direct access to the network media. ❍ C. Every node has equal access to the network media. ❍ D. Collisions cannot occur.

Answer 37

C. On a network that uses CSMA/CD, every node has equal access to the network media. The other options (Answers A, B, and D) incorrectly state the relationship for a network using CSMA/CD.

Question 38

38. What hardware is located at the demarcation point? ❍ A. AP ❍ B. Punchdown block ❍ C. Terminator ❍ D. Smart jack

Answer 38

D. You need some form of hardware at the demarcation point: This is the smart jack, also known as the Network Interface Device (NID). An AP (Answer A) is an access point for a wireless network. A punchdown block (Answer B) is a device used to connect network cables from equipment closets or rooms to other parts of a building. A terminator (Answer C) is a hardware component used to stop a signal.

Question 39

39. Traffic is not being allowed through port 443 of the firewall. Which TCP or UDP protocol is associated with that port by default? ❍ A. RDP ❍ B. HTTPS ❍ C. SSH ❍ D. SMTP

Answer 39

B. Port 443 is associated with HTTPS by default. Port 3389, by default, is associated with RDP (Answer A), whereas port 22 is associated with SSH (Answer C), and port 25 is associated with SMTP (Answer D).

Question 40

40. What is the primary purpose of PPTP? ❍ A. Routes data through multiple ports ❍ B. Enables you to disable the capability for traffic to pass through a port ❍ C. Creates a secure tunnel between two points on a network ❍ D. Looks for inappropriate activity and sends notification of any potential threats

Answer 40

C. PPTP creates a secure tunnel between two points on a network, over which other connectivity protocols, such as PPP, can be used. This tunneling functionality is the basis for VPNs. The other choices (Answers A, B, and D) do not state the primary purpose of PPTP.

Question 41

41. Which of the following tests focus on network functioning today, as opposed to what may or may not be in the future? ❍ A. Load tests ❍ B. Performance tests ❍ C. EGP tests ❍ D. IGP tests

Answer 41

B. Performance tests are about network functioning today. Load tests (Answer A) look forward to see if performance may be hindered in the future by growth or other changes to the network. Both EGP (Answer C) and IGP (Answer D) are routing protocols and not applicable to the question asked.

Question 42

42. An IP address of 130.3.3.3 falls into which class? ❍ A. Class A ❍ B. Class B ❍ C. Class C ❍ D. Class D ❍ E. Class E

Answer 42

B. Class B addresses are within the range 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255. The other choices (Answers A, C, and D) represent incorrect ranges for Class B addresses.

Question 43

43. Which of the following is a framework defining the procedures for authentication, creation, and management of security associations (SAs), key generation techniques, and threat mitigation? ❍ A. STFP ❍ B. TFTP ❍ C. ISAKMP ❍ D. TLS

Answer 43

C. ISAKMP is a framework defining the procedures for authentication, creation, and management of security associations (SAs), key generation techniques, and threat mitigation. STFP (Answer A) is a protocol for securely uploading and downloading files to and from a remote host. TFTP (Answer B) is a UDP-based protocol for file transfer that does not include security or error checking. (Answer D) TLS is a security protocol designed to ensure privacy between communicating client/server applications.

Question 44

44. What type of cable connects systems to the switch or hub using the MDI-X ports? ❍ A. Plenum ❍ B. ISA ❍ C. Cross-over ❍ D. Straight-through

Answer 44

D. A straight-through cable is used to connect systems to the switch or hub using the MDI-X ports. A plenum cable (Answer A) is used in the space between the structural ceiling and a drop-down ceiling. ISA (Answer B) is the standard of the older, more common, 8-bit and 16-bit bus and card architectures. A cross-over cable (Answer C) is used to directly connect two devices.

Question 45

45. Which framework defines a spectrum of security measures, policies, and procedures that are combined to create a secure network? ❍ A. ACL ❍ B. AAA ❍ C. PKI ❍ D. ICS

Answer 45

B. AAA (authentication, authorization, and accounting) defines a spectrum of security measures, policies, and procedures that are combined to create a secure network. An Access Control List, or ACL (Answer A) is a list of trustees assigned to a file or directory. (A trustee can be any object available to the security subsystem.) PKI (Answer C) is a collection of software, standards, and policies combined to enable users from the Internet or other unsecured public networks to securely exchange data. ICS (Answer D) is an invalid option.

Question 46

46. You try to troubleshoot telephony issues. What enables you to connect to an existing communication line and use it (makes a call, answers a call, or listens in to a call)? ❍ A. OTDR ❍ B. TDR ❍ C. Butt set ❍ D. Loop back plug

Answer 46

C. A butt set enables the administrator or technician to butt into a communication line and use it. In the case of a phone line, a technician can use the line normally—that is, make a call, answer a call, or listen in to a call. An OTDR (Answer A) performs the same basic function as a wire media tester, but on optical media. TDRs (Answer B) work at the physical layer of the OSI model, sending a signal through a length of cable, looking for cable faults. A loop back plug (Answer D) has output and input wires crossed or shorted in a manner that enables all outgoing data to be routed back into the card.

Question 47

47. During what type of attack does an attacker send continuous ping packets to a server or network system, eventually tying up that system’s resources, making it unable to respond to requests from other systems? ❍ A. ICMP flood ❍ B. Buffer overflow ❍ C. Pharming ❍ D. Social engineering

Answer 47

A. One type of attack is called an ICMP flood attack (also known as a ping attack). The attacker sends continuous ping packets to a server or network system, eventually tying up that system’s resources, making it unable to respond to requests from other systems. Buffer overflow (Answer B) is an attack that occurs when more data is put into a buffer than it can hold, thereby overflowing it. Pharming (Answer C) redirects web traffic to an authorized server. Social engineering (Answer D) tricks individuals into giving an attacker data they would never volunteer.

Question 48

48. Traffic is not being allowed through port 3389 of the firewall. Which TCP or UDP protocol is associated with that port by default? ❍ A. RDP ❍ B. HTTPS ❍ C. SSH ❍ D. SMTP

Answer 48

A. Port 3389, by default, is associated with RDP. Port 443 is associated with HTTPS (Answer B) by default, whereas port 22 is associated with SSH (Answer C), and port 25 is associated with SMTP (Answer D).

Question 49

49. Which of the following are distance-vector protocols? (Choose all that apply.) ❍ A. IGRP ❍ B. OSPF ❍ C. RIP ❍ D. IS-IS

Answer 49

A and C. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) and Routing Information Protocol (RIP) are examples of distance-vector protocols. Linkstate protocols include Answer B, Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Answer D, Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS).

Question 50

50. Which of the following refers to specific access permissions assigned to an object or device on the network? (For example, wireless routers can be configured to restrict who can and cannot access the router based on the MAC address.) ❍ A. GFS ❍ B. DAC ❍ C. RBAC ❍ D. ACL

Answer 50

D. An access control list (ACL) typically refers to specific access permissions assigned to an object or device on the network. For example, wireless routers can be configured to restrict who can and cannot access the router based on the MAC address. GFS (Answer A) is the Grandfather-Father-Son method of backup media rotation. DAC (Answer B) is discretionary access control, which is controlled by an object’s owner. RBAC (Answer C) is the rule based access control method in which access to objects is given according to established rules.

Question 51

51. Which of the following refers to the mechanisms used to verify the identity of the computer or user attempting to access a particular resource (including passwords and biometrics)? ❍ A. Access Control ❍ B. Authentication ❍ C. Authorization ❍ D. Accounting

Answer 51

B. Authentication refers to the mechanisms used to verify the identity of the computer or user attempting to access a particular resource. This includes passwords and biometrics. Access Control (Answer A) describes the mechanisms used to filter network traffic to determine who is and who is not allowed to access the network and network resources. Authorization (Answer C) refers to identifying the resources a user can access after he is authenticated. Accounting (Answer D) refers to the tracking methods used to identify who is using the network and what he is doing on the network.

Question 52

52. Which of the following protocols facilitates the access and downloading of messages from newsgroup servers? ❍ A. NTP ❍ B. NNTP ❍ C. SIP ❍ D. RTP

Answer 52

B. NNTP (Network News Transfer Protocol) facilitates the access and downloading of messages from newsgroup servers. Answer A, NTP (Network Time Protocol) is used to communicate time synchronization information between devices. Answer C, SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is an application layer protocol designed to establish and maintain multimedia sessions such as Internet telephony calls. Answer D, RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol) is the Internet-standard protocol for the transport of real-time data.

Question 53

53. When a WAN is confined to a certain geographic area, such as a university campus or city, it is sometimes known as which of the following? ❍ A. MAN ❍ B. SAN ❍ C. NAS ❍ D. CRAN

Answer 53

A. A WAN may be referenced as a MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) when it is confined to a certain geographic area, such as a university campus or city. The other choices are incorrect as a WAN is not referred to as a storage area network (Answer B), or network attached storage (Answer C), or the fictitious CRAN (Answer D).

Question 54

54. Which of the following refers to the wireless technologies involved in connecting devices in close proximity to exchange data or resources? ❍ A. CAN ❍ B. WAN ❍ C. WPAN ❍ D. MPLAN

Answer 54

C. WPAN (Wireless Personal Area Network) refers to the wireless technologies involved in connecting devices in close proximity to exchange data or resources. A campus area network (Answer A) is a WAN (Answer B) confined to a small area. Answer D, MPLAN, is a fictitious choice.

Question 55

55. What protocol is used by systems within a multicast group to communicate registration information with each other? ❍ A. ICMP ❍ B. IGMP ❍ C. NNTP ❍ D. NTP

Answer 55

B. Internet Group Multicast Protocol (IGMP) is used by systems within the same multicast group to communicate registration information. Answer A, Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) works with IP to provide error checking and reporting functionality on a network. Answer C, Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP) is used to access Internet newsgroups. Answer D, Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize system time with Internet servers.

Question 56

56. Which of the following connectors would you use when working with fiber-optic cable? (Choose the two best answers.) ❍ A. RJ-11 ❍ B. SC ❍ C. RJ-45 ❍ D. ST ❍ E. BNC

Answer 56

B and D. Fiber-optic cable can use either SC- or ST-type connectors. RJ-11 connectors (answer A) are associated with telephone cable, RJ-45 connectors (answer C) are associated with UTP cable, and BNC connectors (answer E) are associated with thin coaxial cable.

Question 57

57. Your manager asks you to procure a cable with a Type A connector on one end and a Type B connector on the other. What kind of interface are you most likely to be dealing with? ❍ A. FireWire ❍ B. USB ❍ C. RJ-11 ❍ D. Fiber-optic

Answer 57

B. USB interfaces have a number of connectors associated with them, but the most common are called Type A and Type B. FireWire interfaces (Answer A) use either a four-pin or six-pin connector; neither is referred to as Type A or Type B. RJ-11 (Answer C) is a type of connector associated with phone system wiring. Fiber-optic interfaces (Answer D) use a wide range of connectors, but none are called Type A or Type B.

Question 58

58. Which of the following wireless security protocols uses TKIP? ❍ A. WEP-open ❍ B. WEP-shared ❍ C. WPA ❍ D. WAP-shared

Answer 58

C. The WPA wireless security protocol uses TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol), which scrambles encryption keys using a hashing algorithm. Then the keys are issued an integrity check to verify that they have not been modified or tampered with during transit. Answers A and B are incorrect because TKIP encryption is not used with WEP. Answer D is not a valid encryption protocol.

Question 59

59. Which of the following is a valid Class A IP address? ❍ A. 124.254.254.254 ❍ B. 127.0.0.1 ❍ C. 128.16.200.12 ❍ D. 131.17.25.200

Answer 59

A. Class A subnets use the range 1 to 126 for the value of the first octet. Answer B is the IPv4 loopback address, which enables the IP stack functionality to be tested. Answers C and D are both addresses in the Class B range (128 to 191).

Question 60

60. You are the administrator for a network with 2 Windows Server systems and 40 Windows 7 Professional systems. One morning, three users call to report that they are having problems accessing the Windows servers. Upon investigation, you determine that the DHCP server application running on one of the servers has crashed and that the three systems are using addresses assigned via APIPA. All other systems, which were started before the DHCP server application crashed, function correctly. Which of the following statements about the situation are correct? (Choose two.) ❍ A. Systems with an APIPA assigned address can communicate with each other. ❍ B. Systems with an APIPA assigned address can talk to other systems that have an IP address from the DHCP server. ❍ C. Systems with an APIPA assigned address cannot access the Internet. ❍ D. Each system with an APIPA assigned address cannot communicate with any other system on the network.

Answer 60

A and C. Systems that have APIPA-assigned addresses can talk to each other (answer A), but not with any other systems (answer B). Systems with APIPAassigned addresses cannot access the Internet (answer C) because the APIPAassigned information does not include default gateway information. Therefore, communication is limited to the local network. Answer D is incorrect because the systems with APIPA addresses can talk to each other, even though they cannot communicate with any other systems.

Question 61

61. Which of the following is a protocol and not part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose all that apply.) ❍ A. VPN ❍ B. FTP ❍ C. DHCP ❍ D. HTTP ❍ E. DNS

Answer 61

A. Of the options listed, only VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology and not a protocol, thus not part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Answers B, C, D, and E are all protocols used in TCP/IP networks.

Question 62

62. You are attempting to configure a client’s email program. The user can receive mail but cannot send any. In the mail server configuration screen of the mail application, you notice that the Type of Outgoing Mail Server field is blank. This explains why the client cannot send mail. Which of the following protocols are you most likely to enter as a value in the Type of Outgoing Mail Server field? ❍ A. NMP ❍ B. POP3 ❍ C. SMTP ❍ D. IMAP

Answer 62

C. SMTP is used to send email and is a protocol within the TCP/IP protocol suite. Answer A is not a valid protocol. Answers B and D are incorrect because POP3 and IMAP are email retrieval protocols, not protocols for sending email.

Question 63

63. Which of the following is a configurable client identification setting used to differentiate one WLAN from another? ❍ A. SID ❍ B. WEP ❍ C. SSID ❍ D. Wireless channel

Answer 63

C. The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is a unique identifier sent over the WLAN that acts as a simple password used when a client attempts to access an access point. The SSID is used to differentiate between networks; therefore, the client system and the AP must use the same SSID. Answer A is incorrect because a Security Identifier (commonly abbreviated SID) is a unique name (an alphanumeric character string) which is assigned by a Windows Domain controller during the log on process that is used to identify a subject, such as a user or a group of users in a network of Windows systems. WEP (Answer B) represents a form of wireless security, and the wireless channel (Answer D) is the band of frequency used for the wireless communication.

Question 64

64. Which of the following is a valid MAC address? ❍ A. 00:D0:59:09:07:51 ❍ B. 00:D0:59 ❍ C. 192.168.2.1 ❍ D. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 ❍ E. 00:DG:59:09:07:51

Answer 64

A. The MAC address is a 6-byte address expressed in six pairs of hexadecimal values. Because it is hexadecimal, only the letters A through F and numbers can be used. Answer B is incorrect because MAC addresses are expressed as six hexadecimal pairs. Answer C is an example of an IPv4 address. Answer D is an example of an IPv6 address. Answer E is incorrect because MAC addresses are expressed in hexadecimal; therefore, only the letters A through F and numbers can be used.

Question 65

65. Which of the following best describes 802.1x? ❍ A. Port-based access control ❍ B. A wireless standard specifying 11Mbps data transfer ❍ C. A wireless standard specifying 54Mbps data transfer ❍ D. Integrity-based access control

Answer 65

A. 802.1x is an IEEE standard specifying port-based network access control. Port-based network access control uses the physical characteristics of a switched local area network (LAN) infrastructure to authenticate devices attached to a LAN port and to prevent access to that port in cases where the authentication process fails. The other choices (Answers B, C, and D) do not describe 802.1x.

Question 66

66. Which command produces the following output? ;; global options: printcmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER

Answer 66

C. The output shown is from the dig command. dig is used on UNIX and Linux systems to run manual DNS lookups. The nslookup command (answer A) also performs this function, but it produces different output. The nbtstat command (answer B) provides information on NetBIOS name resolutions. The netstat command (answer D) shows what TCP/IP protocol connections have been established on a system. These commands produce different output from dig.

Question 67

66. Which command produces the following output? ;; global options: printcmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER

Answer 67

B. The –f switch of route clears all gateway entries. The –p switch (Answer A) is used with ADD to make routes persistent. The other two options (Answers C and D) are not valid switches with the route utility.

Question 68

68. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for placing the signal on the network medium? ❍ A. Physical ❍ B. Data link ❍ C. MAC ❍ D. LLC

Answer 68

A. The physical layer of the OSI seven-layer model is responsible for placing the signal on the network medium. The data link layer (answer B) is responsible for physical addressing and media access. MAC and LLC (answers C and D) are sublayers of the data link layer.

Question 69

69. An IP address of 230.5.7.9 falls into which class? ❍ A. Class A ❍ B. Class B ❍ C. Class C ❍ D. Class D ❍ E. Class E

Answer 69

D. Class D addresses fall within the range 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. Class D addresses are used for multicasting. The other choices (Answers A, B, C, and E) are incorrect because their ranges do not include 230.x.x.x.

Question 70

70. Which TCP or UDP protocol is associated with port 22 by default? ❍ A. RDP ❍ B. HTTPS ❍ C. SSH ❍ D. SMTP

Answer 70

C. Port 22 is associated with SSH, by default. Port 3389 is associated with RDP (Answer A). Port 443 is associated with HTTPS (Answer B) by default, whereas port 25 is associated with SMTP (Answer D).

Question 71

71. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for synchronizing the data exchange between applications on separate devices? ❍ A. Presentation ❍ B. Session ❍ C. Transport ❍ D. Network

Answer 71

B. The session layer synchronizes the data exchange between applications on separate devices. The presentation layer (Answer A) converts data from the application layer into a format that can be sent over the network. The transport layer (Answer C) establishes, maintains, and breaks connections between two devices. The network layer (Answer D) provides mechanisms for the routing of data between devices across single or multiple network segments.

Question 72

72. Which of the following performs the same basic function as a wire media tester, but on optical media? ❍ A. Punchdown tool ❍ B. Voltage event recorder ❍ C. Toner probe ❍ D. OTDR

Answer 72

D. An OTDR performs the same basic function as a wire media tester, but on optical media. Punchdown tools (Answer A) are used to attach twisted-pair network cable to connectors within a patch panel. Voltage event recorders (Answer B) are used to monitor the quality of power used on the network or by network hardware. Toner probes (Answer C) are used to locate cables hidden in floors, ceilings, or walls and to track cables from the patch panel to their destination.

Question 73

73. Which two of the following protocols are commonly used to create and manage VPNs? (Choose two.) ❍ A. PPPoE ❍ B. SIP ❍ C. PPTP ❍ D. L2TP

Answer 73

C and D. VPNs are created and managed by using protocols such as PPTP and L2TP, which build on the functionality of PPP. This makes it possible to create dedicated point-to-point tunnels through a public network (the Internet). Answer A, PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) is used for encapsulating frames and does not allow electrical power to be transmitted over Ethernet. Answer B, SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is an applicationlayer protocol designed to establish and maintain multimedia sessions such as Internet telephony calls.

Question 74

74. Which of the following are specifically used to locate cables and track them from the patch panel to their destination? ❍ A. Toner probes ❍ B. Cable certifiers ❍ C. Punchdown tools ❍ D. Butt sets

Answer 74

A. Toner probes are specifically used to locate cables hidden in floors, ceilings, or walls and to track cables from the patch panel to their destination. Cable certifiers (Answer B) are a type of tester that enables you to certify cabling by testing it for speed and performance to see that the implementation lives up to the ratings. Punchdown tools (Answer C) are used to attach twisted-pair network cable to connectors within a patch panel. A butt set (Answer D) enables the administrator or technician to butt into a communication line and use it.

Question 75

75. Which of the following refers to the method used to determine if an authenticated user has access to a particular resource (commonly determined through group association)? ❍ A. Access Control ❍ B. Authentication ❍ C. Authorization ❍ D. Accounting

Answer 75

C. Authorization is the method used to determine if an authenticated user has access to a particular resource. This is commonly determined through group association—a particular group may have a specific level of security clearance. Access control (Answer A) describes the mechanisms used to filter network traffic to determine who is and who is not allowed to access the network and network resources. Authentication (Answer B) refers to the mechanisms used to verify the identity of the computer or user attempting to access a particular resource (including passwords and biometrics). Accounting (Answer D) refers to the tracking methods used to identify who uses the network and what they do on the network.

Question 76

76. Which of the following is part of a strategic security solution that provides secure authentication services to users, applications, and network devices? ❍ A. Kerberos ❍ B. PKI ❍ C. LDAP ❍ D. SSL

Answer 76

A. Kerberos is one part of a strategic security solution that provides secure authentication services to users, applications, and network devices. It eliminates the insecurities caused by passwords being stored or transmitted across the network. PKI (Answer B) is a collection of software, standards, and policies combined to enable users from the Internet or other unsecured public networks to securely exchange data. LDAP (Answer C) is a protocol used to access and query compliant directory services systems such as Microsoft Active Directory and Novell Directory services. SSL (Answer D) is a method of securely transmitting information to and receiving information from a remote website.

Question 77

77. Which key is the secret half of a cryptographic key pair that is never transmitted over a network? ❍ A. Open ❍ B. Public ❍ C. Private ❍ D. Restricted

Answer 77

C. A private key is the secret half of a cryptographic key pair used with a public key algorithm. The private part of the public key cryptography system is never transmitted over a network. A public key is a nonsecret key that forms half of a cryptographic key pair used with a public key algorithm. The public key is freely given to all potential receivers. The other choices (Answers A, B, and D) are incorrect terms for the private key.

Question 78

78. Which of the following refers to the tracking mechanisms used to keep a record of events on a system? ❍ A. Access Control ❍ B. Authentication ❍ C. Authorization ❍ D. Accounting

Answer 78

D. Accounting refers to the tracking mechanisms used to keep a record of events on a system. Access Control (Answer A) describes the mechanisms used to filter network traffic to determine who is and who is not allowed to access the network and network resources. Authentication (Answer B) refers to the mechanisms used to verify the identity of the computer or user attempting to access a particular resource (including passwords and biometrics). Authorization (Answer C) is the method used to determine if an authenticated user has access to a particular resource.

Question 79

79. To create secure data transmissions, IPSec uses which two separate protocols? ❍ A. EGP and ARP ❍ B. EIGRP and IGRP ❍ C. AH and IGRP ❍ D. AH and ESP

Answer 79

D. To create secure data transmissions, IPSec uses two separate protocols: Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP). The other choices (Answers A, B, and C) do not list the correct protocols that IPSec uses.

Question 80

80. Which of the following defines the carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) media access method used in Ethernet networks? ❍ A. 802.2 ❍ B. 802.3 ❍ C. 802.11 ❍ D. 802.5

Answer 80

B. 802.3 defines the carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) media access method used in Ethernet networks. 802.2 (Answer A), the LLC sublayer, defines specifications for the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer in the 802 standard series. 802.11 (Answer C) is the standard for wireless local area networks (WLAN), whereas 802.5 (Answer D) is associated with token ring networks.

Question 81

81. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for converting data from the application layer into a format that can be sent over the network? ❍ A. Presentation ❍ B. Session ❍ C. Transport ❍ D. Network

Answer 81

A. The presentation layer converts data from the application layer into a format that can be sent over the network. The session layer (Answer B) synchronizes the data exchange between applications on separate devices. The transport layer (Answer C) establishes, maintains, and breaks connections between two devices. The network layer (Answer D) provides mechanisms for the routing of data between devices across single or multiple network segments.

Question 82

82. Which of the following is part of a network on which you place servers that must be accessible by sources both outside and inside your network? ❍ A. MAN ❍ B. SAN ❍ C. NAS ❍ D. DMZ

Answer 82

D. A DMZ is part of a network on which you place servers that must be accessible by sources both outside and inside your network. A metropolitan area network, or MAN (Answer A), is a network that spans a defined geographic location, such as a city or suburb. A storage area network, or SAN (Answer B), is a network of storage disks. A demilitarized zone, or DMZ (Answer D), is part of a network where you place servers that must be accessible by sources both outside and inside your network.

Question 83

83. Which type of RAID offers no fault tolerance and improves I/O performance (requiring a minimum of two disks)? ❍ A. RAID 1 ❍ B. RAID 5 ❍ C. RAID 0 ❍ D. RAID 0 + 1

Answer 83

C. RAID 0 offers no fault tolerance and improves I/O performance. It requires a minimum of two disks. RAID 1 (Answer A) is a fault-tolerant standard that mirrors data between two disks to create an exact copy. RAID 5 (Answer B), disk striping with distributed parity, requires a minimum of three disks—the total size of a single disk being used for the parity calculation. RAID 0 + 1 (Answer D) combines RAID levels 1 and 0.

Question 84

84. Which type of media is used to connect telecommunication rooms, server rooms, and remote locations and offices? ❍ A. PVC ❍ B. Plenum ❍ C. Vertical ❍ D. Tracer

Answer 84

C. Vertical cable, or backbone cable, refers to the media used to connect telecommunication rooms, server rooms, and remote locations and offices. A plenum cable (Answer B) is used in the space between the structural ceiling and a drop-down ceiling. Answers A (PVC) and D (tracer) are fictitious choices.

Question 85

85. Which switch can be used with ping to force it to use IPv6? ❍ A. -6 ❍ B. -a ❍ C. -n ❍ D. -l

Answer 85

A. The -6 switch is used with ping to force it to use IPv6; similarly -4 can be used to force it to use IPv4. The –a switch (Answer B) is used to resolve addresses to hostnames, whereas –n (Answer C) enables you specify a number of echo requests to send. The –l option (Answer D) enables you set the buffer size.

Question 86

86. What is the next step in the troubleshooting methodology after testing the theory to determine cause? ❍ A. Identify the problem. ❍ B. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary. ❍ C. Establish a theory of probable cause. ❍ D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.

Answer 86

D. The next step is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects. The steps in the methodology are 1. Identify the problem (Answer A), 2. Establish a theory of probable cause (Answer C), 3. Test the theory to determine cause, 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, 5. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary (Answer B), 6. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and 7. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Question 87

87. What is the software-based firewall included with Windows 7 known as? ❍ A. PAT ❍ B. Firewall Manager ❍ C. ICS ❍ D. Windows Firewall

Answer 87

D. Windows Firewall is the software-based firewall included with Windows 7. PAT (Answer A) is a variation on NAT in which all systems on the LAN are translated to the same IP address, but with a different port number assignment. Firewall Manager (Answer B) is a fictitious option. ICS (Answer C) is not a valid option.

Question 88

88. Which of the following is a UDP-based protocol for file transfer that does not include security or error checking? ❍ A. STFP ❍ B. TFTP ❍ C. IGMP ❍ D. TLS

Answer 88

B. TFTP is a UDP-based protocol for file transfer that does not include security or error checking. SFTP (Answer A) is a protocol for securely uploading and downloading files to and from a remote host. IGMP (Answer C) provides a mechanism for systems within the same multicast group to register and communicate with each other. TLS (Answer D) is a security protocol designed to ensure privacy between communicating client/server applications.

Question 89

89. Which utility is shown in the following figure (portions of which have been obscured to prevent telegraphing the answer)? Exam Questions 581 ❍ A. Event Viewer ❍ B. System Monitor ❍ C. Performance Monitor ❍ D. Network Monitor **NOTE: has image not present**

Answer 89

A. Windows server and desktop systems such as Windows 7/Vista/XP and 2000 use Event Viewer to view many of the key log files. The logs in Event Viewer can be used to find information on, for example, an error on the system or a security incident. The other options (Answers B, C, and D) are incorrect because only Event Viewer is shown in the figure.

Question 90

90. Which type of the following fiber connectors has a twist-type attachment? ❍ A. ST ❍ B. SC ❍ C. LC ❍ D. MT-RJ

Answer 90

A. ST connectors are associated with fiber cabling and have twist-type attachments. SC (Answer B), LC (Answer C), and MT-RJ (Answer D) connectors are associated with fiber cabling, and all three have push-on attachments.

Question 91

91. You are configuring a secretary’s workstation to share files with others on the network. You want anything she places in a particular location to be automatically shared with users who have access to that folder. All workstations in question, including the secretary’s, run Windows 7. What feature of Windows 7 should you use to best accomplish this? ❍ A. Custom folders ❍ B. Public folders ❍ C. File essentials ❍ D. Campus foundation

Answer 91

B. Public folders are used to share with others on the network. In Windows 7, there is a public folder available beneath each library (Documents, Music, Video, and so on). The other options (Answers A, C, and D) are incorrect choices.

Question 92

92. Which utility is shown in the following figure (portions of which have been obscured to prevent telegraphing the answer)? ❍ A. tracert ❍ B. arp ❍ C. ping ❍ D. netstat **NOTE: this question has image not present**

Answer 92

C. The ping utility is used to test connectivity between two hosts and is shown in the figure. The other options (Answers A, B, and D) are incorrect because ping is the utility shown in the figure.

Question 93

93. How does a router that uses a link-state protocol differ from a router that uses a distance-vector protocol? ❍ A. Link-state builds a map of the entire network and then holds that map in memory. ❍ B. Distance-vector builds a map of the entire network and then holds that map in memory. ❍ C. Link-state uses only persistent links. ❍ D. Distance-vector uses only persistent links.

Answer 93

A. A router that uses a link-state protocol differs from a router that uses a distance- vector protocol because it builds a map of the entire network and then holds that map in memory. Link-state protocols include Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS). The other options (Answers B, C, and D) are incorrect statements.

Question 94

94. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and breaking connections between two devices? ❍ A. Presentation ❍ B. Session ❍ C. Transport ❍ D. Network

Answer 94

C. The transport layer establishes, maintains, and breaks connections between two devices. The presentation layer (Answer A) converts data from the application layer into a format that can be sent over the network. The session layer (Answer B) synchronizes the data exchange between applications on separate devices. The network layer (Answer D) provides mechanisms for the routing of data between devices across single or multiple network segments.

Question 95

95. A toner probe consists of which two parts? ❍ A. Tone gauge and tone indicator ❍ B. Tone sine and tone cosine ❍ C. Tone generator and tone locator ❍ D. Tone test and tone bank

Answer 95

C. A toner probe has two parts—the tone generator (or toner), and the tone locator (or probe). The toner sends the tone, and at the other end of the cable, the probe receives the toner’s signal. This tool makes it easier to find the beginning and end of a cable. The other options (Answers A, B, and D) are not correct because they do not represent the two parts of a toner probe.

Question 96

96. An IP address of 241.45.37.29 falls into which class? ❍ A. Class A ❍ B. Class B ❍ C. Class C ❍ D. Class D ❍ E. Class E

Answer 96

E. Class E addresses fall within the range 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255. Class E addresses are reserved and cannot be assigned. The other options (Answers A, B, C, and D) are incorrect because an address of 241.x.x.x would fall only within Class E.

Question 97

97. Which TCP or UDP protocol is associated with port 25 by default? ❍ A. RDP ❍ B. HTTPS ❍ C. SSH ❍ D. SMTP

Answer 97

D. Port 25 is associated with SMTP by default. Port 3389 is associated with RDP (Answer A). Port 443 is associated with HTTPS by default (Answer B), while port 22 is associated with SSH (Answer C).

Question 98

98. The CIDR notation for the network you are now troubleshooting is 192.168.67.32/28. What is the range of IPv4 addresses that can be assigned to workstations? ❍ A. 192.168.67.33 to 192.168.67.46 ❍ B. 192.168.67.33 to 192.168.67.62 ❍ C. 192.168.67.1 to 192.168.67.62 ❍ D. 192.168.67.1 to 192.168.67.126

Answer 98

A. The IP addresses available beneath 192.168.67.32/28 range from 192.168.67.33 to 192.168.67.46. With 28 mask bits, only 14 hosts can exist on a subnet. The other options (Answers B, C, and D) are incorrect ranges for the address and subnet values given.

Question 99

99. Which utility is shown in the following figure (portions of which have been obscured to prevent telegraphing the answer)? Exam Questions 583 ❍ A. ipconfig ❍ B. nbtstat ❍ C. ifconfig ❍ D. nslookup **NOTE: has image not present**

Answer 99

B. The nbtstat utility is used to view statistics related to NetBIOS name resolution and to see information about current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. ipconfig (Answer A) is used to view and renew TCP/IP configuration on a Windows system, whereas ifconfig (Answer C) is its counterpart in the UNIX/Linux operating systems. nslookup (Answer D) is used to perform manual DNS lookups.

Question 100

100. A colleague asks to take a measure of performance that indicates how hard the network is working and where network resources are being spent. What is this known as? ❍ A. Foundation ❍ B. Metric ❍ C. Baseline ❍ D. Control

Answer 100

C. A baseline is a measure of performance that indicates how hard the network works and where network resources are spent. The other choices (Answers A, B, and D) represent wrong terms for a baseline.