Network+(Module 1) Flashcards

1
Q

client-server network definition

A

Administration paradigm where some host machines are designated as providing server and services, and other machines are designated as client devices that only consume server services.

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2
Q

peer-to-peer network definition

A

Administration paradigm whereby any computer device may be configured to operate as both server and client.

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3
Q

local area network (LAN) definition

A

Network scope restricted to a single geographic location and owned/managed by a single organization.

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4
Q

Small office/home office (SOHO) network definition

A

Category of network type and products that are used to implement small-scale LANs and off-the-shelf Internet connection types.

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5
Q

Datacenter definition

A

Facility dedicated to the provisioning of reliable power, environmental controls, and network fabric to server computers.

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6
Q

wide area network (WAN) definition

A

Network scope that spans a large geographical area, incorporating more than one site and often a mix of different media types and protocols plus the use of public telecommunications networks.

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7
Q

topology definition

A

Network specification that determines the network’s overall layout, signaling, and dataflow patterns.

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8
Q

point to point link definition

A

A point-to-point topology is one where two nodes have a dedicated connection to one another.

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9
Q

bandwidth definition

A

Generally used to refer to the amount of data that can be transferred through a connection over a given period. Bandwidth more properly means the range of frequencies supported by transmission media, measured in Hertz.

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10
Q

star topology definition

A

In a star network, each node is connected to a central point, typically a switch or a router. The central point mediates communications between the attached nodes. When a device such as a hub is used, the hub receives signals from a node and repeats the signal to all other connected nodes. Therefore the bandwidth is still shared between all nodes. When a device such as a switch is used, point-to-point links are established between each node as required. The circuit established between the two nodes can use the full bandwidth capacity of the network media.

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11
Q

hub-and-spoke topology definition

A

Wide area network topology with the same layout as a star topology.

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12
Q

mesh topology definition

A

A topology often used in WANs where each device has (in theory) a point-to-point connection with every other device (fully connected); in practice, only the more important devices are directly interconnected (partial mesh).

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13
Q

Which of the following networking terms refers to the nodes that send and receive data traffic?
- End systems
- Network protocols
- Network links
- Intermediate nodes

A

End systems

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14
Q

What type of network would BEST meet your requirements where each computer acts as both a client and a server?
- Peer-to-Peer network
- Virtual Private network
- Client-Server network
- Enterprise network

A

Peer-to-Peer network

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15
Q

A growing company has recently moved into a new office space with 50 employees, printers, and a centralized server. Which network would be MOST effective?
- Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) network
- Wide Area Network (WAN)
- Data Center
- Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) network

A

Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) network

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16
Q

Which type of network would be MOST suitable for connecting branch offices in different countries?
- Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) network
- Wide Area Network (WAN)
- Local Area Network (LAN)
- Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) network

A

Wide Area Network (WAN)

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17
Q

When referencing network topologies, what distinguishes half-duplex from full-duplex communication?
- Half-duplex communication can only occur in one direction
- Full-duplex communication is limited to one direction at a time
- Half-duplex allows for data in both directions, but not simultaneously; full-duplex permits simultaneous two-way data transmission
- Half-duplex uses a single cable, full-duplex uses separate cables

A

Half-duplex allows for data in both directions, but not simultaneously; full-duplex permits simultaneous two-way data transmission

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18
Q

Your company has a network where all devices can communicate regardless of physical connections. What type of network topology does this describe?
- Star topology
- Ring topology
- Mesh topology
- Logical topology

A

Logical topology

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19
Q

You manage a network using a star topology. What effect will removing one cable have?
- Only devices on one side of the missing cable will communicate
- All devices except the device with the drop cable will communicate
- Devices on one side will communicate, others will not
- No devices will communicate

A

All devices except the device connected with the drop cable will be able to communicate

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20
Q

Which of the following topologies connects each device to a central forwarding appliance?
- Bus
- Mesh
- Star
- Ring

A

Star

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21
Q

You have a network with a full mesh topology, and a link breaks between two devices. What is the effect?
- Device A will communicate with all except Device B
- Device A will communicate with all other devices
- Device A will not communicate with any device
- No devices will communicate

A

Device A will be able to communicate with all other devices

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22
Q

You�ve implemented an ad hoc wireless network without an access point. What physical topology have you used?
- Star
- Mesh
- Bus
- Ring

A

Mesh

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23
Q

Which topology BEST saves power and scales easily for IoT sensor devices?
- Mesh
- Bus
- Ring
- Star

A

Mesh

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24
Q

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model definition

A

Assigns network and hardware components and functions at seven discrete layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application.

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25
Q

Addressing definition

A

Unique identifier for a network node, such as a MAC address, IPv4 address, or IPv6 address

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26
Q

Encapsulation definition

A

A method by which protocols build data packets by adding headers and trailers to existing data.

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27
Q

protocol data unit (PDU) definition

A

Network packet encapsulating a data payload from an upper layer protocol with header fields used at the current layer.

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28
Q

Physical layer (PHY) definition

A

Lowest layer of the OSI model providing for the transmission and receipt of data bits from node to node. This includes the network medium and mechanical and electrical specifications for using the media. Also referred to as layer 1.

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29
Q

Transceiver definition

A

Component in a network interface that converts data to and from the media signalling type. Modular transceivers are designed to plug into switches and routers.

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30
Q

Repeater definition

A

Layer 1 device that regenerates and retransmits signals to overcome media distance limitations.

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31
Q

hub definition

A

Layer 1 (Physical) network device used to implement a star network topology on legacy Ethernet networks, working as a multiport repeater.

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32
Q

Media converter definition

A

Layer 1 (Physical) network device that translates signals received over one media type for transmission over a different media type.

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33
Q

Data Link layer definition

A

OSI model layer responsible for transferring data between nodes. Also called layer 2

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34
Q

Network adapter or network interface card (NIC) definition

A

Adapter card that provides one or more Ethernet ports for connecting hosts to a network so that they can exchange data over a link.

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35
Q

Bridge definition

A

Intermediate system that isolates collision domains to separate segments while joining segments within the same broadcast domain.

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36
Q

Switch definition

A

Intermediate system used to establish contention-free network segments at layer 2 (Data Link).

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37
Q

Wireless access point (AP) definition

A

A device that provides a connection between wireless devices and can connect to wired networks, implementing an infrastructure mode WLAN.

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38
Q

Network layer definition

A

OSI model layer responsible for logical network addressing and forwarding.

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39
Q

firewall definition

A

Software or hardware device that protects a network segment or individual host by filtering packets to an access control list.

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40
Q

access control list (ACL) definition

A

The collection of access control entries (ACEs) that determines which subjects (user accounts, host IP addresses, and so on) are allowed or denied access to the object and the privileges given (read-only, read/write, and so on).

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41
Q

Transport layer definition

A

OSI model layer responsible for ensuring reliable data delivery.

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42
Q

Session layer (layer 5) definition

A

OSI model layer that provides services for applications that need to exchange multiple messages (dialog control). Also referred to as layer 5.

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43
Q

Presentation layer (layer 6) definition

A

OSI model layer that transforms data between the formats used by the network and applications. Also called layer 6.

44
Q

Application layer (layer 7) definition

A

OSI model layer providing support to applications requiring network services (file transfer, printing, email, databases, and so on). Also called layer 7.

45
Q

Which of the following are layers of the OSI reference model? (Select three.)
- Session Layer
- WAN Layer
- Transmission Layer
- Connection Layer
- Presentation Layer
- Encryption Layer
- Application Layer

A

Session Layer, Presentation Layer, Application Layer

46
Q

What is a Protocol Data Unit (PDU)?
- A measure of data transmission speed
- A chunk of data with protocol-specific headers added at each OSI layer
- A device that manages data transmission rates
- A type of encryption used in data transmission

A

A chunk of data with protocol-specific headers added at each OSI layer

47
Q

What is the primary purpose of data encapsulation in network protocols?
- To convert data into an analog signal for transmission
- To add additional data headers for routing and delivery
- To compress data for faster transmission
- To encrypt data for secure transmission

A

To add additional data headers for routing and delivery

48
Q

Of the choices, which layer 1 implementation does the engineer utilize?
- Switch
- Media converter
- Bridge
- VoIP endpoint

A

Media converter

49
Q

A communications engineer notices that every time it rains the signal becomes very degraded. Which layer of the OSI model is the engineer troubleshooting?
- Application
- Transport
- Data Link
- Physical

A

Physical

50
Q

Which of the following devices operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model? (Select three.)
- Repeaters
- Routers
- Switches
- Network interface cards (NICs)
- Hubs
- Gateways
- Bridges

A

Switches, Network interface cards (NICs), Bridges

51
Q

Which of the following are header fields added by the Data Link layer during encapsulation? (Select three.)
- Destination hardware address
- TTL (Time to Live)
- Source hardware address
- Window size
- Sequence number
- Checksum for basic error checking
- Encryption type

A

Destination hardware address, Source hardware address, Checksum for basic error checking

52
Q

What is the role of an Access Control List (ACL) at Layer 3 (Network layer) of the OSI model?
- To filter network traffic by permitting or blocking packets based on IP addresses and other criteria
- To serve as a list of permissions for file access on the network
- To act as a routing protocol for determining the best path for data
- To define the maximum size for packets transmitted across the network

A

To filter network traffic by permitting or blocking packets based on IP addresses and other criteria

53
Q

In the OSI model, what is the primary function of the Network layer?
- To move data around an internetwork using logical network and host IDs
- To encode and convert data into signals suitable for transmission
- To establish, manage, and terminate connections between applications
- To ensure reliable transmission of data across a physical link

A

To move data around an internetwork using logical network and host IDs

54
Q

Which of the following functions are performed by the OSI Transport layer? (Select three.)
- Data segmentation and reassembly
- Consistent data formatting between dissimilar systems
- Path identification and selection
- End-to-end flow control
- Reliable message delivery
- Packet forwarding for delivery through a medium
- Media access control, logical topology, and device identification

A

Data segmentation and reassembly, End-to-end flow control, Reliable message delivery

55
Q

A security engineer configures software-based port security on a hardware firewall. Which OSI model layer identifies the application ports to configure?
- Layer 3
- Layer 2
- Layer 4
- Layer 1

A

Layer 4

56
Q

What role does the Presentation layer (layer 6) of the OSI model play in terms of data compression and encryption?
- Handles the routing of data between networks and supports protocols like IPsec
- Supports data compression and encryption to prepare data for network transmission
- Involved in the logical organization of data for transmission
- Primarily responsible for the physical transmission of data using hardware-based methods

A

Supports data compression and encryption to prepare data for network transmission

57
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of the Session layer (layer 5) in the OSI model?
- Responsible for routing packets across different networks
- Administers the process of establishing, managing, and terminating a dialog between end devices
- Used for character set conversion, such as ASCII and Unicode
- Provides the physical transmission of data over network media

A

Administers the process of establishing, managing, and terminating a dialog between end devices

58
Q

Match each networking function or device on the left with its associated OSI model layer on the right.
- Application layer ?
- Presentation layer ?
- Session layer ?
- Transport layer ?
- Network layer ?
- Data Link layer ?

A

Application layer: HTTP
Presentation layer: Translates data
Session layer: Session ID number
Transport layer: Port number
Network layer: Router
Data Link layer: Switch

59
Q

When configuring multiple broadcast domains on a switch, the switch will be operating at what layer of the OSI model?
- Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
- Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
- Layer 7 (Application Layer)
- Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)

A

Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)

60
Q

Internet service provider’s (ISP’s) definition

A

Provides Internet connectivity and web services to its customers.

61
Q

A freelance photographer is setting up a home office. They need to connect a desktop, laptop, a network printer, and occasionally, guests’ devices to the Internet and each other for file sharing and printing.
- MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)
- PAN (Personal Area Network)
- SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) Network
- CAN (Campus Area Network)

A

SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) Network

62
Q

Which of the following interfaces does a SOHO router provide at the Physical Layer of the OSI model? (Select three.)
- HDMI ports for multimedia streaming
- USB ports for direct computer connection
- SATA ports for internal storage connection
- WAN port for Internet Service Provider (ISP) connection
- VGA ports for video output
- RJ-45 ports for a local cabled network
- Radio antennas for wireless signal transmission

A

WAN port, RJ-45 ports, Radio antennas

63
Q

Which of the following functions does a SOHO router implement at layer 2 to make use of its Physical layer adapters? (Select two.)
- Wireless access point
- Ethernet switch
- Network Address Translation (NAT)
- Firewall
- DHCP server

A

Wireless access point, Ethernet switch

64
Q

A small office/home office (SOHO) network is configured to use the private IP address range of 192.168.1.0/24. If you are setting up a SOHO router for this network, which of the following IP addresses would be the MOST appropriate for the router?
- 192.168.2.1
- 192.168.1.255
- 192.168.1.1
- 203.0.113.1

A

192.168.1.1

65
Q

What is the MOST effective method for protecting the management interface of a SOHO router?
- Setting the router to automatically accept firmware updates
- Disabling the firewall
- Enabling UPnP (Universal Plug and Play)
- Configuring a strong administrative account passphrase

A

Configuring a strong administrative account passphrase

66
Q

At layer 4 of the OSI model, how is each application identified to facilitate proper routing and delivery of data?
- By the MAC address of the destination device
- Through the use of encryption algorithms
- Through the application’s unique username and password
- By a unique port number assigned to the application

A

By a unique port number assigned to the application

67
Q

Which of the following BEST describes a demarcation point in the context of telecommunications?
- The maximum data transfer rate achievable by the ISP
- The central hub where all ISPs connect and exchange data
- The protocol used for encrypting data over the Internet
- The point at which the telco’s cabling enters the customer premises

A

The point at which the telco’s cabling enters the customer premises

68
Q

What do Internet Service Providers (ISPs) use to establish links between their networks within an Internet eXchange Point (IXP) data center?
- Peer-to-peer file sharing
- NFC (Near Field Communication)
- Bluetooth connectivity
- Transit and peering arrangements

A

Transit and peering arrangements

69
Q

What is the decimal form of the following binary IP address? 11001101.00111001.10101001.01000010
- 205.57.169.66
- 206.58.170.67
- 190.42.154.51
- 238.90.202.99

A

205.57.169.66

70
Q

Which of the following sets correctly represents the possible values that can be represented by each digit in hexadecimal notation?
- 0 through 9 and A through E
- 0 through 9 and A through F
- 1 through 10
- 0 through 7

A

0 through 9 and A through F

71
Q

troubleshooting methodology definition

A

Structured approach to problem-solving using identification, theory of cause, testing, planning, implementation, verification, and documentation steps.

72
Q

Escalation definition

A

In the context of support procedures, incident response, and breach-reporting, escalation is the process of involving expert and senior staff to assist in problem management.

73
Q

You have successfully identified the cause of an issue. The problem involves replacing a faulty network switch. What is the next step according to the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology?
- Establish a new theory of probable cause
- Verify full system functionality
- Implement the solution by replacing the faulty network switch
- Document the problem and the solution

A

Implement the solution by replacing the faulty network switch

74
Q

Drag each troubleshooting task on the left to the correct step on the right.
Steps:
1. Identify the problem.
2. Establish a theory of probable cause.
3. Test the theory to determine the cause.
4. Establish a plan of action.
5. Implement the solution or escalate.
6. Verify full system functionality.
7. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

A

Step 1: Identify the problem
Step 2: Establish a theory of probable cause
Step 3: Test the theory
Step 4: Establish a plan of action
Step 5: Implement solution
Step 6: Verify functionality
Step 7: Document findings

75
Q

A user cannot print to a network printer. What is the first step a technician should take to troubleshoot the issue?
- Establish a plan of action
- Identify the problem
- Implement preventative measures
- Establish a theory of probable cause

A

Identify the problem

76
Q

When troubleshooting a user unfamiliar with technical terms, which type of question is MOST effective to begin the diagnostic process?
- Asking for the error code displayed on the screen
- Asking if they have tried rebooting
- Asking them to describe what they were doing when the issue occurred
- Asking if they experienced the issue before

A

Asking them to describe what they were doing when the issue occurred

77
Q

How is identifying the location and scope of a problem helpful in troubleshooting? (Select two.)
- It helps identify the source of the problem
- It eliminates the need for gathering information from users
- It helps prioritize the problem in relation to other incidents
- It automatically resolves related issues

A

Helps identify the source of the problem, Helps prioritize the problem in relation to other incidents

78
Q

When identifying the cause of a problem, which are key questions to ask? (Select two.)
- Should we switch to a different software platform?
- What has changed since it was last working?
- Did it ever work?
- Is the system turned on?

A

What has changed since it was last working?, Did it ever work?

79
Q

What should you do when you discover symptoms of more than one problem while troubleshooting?
- Immediately escalate to a higher-level support team
- Treat each problem as a separate case
- Report only the most severe problem
- Focus on the most complex problem first

A

Treat each problem as a separate case

80
Q

Using the bottom-to-top OSI model approach, which step comes first to troubleshoot connectivity?
- Verify browser settings
- Ensure firewalls allow traffic
- Confirm the workstation obtains an IP address
- Check the NIC for physical damage

A

Check the NIC for physical damage

81
Q

Which of the following describes the divide and conquer approach?
- Focusing solely on the Application Layer
- Identifying the most likely layer based on symptoms
- Starting at the Physical Layer
- Checking all layers simultaneously

A

Identifying the most likely layer based on symptoms

82
Q

What should you do next after diagnosing the symptoms of a network issue?
- Ignore the symptoms
- Immediately replace components
- Test each possible cause
- Document the symptoms

A

Test each possible cause

83
Q

Before escalating a troubleshooting problem, what should you do? (Select two.)
- Immediately escalate without attempting troubleshooting
- Be able to communicate the basic facts
- Wait for the problem to resolve
- Establish the basic facts surrounding the problem

A

Be able to communicate the basic facts, Establish the basic facts

84
Q

What is the recommended action when applying a disruptive solution?
- Consider the appropriate time and notify users
- Disconnect the network
- Proceed without notifying users
- Apply immediately to minimize downtime

A

Consider the appropriate time and notify users

85
Q

What is the primary goal of verifying a solution to a reported problem?
- To change system settings
- To validate that the fix resolved the issue
- To implement new features
- To ensure faster system functions

A

To validate that the fix resolved the issue

86
Q

A help desk operator troubleshoots a site that is no longer responsive. What is the last step the operator should perform?
- Implement solution
- Determine cause
- Establish plan of action
- Document findings

A

Document findings

87
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describe characteristics of the decimal numbering system? (Select two.)
- A digit positioned to the left of another has 10 times the value
- Each digit represents a power of 2
- Each digit can have one of ten possible values
- It is primarily used for binary data

A

A digit positioned to the left of another has 10 times the value, Each digit can have one of ten possible values

88
Q

Which of the following functions does a SOHO router implement at layer 2 to make use of its Physical layer adapters? (Select two.)
- Wireless access point
- Ethernet switch
- NAT
- Firewall
- DHCP server

A

Wireless access point, Ethernet switch

89
Q

When troubleshooting network issues using the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology, what is the first step to resolving it?
- Establish a plan of action
- Test the theory
- Identify the problem
- Establish a theory of probable cause

A

Identify the problem

90
Q

When you have diagnosed the symptoms of a network issue, what should you do next?
- Ignore symptoms
- Immediately replace components
- Test each possible cause
- Document the symptoms

A

Test each possible cause

91
Q

Which statements are true about Requests for Comments (RFCs)? (Select two.)
- RFCs are confidential documents
- RFCs are designated informational/experimental
- An older RFC is never updated
- All RFCs are official standards

A

RFCs are designated informational/experimental, An older RFC is never updated

92
Q

A newly deployed server stack has a connectivity issue. What is the best approach to resolving it?
- Top-to-bottom
- Bottom-to-top
- Plan of action
- Divide and conquer

A

Bottom-to-top

93
Q

At which OSI layer does a router operate?
- Layer 1
- Layer 2
- Layer 3
- Layer 4

A

Layer 3

94
Q

When troubleshooting requires system changes, what is the recommended course of action?
- Follow a change management plan
- Ignore protocols and apply changes immediately
- Make changes outside business hours
- Make all changes at once

A

Follow a change management plan

95
Q

A network administrator suspects distance issues in a star topology. What is the BEST solution?
- Increase bandwidth
- Replace the switch
- Use a repeater
- Implement a mesh topology

A

Use a repeater

96
Q

You need a fault-tolerant topology for wide area network routers. Which topology meets this requirement?
- Bus
- Star
- Mesh
- Ring

A

Mesh

97
Q

A server issue affects all users. What is the next step to troubleshoot?
- Identify the affected area
- Create a plan
- Determine what changed
- Establish a theory

A

Determine what changed

98
Q

Which organization developed the OSI model?
- ITU
- IEEE
- IETF
- ISO

A

ISO

99
Q

What network topology provides redundancy without full mesh costs?
- Star
- Full mesh
- Bus
- Partial mesh

A

Partial mesh

100
Q

What is the role of a MAC address at the Data Link Layer?
- Determines routing paths
- Acts as a unique identifier
- Encrypts packets
- Serves as a global IP address

A

Acts as a unique identifier

101
Q

At which OSI layer are ASCII conversion issues troubleshot?
- Session
- Application
- Presentation
- Data Link

A

Presentation

102
Q

What device would BEST meet networking needs for a small agency?
- Basic modem
- External hard drive
- NAS device
- SOHO router

A

SOHO router

103
Q

You implemented an ad hoc wireless network. Which topology is used?
- Star
- Mesh
- Bus
- Ring

A

Mesh

104
Q

Your company is deploying a virtual appliance on a hypervisor. What type of appliance is it?
- Physical appliance
- Network protocol
- Virtual appliance
- Network node

A

Virtual appliance

105
Q

How are packets forwarded at Layer 3 of the OSI model?
- Based on signal amplification
- Based on destination network address
- Based on MAC address
- Based on QoS settings

A

Based on destination network address

106
Q

Drag troubleshooting tasks to the correct order:
Step 1: Identify the problem
Step 2: Establish a theory of probable cause
Step 3: Test the theory
Step 4: Establish a plan of action

A

Correct steps: Identify, Establish, Test, Plan