Network Fundamentals Flashcards

1
Q

Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Network
E. Data link
F. Physical

A

Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Network
E. Data link
F. Physical

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2
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three).
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three).
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.

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3
Q

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport

A

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport

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4
Q

Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two).
A. A bridge
B. A router
C. A hub
D. A Layer 3 switch
E. An access point

A

Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two).
A. A bridge
B. A router
C. A hub
D. A Layer 3 switch
E. An access point

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5
Q

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for segmenting data from a sending host that enables large files to be broken down into smaller segments to prevent transmission errors?
A. Session
B. Presentation
C. Application
D. Transport

A

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for segmenting data from a sending host that enables large files to be broken down into smaller segments to prevent transmission errors?
A. Session
B. Presentation
C. Application
D. Transport

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6
Q

Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network

A

Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network

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7
Q

At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. application
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
E. data link

A

At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. application
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
E. data link

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8
Q

A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)?
A. 4, 48
B. 48, 4
C. 48, 1
D. 1, 48
E. 4, 1

A

A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)?
A. 4, 48
**B. 48, 4 **
C. 48, 1
D. 1, 48
E. 4, 1

A switch uses a separate collision domain for each port, and each VLAN is a separate broadcast domain.

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9
Q

What are two characteristics of segmenting a network with a router? (Choose two).
A. A router processes data more quickly than switches. B. Filtering can occur based on layer 3 information.
C. A router decreases the number of collision domains. D. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.
E. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router.

A

What are two characteristics of segmenting a network with a router? (Choose two).
A. A router processes data more quickly than switches. B. Filtering can occur based on layer 3 information.
C. A router decreases the number of collision domains. D. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.
E. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router.

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10
Q

A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show interfaces command is shown.
router# show interfaces Serial0/ 1/ 0 is up, line protocol is down
At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

A

A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show interfaces command is shown.
router# show interfaces Serial0/ 1/ 0 is up, line protocol is down
At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
A. physical
**B. data link **
C. network
D. transport

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11
Q

What process is used to establish a connection-oriented virtual circuit between two communicating hosts?
A. Flow control
B. Sequencing
C. Windowing
D. Three-way handshake
E. Duplexing

A

What process is used to establish a connection-oriented virtual circuit between two communicating hosts?
A. Flow control
B. Sequencing
C. Windowing
D. Three-way handshake
E. Duplexing

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12
Q

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Physical

A

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Network
**D. Data link **
E. Physical

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13
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. Broadcast domains
B. Repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. Signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts

A

Refer to the exhibit.
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. Broadcast domains
B. Repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. Signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts

Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.

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14
Q

All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
E. 15

A

All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
E. 15

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15
Q

Which layer of the TCP/ IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. Transport layer
C. Application layer
D. Network access layer

A

Which layer of the TCP/ IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. Transport layer
C. Application layer
D. Network access layer

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16
Q

How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.

A

How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.

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17
Q

What is the purpose of flow control?
A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received.
B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.

A

What is the purpose of flow control?
A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received.
B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.

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18
Q

How many collision domains are shown?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Six
F. Twelve

A

How many collision domains are shown?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Six
F. Twelve

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19
Q

What source and destination information can be found in the data link layer?
A. URL
B. IP address
C. port number
D. MAC address

A

What source and destination information can be found in the data link layer?
A. URL
B. IP address
C. port number
D. MAC address

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20
Q

When troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode, which error condition can be immediately ruled out?
A. Giants
B. No buffers
C. Collisions
D. Ignored
E. Dribble condition

A

When troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode, which error condition can be immediately ruled out?
A. Giants
B. No buffers
C. Collisions
D. Ignored
E. Dribble condition

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21
Q

Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP

A

Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP

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22
Q

Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

A

Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signals therefore; they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

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23
Q

Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP

A

Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP

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24
Q

What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

A

What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

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25
Q

How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two).
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.
B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.

A

How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two).
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.
B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.

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26
Q

What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two).

A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS

A

What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two).

A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS

SMTP uses TCP port 25, while FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21.

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27
Q

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Presentation
D. Session
E. Application

A

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Presentation
D. Session
E. Application

The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner and determining whether sufficient resources for the intended communication exist.

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28
Q

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
E. Internet
F. Data link

A

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
E. Internet
F. Data link

FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.

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29
Q

What layer is responsible for combining bits into bytes, and bytes into frames?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Transport
D. Data Link

A

What layer is responsible for combining bits into bytes, and bytes into frames?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Transport
D. Data Link

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30
Q

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two).
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment. E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

A

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two).
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment. E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

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31
Q

Which two Ethernet fiber-optic modes support distances of greater than 550 meters? (Choose two).
A. 1000Base-LX
B. 1000Base-FX
C. 1000Base-SC
D. 100Base-CX
E. 1000Base-ZX

A

Which two Ethernet fiber-optic modes support distances of greater than 550 meters? (Choose two).
A. 1000Base-LX
B. 1000Base-FX
C. 1000Base-SC
D. 100Base-CX
E. 1000Base-ZX

1000BASE-LX is used with Single-mode or Multi-mode fiber with a range of 3-10Km. 1000Base-ZX is single mode fiber with a range of 43-75Km.

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32
Q

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10Mbs switch port.
B. This is a 100Mbs switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

A

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10Mbs switch port.
B. This is a 100Mbs switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/ CD. CSMA/ CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub and runs at half-duplex).

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33
Q

CSMA/ CD is a protocol that helps devices do what?
A. Increase bandwidth between all devices.
B. Allows devices to transmit simultaneously.
C. Share bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time.
D. Administers the bandwidth for the device that is currently transmitting.

A

CSMA/ CD is a protocol that helps devices do what?
A. Increase bandwidth between all devices.
B. Allows devices to transmit simultaneously.
C. Share bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time.
D. Administers the bandwidth for the device that is currently transmitting.

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34
Q

Half-Duplex uses ____ with a digital signal running in both directions?
A. One wire pair
B. Two wire pairs
C. Three wire pairs
D. Four wire pairs

A

Half-Duplex uses ____ with a digital signal running in both directions?
A. One wire pair
B. Two wire pairs
C. Three wire pairs
D. Four wire pairs

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35
Q

Identify the incorrect statement regarding Full-duplex.
A. Uses CSMA/ CD to avoid collisions.
B. No collisions occur in full-duplex.
C. A dedicated switchport is required for each full-duplex mode.
D. The host NIC and Switchport must be full-duplex capable.

A

Identify the incorrect statement regarding Full-duplex.
A. Uses CSMA/ CD to avoid collisions.
B. No collisions occur in full-duplex.
C. A dedicated switchport is required for each full-duplex mode.
D. The host NIC and Switchport must be full-duplex capable.

In a half-duplex network, one wire pair is used in the ethernet cable. During transmission, a device will listen to the wire to begin transmission of data. To avoid data collisions, CSMA/ CD was created to mitigate any collisions during data transmission.

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36
Q

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
A. NIC
B. BIA
C. OUI
D. VAI

A

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
A. NIC
B. BIA
C. OUI
D. VAI

Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI) is the first 24 bits of a MAC address for a network device, which indicates the specific vendor for that device as assigned by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Incorporated (IEEE).

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37
Q

A MAC address is _____ bits long, and expressed in _____?
A. 48, decimal
B. 24, decimal
C. 48, hexadecimal
D. 32, hexadecimal

A

A MAC address is _____ bits long, and expressed in _____?
A. 48, decimal
B. 24, decimal
C. 48, hexadecimal
D. 32, hexadecimal

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38
Q

What is the decimal equivalent of 10010110?
A. 140
B. 170
C. 120
D. 150

A

What is the decimal equivalent of 10010110?
A. 140
B. 170
C. 120
D. 150

Each binary digit is equivalent to a decimal value in an IP address. The IP address consists of 4 octets, 8 binary bits each. To convert binary to decimal, multiply the binary value to the corresponding value of 2 - 1x2( 7) + 0x2( 6) + 0x2( 5) + 1x2( 4) + 0x2( 3) + 1x2( 2) + 1x2( 1) + 0x2( 0). Add the sums together - 1x128 + 0x64 + 0x32 + 1x16 + 0x8 + 1x4 + 1x2 + 0x1 = 128 + 0 + 0 + 16 + 0 + 4 + 2 + 0 which equals 150.

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39
Q

What is the hexadecimal value of C?
A. 0101
B. 1100
C. 1101
D. 1110

A

What is the hexadecimal value of C?
A. 0101
B. 1100
C. 1101
D. 1110

The hexadecimal value of C is 12. In binary, it is represented as 1100. Values in a nibble are 8-4-2-1. We have 1 in the 8 position, 1 in the 4 position, 0 in the 2, 0 in the position.

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40
Q

What cable would you use between a Router and a Switch or Hub?
A. Straight-Through
B. Crossover
C. Rolled
D. Coax

A

What cable would you use between a Router and a Switch or Hub?
A. Straight-Through
B. Crossover
C. Rolled
D. Coax

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41
Q

What is the equivalent of 11001010.11110101.10000011.11101011 in hexadecimal?
A. 0xE61A3D67
B. 0xD8B2D356
C. 0xCAF583EB
D. 0xE81E3D36

A

What is the equivalent of 11001010.11110101.10000011.11101011 in hexadecimal?
A. 0xE61A3D67
B. 0xD8B2D356
C. 0xCAF583EB
D. 0xE81E3D36

0x denotes that this is a hexadecimal value. To convert this to hexadecimal, break up each octet into 2 nibble of 4 bits each. The correct answer is C - 0xCAF583EB.

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42
Q

The Cisco Hierarchical Model contains what three layers?

A. Core Layer, Distribution Layer, Access Layer
B. Backbone Layer, Production Layer, Access layer
C. Border Gateway Layer, ISP Layer, Distribution Layer
D. Regional Layer, Local Layer, User Layer

A

The Cisco Hierarchical Model contains what three layers?

A. Core Layer, Distribution Layer, Access Layer
B. Backbone Layer, Production Layer, Access layer
C. Border Gateway Layer, ISP Layer, Distribution Layer
D. Regional Layer, Local Layer, User Layer

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43
Q

Which fields are contained within an IEEE Ethernet Frame? (Choose two).
A. Source and destination MAC address.
B. Source and destination network address.
C. Source and destination port number.
D. FCS Field.

A

Which fields are contained within an IEEE Ethernet Frame? (Choose two).
A. Source and destination MAC address.
B. Source and destination network address.
C. Source and destination port number.
D. FCS Field.

An Ethernet frame has source and destination MAC addresses, an Ether-Type field to identify the Network layer protocol, the data, and the FCS field that holds the answer to the CRC.

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44
Q

1000Base-T is which IEEE standard?
A. 802.3F
B. 802.3z
C. 802.3ab
D. 802.3ae

A

1000Base-T is which IEEE standard?
A. 802.3F
B. 802.3z
C. 802.3ab
D. 802.3ae

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45
Q

Data encapsulation follows what process?
A. Application, Segment, Network, Frame, Bits
B. Segments, Packets, Frames, Bits
C. Coax, Twisted pair, Fiber, Wireless
D. Packets, Frames, Segments, Bits E. Bits, Packets, Segments, Application data

A

Data encapsulation follows what process?
A. Application, Segment, Network, Frame, Bits
B. Segments, Packets, Frames, Bits
C. Coax, Twisted pair, Fiber, Wireless
D. Packets, Frames, Segments, Bits E. Bits, Packets, Segments, Application data

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46
Q

What term is used for the unwanted signal interference from adjacent pairs in a cable?
A. EMI
B. RFI
C. Crosstalk
D. Attenuation

A

What term is used for the unwanted signal interference from adjacent pairs in a cable?
A. EMI
B. RFI
C. Crosstalk
D. Attenuation

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47
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
A host is connected to switch port fa0/ 3. The host and switch have been fully configured for IP connectivity as shown. However, the indicator LED on switch port fa0/ 3 is not on, and the host cannot communicate with any other hosts including those connected to VLAN 2 on the same switch. Based on the given information, what is the problem?
A. Switch port fa0/ 3 is not configured as a trunk port.
B. There is an incorrect cable type.
C. The switch has been assigned an incorrect subnet mask.
D. Switch port fa0/ 3 has been blocked by STP.
E. The switch and the host must be in the same subnet.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
A host is connected to switch port fa0/ 3. The host and switch have been fully configured for IP connectivity as shown. However, the indicator LED on switch port fa0/ 3 is not on, and the host cannot communicate with any other hosts including those connected to VLAN 2 on the same switch. Based on the given information, what is the problem?
A. Switch port fa0/ 3 is not configured as a trunk port.
B. There is an incorrect cable type.
C. The switch has been assigned an incorrect subnet mask.
D. Switch port fa0/ 3 has been blocked by STP.
E. The switch and the host must be in the same subnet.

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48
Q

A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. A router with two Ethernet interfaces.
B. A switch with two Ethernet interfaces.
C. A router with one Ethernet and one serial interface.
D. A switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface.
E. A router with one Ethernet and one modem interface.

A

A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. A router with two Ethernet interfaces.
B. A switch with two Ethernet interfaces.
C. A router with one Ethernet and one serial interface.
D. A switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface.
E. A router with one Ethernet and one modem interface.

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49
Q

An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem?

A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.
B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.
E. The serial interface has a full buffer.

A

An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem?

A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.
B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.
E. The serial interface has a full buffer.

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50
Q

Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/ CD access method? (Choose two).
A. In a CSMA/ CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/ CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/ CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.

A

Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/ CD access method? (Choose two).
A. In a CSMA/ CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/ CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/ CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.

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51
Q

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

A

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

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52
Q

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 - Ethernet Crossover cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Fiber Optic cable 4 - Rollover cable.
B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable. C. 1 - Ethernet rollover cable 2 - Ethernet crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Null-modem cable.
D. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable.
E. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Ethernet Straight-through cable.

A

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 - Ethernet Crossover cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Fiber Optic cable 4 - Rollover cable.
B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable. C. 1 - Ethernet rollover cable 2 - Ethernet crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Null-modem cable.
D. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable.
E. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Ethernet Straight-through cable.

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53
Q

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two).
A. To uniquely identify devices at Layer 2.
B. To allow communication with devices on a different network.
C. To differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet. D. To establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first.
E. To allow communication between different devices on the same network.
F. To allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown.

A

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two).
A. To uniquely identify devices at Layer 2.
B. To allow communication with devices on a different network.
C. To differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet. D. To establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first.
E. To allow communication between different devices on the same network.
F. To allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown.

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54
Q

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two).
A. When they receive a special token.
B. When there is a carrier.
C. When they detect no other devices are sending.
D. When the medium is idle.
E. When the server grants access.

A

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two).
A. When they receive a special token.
B. When there is a carrier.
C. When they detect no other devices are sending.
D. When the medium is idle.
E. When the server grants access.

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55
Q

The network administrator has asked you to check the status of the workstation’s IP stack by pinging the loopback address. What address would you ping to perform this task?
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 239.1.1.1

A

The network administrator has asked you to check the status of the workstation’s IP stack by pinging the loopback address. What address would you ping to perform this task?
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 239.1.1.1

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56
Q

Which IP address can be assigned to an internet interface?
A. 9.255.255.10
B. 10.180.48.224
C. 192.168.20.223
D. 172.16.200.18

A

Which IP address can be assigned to an internet interface?
A. 9.255.255.10
B. 10.180.48.224
C. 192.168.20.223
D. 172.16.200.18

The IP address which can be assigned to an Internet interface must a public IP address. Private IP address (10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255; 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255; 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255). Special IP addresses (the local loopback address 127.0.0.1, multicast addresses…) cannot be assigned to an Internet interface. In this question, only answer B doesn’t belong to the range of private IP addresses.

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57
Q

What TCP message does a host send to establish a connection with a destination host?
A. ISN
B. Establish
C. HELLO
D. SYN
E. Request open
f. ACK

A

What TCP message does a host send to establish a connection with a destination host?
A. ISN
B. Establish
C. HELLO
D. SYN
E. Request open
f. ACK

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58
Q

The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two).
A. SNMP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. RMON
E. SSH

A

The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two).
A. SNMP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. RMON
E. SSH

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59
Q

The corporate head office has a teleconferencing system that uses VOIP (voice over IP) technology. This system uses UDP as the transport for the data transmissions. If these UDP datagrams arrive at their destination out of sequence, what will happen?
A. UDP will drop the datagrams.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order that they arrive.
C. UDP will send an ICMP Information Request to the source host.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data in the correct order.

A

The corporate head office has a teleconferencing system that uses VOIP (voice over IP) technology. This system uses UDP as the transport for the data transmissions. If these UDP datagrams arrive at their destination out of sequence, what will happen?
A. UDP will drop the datagrams.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order that they arrive.
C. UDP will send an ICMP Information Request to the source host.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data in the correct order.

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60
Q

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two). A. Ease of management and troubleshooting.
B. Efficient utilization of MAC addresses.
C. Dedicated communications between devices.
D. Reduces routing table entries.
E. Auto-negotiation of media rates.

A

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two). A. Ease of management and troubleshooting.
B. Efficient utilization of MAC addresses.
C. Dedicated communications between devices.
D. Reduces routing table entries.
E. Auto-negotiation of media rates.

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61
Q

Which of the following describes private IP addresses? (Choose two).
A. Addresses that can be routed through the public internet.
B. A scheme to conserve public addresses.
C. Addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an internet registry organization.
D. Addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the internet.
E. Addresses that cannot be routed through the public internet.

A

Which of the following describes private IP addresses? (Choose two).
A. Addresses that can be routed through the public internet.
B. A scheme to conserve public addresses.
C. Addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an internet registry organization.
D. Addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the internet.
E. Addresses that cannot be routed through the public internet.

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62
Q

An administrator attempts a traceroute but receives a “Destination Unreachable” message. Which protocol is responsible for that message?
A. TCP
B. SNMP
C. RUDP
D. RARP
E. ICMP

A

An administrator attempts a traceroute but receives a “Destination Unreachable” message. Which protocol is responsible for that message?
A. TCP
B. SNMP
C. RUDP
D. RARP
E. ICMP

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63
Q

When two hosts are trying to communicate across a network, how does the host originating the communication determine the hardware address of the host that it wants to “talk” to?
A. Show Network Address request
B. ARP request
C. RARP request
D. Proxy ARP request
E. Show Hardware Address request
F. Ping request

A

When two hosts are trying to communicate across a network, how does the host originating the communication determine the hardware address of the host that it wants to “talk” to?
A. Show Network Address request
B. ARP request
C. RARP request
D. Proxy ARP request
E. Show Hardware Address request
F. Ping request

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64
Q

Which of the following host addresses are members of networks that cannot be routed across the public internet? (Choose three).
A. 10.172.13.65
B. 198.234.12.95
C. 172.16.223.125
D. 172.64.12.29
E. 212.193.48.254
F. 192.168.23.252

A

Which of the following host addresses are members of networks that cannot be routed across the public internet? (Choose three).
A. 10.172.13.65
B. 198.234.12.95
C. 172.16.223.125
D. 172.64.12.29
E. 212.193.48.254
F. 192.168.23.252

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65
Q

Which option can be configured for the default gateway of the Local Area Connection?
A. 192.223.129.0
B. 10.0.0.0
C. 192.223.129.254
D. 10.0.0.254

A

Which option can be configured for the default gateway of the Local Area Connection?
A. 192.223.129.0
B. 10.0.0.0
C. 192.223.129.254
D. 10.0.0.254

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66
Q

Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address

A

Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address

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67
Q

Workstation A has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.24/ 28. Workstation B has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.100/ 28. The two workstations are connected with a straight-through cable. Attempts to ping between the hosts were unsuccessful. What two things can be done to allow communications between the hosts? (Choose two).
A. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /26.
B. Change the address of Workstation A to 192.0.2.15.
C. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /25.
D. Change the address of Workstation B to 192.0.2.111. E. Replace the straight-through cable with a crossover cable.

A

Workstation A has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.24/ 28. Workstation B has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.100/ 28. The two workstations are connected with a straight-through cable. Attempts to ping between the hosts were unsuccessful. What two things can be done to allow communications between the hosts? (Choose two).
A. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /26.
B. Change the address of Workstation A to 192.0.2.15.
C. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /25.
D. Change the address of Workstation B to 192.0.2.111. E. Replace the straight-through cable with a crossover cable.

A /28 is CIDR notation for the 255.255.255.240 subnet mask. This has a block size of 16 in the fourth octet. Workstation A is in the 192.0.2.16 subnet, Workstation B is in the 192.0.2.96 subnet. Both workstations are in the wrong subnet. Changing the subnet mask to /25 (255.255.255.128), provides two subnets: 0 and 128, which would put both hosts in the zero (0) subnet. With both workstations in the same subnet, you will need a crossover cable in order to be able to communicate between the two hosts.

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68
Q

The network default gateway being applied to a host by DHCP is 192.168.5.33/ 28. Which of the following option is a valid IP address for that subnet?
A. 192.168.5.14
B. 192.168.5.47
C. 192.168.5.40
D. 192.168.5.55
E. 192.168.5.32

A

The network default gateway being applied to a host by DHCP is 192.168.5.33/ 28. Which of the following option is a valid IP address for that subnet?
A. 192.168.5.14
B. 192.168.5.47
C. 192.168.5.40
D. 192.168.5.55
E. 192.168.5.32

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69
Q

A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two).
A. CDP
B. DHCP
C. ICMP
D. ARP
E. DNS

A

A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two).
A. CDP
B. DHCP
C. ICMP
D. ARP
E. DNS

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70
Q

An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command line prompt on a PC. If a reply is received, what does this confirm?
A. The PC has the TCP/ IP protocol stack correctly installed.
B. The PC has connectivity with a Layer 3 device.
C. The PC has connectivity up to Layer 5 of the OSI model.
D. The PC has connectivity with a local host.
E. The PC has a default gateway correctly configured.

A

An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command line prompt on a PC. If a reply is received, what does this confirm?
A. The PC has the TCP/ IP protocol stack correctly installed.
B. The PC has connectivity with a Layer 3 device.
C. The PC has connectivity up to Layer 5 of the OSI model.
D. The PC has connectivity with a local host.
E. The PC has a default gateway correctly configured.

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71
Q

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network.
B. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address.
C. Only is ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
D. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the internet backbone.
E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

A

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network.
B. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address.
C. Only is ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
D. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the internet backbone.
E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

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72
Q

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/ IP reference model?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Internet
D. Application

A

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/ IP reference model?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Internet
D. Application

The Internet Layer of TCP/ IP is equivalent to the Network Layer which is responsible for routing decision.

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73
Q

On the network 131.1.123.0/ 27, what is the last IP address that can be assigned to a host?
A. 131.1.123.32
B. 131.1.123.31
C. 131.1.123.30
D. 131.1.123.33

A

On the network 131.1.123.0/ 27, what is the last IP address that can be assigned to a host?
A. 131.1.123.32
B. 131.1.123.31
C. 131.1.123.30
D. 131.1.123.33

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74
Q

A Layer 2 broadcast is also known as a hardware broadcast. Of the following, which two are binary and hexadecimal Layer 2 broadcasts? (Choose two).
A. 11111111
B. FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF C. 00000000
D. 45. AC. 24. E3.60. A5
E. 255.255.255.255

A

A Layer 2 broadcast is also known as a hardware broadcast. Of the following, which two are binary and hexadecimal Layer 2 broadcasts? (Choose two).
A. 11111111
B. FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF
C. 00000000
D. 45. AC. 24. E3.60. A5
E. 255.255.255.255

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75
Q

When is it necessary to use a public IP address on a routing interface?
A. Connect a router on a local network.
B. Allow distribution of routes between networks.
C. Connect a network to the internet.
D. Translate a private IP address.
E. Connect a router to another router.

A

When is it necessary to use a public IP address on a routing interface?
A. Connect a router on a local network.
B. Allow distribution of routes between networks.
C. Connect a network to the internet.
D. Translate a private IP address.
E. Connect a router to another router.

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76
Q

Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three).
A. Buffering
B. Cut-through
C. Windowing
D. Congestion avoidance
E. Load balancing

A

Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three).
A. Buffering
B. Cut-through
C. Windowing
D. Congestion avoidance
E. Load balancing

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77
Q

exhibit.
A TCP/ IP Transfer is diagrammed in the exhibit. A window size of three has been negotiated for this transfer. Which message will be returned from the receiver to the sender as part of this TCP/ IP transfer?

A. send ACK 4-6
B. send ACK 4
C. send ACK 3
D. send ACK 1-3
E. send ACK 7
F. send ACK 6

A

exhibit.
A TCP/ IP Transfer is diagrammed in the exhibit. A window size of three has been negotiated for this transfer. Which message will be returned from the receiver to the sender as part of this TCP/ IP transfer?

A. send ACK 4-6
B. send ACK 4
C. send ACK 3
D. send ACK 1-3
E. send ACK 7
F. send ACK 6

The receiving host will send back to the transmitting host what is expecting “next”, not what it already received.

78
Q

In addition to assigning an IP address, which of the following correctly describe regarding TCP/ IP stack configuration features that DHCP can provide? (Choose three).
A. DNS servers
B. Subnet mask
C. Helper address
D. FTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Default gateway

A

In addition to assigning an IP address, which of the following correctly describe regarding TCP/ IP stack configuration features that DHCP can provide? (Choose three).
A. DNS servers
B. Subnet mask
C. Helper address
D. FTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Default gateway

79
Q

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP

A

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP

80
Q

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two).
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

A

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two).
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

81
Q

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
A. ping address
B. tracert address
C. traceroute address
D. arp address

A

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
A. ping address
B. tracert address
C. traceroute address
D. arp address

82
Q

Which IP addresses are valid public Class A host addresses? Assume the default Class A subnet mask is in use. (Choose two).
A. 10.154.16.87
B. 11.22.33.44
C. 68.95.255.100
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 128.16.89.72
F. 131.241.78.3

A

Which IP addresses are valid public Class A host addresses? Assume the default Class A subnet mask is in use. (Choose two).
A. 10.154.16.87
B. 11.22.33.44
C. 68.95.255.100
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 128.16.89.72
F. 131.241.78.3

83
Q

A small company has a Class C network address and needs to create five subnets, each accommodating 25 hosts. Which subnet mask needs to be configured?
A. 255.255.240.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.240
F. 255.255.255.248

A

A small company has a Class C network address and needs to create five subnets, each accommodating 25 hosts. Which subnet mask needs to be configured?
A. 255.255.240.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.240
F. 255.255.255.248

To create additional subnets, we need to borrow bits from the host bits. In order to accommodate 5 subnets, we use the formula 2n. n is the number of bits to borrow from the host bits. Using 3 bits in the fourth octet will give us 6 subnets with 30 available addresses in each subnet.

84
Q

What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network address is being used?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 14
E. 16

A

What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network address is being used?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 14
E. 16

The default subnet mask for a Class B address is 255.255.0.0. This gives us 16 bits for network bits, 16 bits for host bits. All 0’ s in a subnet is a network address (255.255.0.0), all 1’ s in an address denotes a broadcast address (255.255.255.255).

85
Q

An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two).
A. 192.168.4.61
B. 192.168.4.63
C. 192.168.4.67
D. 192.168.4.125
E. 192.168.4.128
F. 192.168.4.132

A

An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two).
A. 192.168.4.61
B. 192.168.4.63
C. 192.168.4.67
D. 192.168.4.125
E. 192.168.4.128
F. 192.168.4.132

86
Q

Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the following addresses can be assigned to network hosts? (Choose three).
A. 201.45.116.159
B. 15.234.118.63
C. 217.63.12.192
D. 92.11.178.93
E. 134.178.18.56
F. 192.168.16.87

A

Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the following addresses can be assigned to network hosts? (Choose three).
A. 201.45.116.159
B. 15.234.118.63
C. 217.63.12.192
D. 92.11.178.93
E. 134.178.18.56
F. 192.168.16.87

87
Q

What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/ 28?
A. 192.168.23.0
B. 192.168.23.32
C. 192.168.23.48
D. 192.168.23.56
E. 192.168.23.60

A

What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/ 28?
A. 192.168.23.0
B. 192.168.23.32
C. 192.168.23.48
D. 192.168.23.56
E. 192.168.23.60

A /28 is CIDR notation for 255.255.255.240. This gives us a block size of 16 in the fourth octet (256-240 = 16). The host is 192.168.23.61. Counting subnets in blocks of 16, 192.168.23.61 is in the 192.168.23.48 subnet. Valid hosts are 192.168.23.49 - 192.168.23.62.

88
Q

A new LAN segment is allocated the network number 172.16.0.0/ 25. What range of addresses are available for hosts on that network?
A. 172.16.0.1 through 172.16.0.254
B. 172.16.0.1 through 172.16.0.126
C. 172.16.0.129 through 172.16.0.254
D. 172.16.0.1 through 172.16.1.254
E. 172.16.1.1 through 172.16.1.126
F. 172.16.1.1 through 172.16.1.254

A

A new LAN segment is allocated the network number 172.16.0.0/ 25. What range of addresses are available for hosts on that network?
A. 172.16.0.1 through 172.16.0.254
B. 172.16.0.1 through 172.16.0.126
C. 172.16.0.129 through 172.16.0.254
D. 172.16.0.1 through 172.16.1.254
E. 172.16.1.1 through 172.16.1.126
F. 172.16.1.1 through 172.16.1.254

89
Q

Which three network addresses are reserved for private network use? (Choose three).
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 172.15.0.0
C. 172.31.0.0
D. 192.162.24.0
E. 192.168.255.0
F. 224.192.0.0

A

Which three network addresses are reserved for private network use? (Choose three).
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 172.15.0.0
C. 172.31.0.0
D. 192.162.24.0
E. 192.168.255.0
F. 224.192.0.0

RFC 1918 defines the private IP address range. The ranges of private IP Addresses are: 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255 , 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255.

90
Q

Which command will assign the last usable IP address from the 192.168.32.128/ 28 subnetwork to a router interface?
A. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.142 255.255.255.240
B. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.143 255.255.255.240
C. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.158 255.255.255.240
D. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.142 255.255.255.248
E. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.144 255.255.255.224
F. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.158 255.255.255.224

A

Which command will assign the last usable IP address from the 192.168.32.128/ 28 subnetwork to a router interface?
A. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.142 255.255.255.240
B. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.143 255.255.255.240
C. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.158 255.255.255.240
D. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.142 255.255.255.248
E. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.144 255.255.255.224
F. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.158 255.255.255.224

91
Q

What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/ 28?
A. 172.19.20.0
B. 172.19.20.15
C. 172.19.20.16
D. 172.19.20.20
E. 172.19.20.32

A

What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/ 28?
A. 172.19.20.0
B. 172.19.20.15
C. 172.19.20.16
D. 172.19.20.20
E. 172.19.20.32

A /28 is CIDR notation for 255.255.255.240. This gives us a block size of 16 in the fourth octet (256-240 = 16). Counting the networks in blocks of 16 (172.19.20.0, 172.19.20.16, 172.19.20.32), 172.19.20.23 falls into the 172.19.20.16 subnet.

92
Q

Which of the following correctly pairs the dotted decimal subnet mask with the correct number of binary bits that represent the subnet mask?
A. 255.255.255.192 and /25
B. 255.255.255.248 and /28
C. 255.255.255.224 and /26
D. 255.255.255.248 and /27
E. 255.255.255.240 and /28
F. 255.255.255.240 and /16

A

Which of the following correctly pairs the dotted decimal subnet mask with the correct number of binary bits that represent the subnet mask?
A. 255.255.255.192 and /25
B. 255.255.255.248 and /28
C. 255.255.255.224 and /26
D. 255.255.255.248 and /27
E. 255.255.255.240 and /28
F. 255.255.255.240 and /16

93
Q

A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection, they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.

A

A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection, they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.

94
Q

A network engineer needs to configure a branch office for 82 hosts. What is the most efficient use of a subnet mask?
A. 255.255.255.128
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.255.224
D. 255.255.255.248

A

A network engineer needs to configure a branch office for 82 hosts. What is the most efficient use of a subnet mask?
A. 255.255.255.128
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.255.224
D. 255.255.255.248

95
Q

What starting binary pattern indicates an address range evenly split between network and host size?
A. 01xxxxxx
B. 0xxxxxxx
C. 10xxxxxx
D. 110xxxxx

A

What starting binary pattern indicates an address range evenly split between network and host size?
A. 01xxxxxx
B. 0xxxxxxx
C. 10xxxxxx
D. 110xxxxx

IP addresses can be identified in a decimal or binary format. Class A address range is from 0-127 in decimal, 0xxxxxxx in binary. Class B address range is 128–191 in decimal, 10xxxxxx in binary. Class C address range is 192-223 in decimal, 110xxxxx in binary. C is the correct answer as this relates to a Class B address range with a default mask of 255.255.0.0.

96
Q

Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?
A. 192.168.2.63
B. 192.168.2.62
C. 192.168.2.61
D. 192.168.2.60
E. 192.168.2.32

A

Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?
A. 192.168.2.63
B. 192.168.2.62
C. 192.168.2.61
D. 192.168.2.60
E. 192.168.2.32

97
Q

Your ISP has given you the address 223.5.14.7/ 29 to assign to your router’s interface. They have also given you the default gateway address of 223.5.14.4. After you have configured the address, the router is unable to ping any remote devices. What is preventing the router from pinging remote devices?
A. The IP address is an invalid class D multicast address. B. The default gateway is the broadcast address for this subnet.
C. The IP address is the broadcast address for this subnet.
D. The default gateway is not an address on the subnet.

A

Your ISP has given you the address 223.5.14.7/ 29 to assign to your router’s interface. They have also given you the default gateway address of 223.5.14.4. After you have configured the address, the router is unable to ping any remote devices. What is preventing the router from pinging remote devices?
A. The IP address is an invalid class D multicast address. B. The default gateway is the broadcast address for this subnet.
C. The IP address is the broadcast address for this subnet.
D. The default gateway is not an address on the subnet.

98
Q

A network administrator has been assigned an IP address space of 192.168.1.0/ 24 for a network with three segments. The first segment needs to support 60 hosts. The second segment needs to support 45 hosts. The third segment needs to support 30 hosts. Which two statements describe this choice? (Choose two).
A. The assigned address will not provide enough IP address space for the required number of hosts.
B. The assigned address represents private IP address space.
C. User IP addresses must be translated to public IP addresses when accessing the Internet.
D. User IP addresses must be translated to private IP addresses when communicating to hosts on other network segments.
E. This assignment will compromise network security.

A

A network administrator has been assigned an IP address space of 192.168.1.0/ 24 for a network with three segments. The first segment needs to support 60 hosts. The second segment needs to support 45 hosts. The third segment needs to support 30 hosts. Which two statements describe this choice? (Choose two).
A. The assigned address will not provide enough IP address space for the required number of hosts.
B. The assigned address represents private IP address space.
C. User IP addresses must be translated to public IP addresses when accessing the Internet.
D. User IP addresses must be translated to private IP addresses when communicating to hosts on other network segments.
E. This assignment will compromise network security.

99
Q

How many hosts are available for 192.168.1.1/ 28?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17
E. 18

A

How many hosts are available for 192.168.1.1/ 28?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17
E. 18

100
Q

You need to configure 52 hosts for a computer lab. Which subnet mask is appropriate?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.254.240
D. 255.255.255.192

A

You need to configure 52 hosts for a computer lab. Which subnet mask is appropriate?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.254.240
D. 255.255.255.192

101
Q

Which subnet mask provides the most efficient use of a Class C address space for a company that requires 10 subnets and 12 hosts per subnet?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.252
F. 255.255.255.240

A

Which subnet mask provides the most efficient use of a Class C address space for a company that requires 10 subnets and 12 hosts per subnet?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.252
F. 255.255.255.240

102
Q

What is the last usable address of the network 10.10.64.0 255.255.252.0?
A. 10.10.64.254
B. 10.10.67.254
C. 10.10.66.254
D. 10.10.65.254

A

What is the last usable address of the network 10.10.64.0 255.255.252.0?
A. 10.10.64.254
B. 10.10.67.254
C. 10.10.66.254
D. 10.10.65.254

103
Q

What is the most efficient subnet mask for a small branch office with seven hosts?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.224

A

What is the most efficient subnet mask for a small branch office with seven hosts?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.224

104
Q

What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?
A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office. C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol. D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.

A

What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?
A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office. C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol. D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.

105
Q

Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30
E. 192.169.42.34

A

Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30
E. 192.169.42.34

106
Q

Which class of IP address will provide sufficient addresses for 66,000 or more hosts?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class E

A

Which class of IP address will provide sufficient addresses for 66,000 or more hosts?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class E

107
Q

From which IP address class can 15 bits be borrowed to create subnets?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

A

From which IP address class can 15 bits be borrowed to create subnets?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

108
Q

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/ 23? (Choose two).
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

A

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/ 23? (Choose two).
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

109
Q

Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?
A. 192.168.1.8/ 29
B. 192.168.1.32/ 27
C. 192.168.1.40/ 29
D. 192.168.1.16/ 28
E. 192.168.1.48/ 29

A

Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?
A. 192.168.1.8/ 29
B. 192.168.1.32/ 27
C. 192.168.1.40/ 29
D. 192.168.1.16/ 28
E. 192.168.1.48/ 29

110
Q

Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/ 20 subnet? (Choose three).
A. 10.1.168.0
B. 10.1.176.1
C. 10.1.174.255
D. 10.1.160.255
E. 10.1.160.0
F. 10.1.175.255

A

Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/ 20 subnet? (Choose three).
A. 10.1.168.0
B. 10.1.176.1
C. 10.1.174.255
D. 10.1.160.255
E. 10.1.160.0
F. 10.1.175.255

111
Q

If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/ 30, what is the address of the subnetwork to which this host belongs?
A. 172.16.45.0
B. 172.16.45.4
C. 172.16.45.8
D. 172.16.45.12
E. 172.16.45.16

A

If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/ 30, what is the address of the subnetwork to which this host belongs?
A. 172.16.45.0
B. 172.16.45.4
C. 172.16.45.8
D. 172.16.45.12
E. 172.16.45.16

112
Q

Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 252
F. 254

A

Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 252
F. 254

113
Q

What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/ 22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.128.0
C. 172.16.156.0
D. 172.16.159.0
E. 172.16.159.128
F. 172.16.192.0

A

What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/ 22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.128.0
C. 172.16.156.0
D. 172.16.159.0
E. 172.16.159.128
F. 172.16.192.0

114
Q

Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.66
D. 192.168.1.129
E. 10.1.1.1
F. 10.1.1.2

A

Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.66
D. 192.168.1.129
E. 10.1.1.1
F. 10.1.1.2

115
Q

The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252

A

The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252

116
Q

Which of the following describe Class A host addresses? (Choose three).
A. The decimal value of the first octet can range from 1 to 126.
B. The decimal value of the first octet can range from 1 to 192.
C. The first octet represents the entire network portion of the address.
D. The default subnet mask for a Class A network is 255.255.0.0.
E. The value of the first binary place in the first octet must be 0.
F. The first two binary bits of the address must be 00.

A

Which of the following describe Class A host addresses? (Choose three).
A. The decimal value of the first octet can range from 1 to 126.
B. The decimal value of the first octet can range from 1 to 192.
C. The first octet represents the entire network portion of the address.
D. The default subnet mask for a Class A network is 255.255.0.0.
E. The value of the first binary place in the first octet must be 0.
F. The first two binary bits of the address must be 00.

117
Q

After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?
A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2. C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0.
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240.
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66.

A

After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?
A. The serial interface must be configured first.
B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2. C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0.
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240.
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66.

118
Q

From where does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
D. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)

A

From where does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
D. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)

119
Q

A network administrator has subnetted the 172.16.0.0 network using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. A duplicate IP address of 172.16.2.120 has accidentally been configured on a workstation in the network. The technician must assign this workstation a new IP address within that same subnetwork. Which address should be assigned to the workstation?
A. 172.16.1.80
B. 172.16.2.80
C. 172.16.1.64
D. 172.16.2.64
E. 172.16.2.127
F. 172.16.2.128

A

A network administrator has subnetted the 172.16.0.0 network using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. A duplicate IP address of 172.16.2.120 has accidentally been configured on a workstation in the network. The technician must assign this workstation a new IP address within that same subnetwork. Which address should be assigned to the workstation?
A. 172.16.1.80
B. 172.16.2.80
C. 172.16.1.64
D. 172.16.2.64
E. 172.16.2.127
F. 172.16.2.128

120
Q

If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/ 20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A. 1024
B. 2046
C. 4094
D. 4096
E. 8190

A

If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/ 20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A. 1024
B. 2046
C. 4094
D. 4096
E. 8190

121
Q

A host computer has the IP address 192.168.43.139 and netmask 255.255.255.240. On which logical IP network does this host reside?
A. 192.168.0.0/ 26
B. 192.168.0.0/ 28
C. 192.168.43.0/ 28
D. 192.168.43.64/ 28
E. 192.168.43.112/ 28
F. 192.168.43.128/ 28

A

A host computer has the IP address 192.168.43.139 and netmask 255.255.255.240. On which logical IP network does this host reside?
A. 192.168.0.0/ 26
B. 192.168.0.0/ 28
C. 192.168.43.0/ 28
D. 192.168.43.64/ 28
E. 192.168.43.112/ 28
F. 192.168.43.128/ 28

122
Q

A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem?
A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/ 1.
B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/ 1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.

A

A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem?
A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/ 1.
B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/ 1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.

123
Q

The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. Two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. Seven 48-port hubs
D. Seven 48-port switches
E. One router interface
F. Seven router interfaces

A

The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. Two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. Seven 48-port hubs
D. Seven 48-port switches
E. One router interface
F. Seven router interfaces

124
Q

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

A

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

125
Q

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address? A. 172.16.16.0
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 172.16.24.0
D. 172.16.28.0

A

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address? **A. 172.16.16.0 **
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 172.16.24.0
D. 172.16.28.0

126
Q

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/ 23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/ 26
B. 10.188.31.0/ 25
C. 10.188.31.0/ 28
D. 10.188.31.0/ 27
E. 10.188.31.0/ 29

A

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/ 23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/ 26
B. 10.188.31.0/ 25
C. 10.188.31.0/ 28
D. 10.188.31.0/ 27
E. 10.188.31.0/ 29

127
Q

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/ 29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9

B. IP address: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1

C. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

D. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17

E. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

A

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/ 29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9

B. IP address: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1

C. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

D. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17

E. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

128
Q

Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two).
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4

A

Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two).
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4

129
Q

What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two).
A. The interface displays a connected (up/ up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched.
B. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.
C. Autonegotiation is disabled.
D. Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/ CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions.
E. 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.

A

What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two).
A. The interface displays a connected (up/ up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched.
B. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.
C. Autonegotiation is disabled.
D. Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/ CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions.
E. 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.

130
Q

What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1?
A. 192.168.8.15
B. 192.168.8.31
C. 192.168.8.63
D. 192.168.8.127

A

What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1?
A. 192.168.8.15
B. 192.168.8.31
C. 192.168.8.63
D. 192.168.8.127

131
Q

Including the address on the Router1 Ethernet interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN to which Router1 is connected?

A. 6
B. 30
C. 62
D. 126

A

Including the address on the Router1 Ethernet interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN to which Router1 is connected?

A. 6
B. 30
C. 62
D. 126

132
Q

An Ethernet cable is attached to a PC NIC and then attached to a switch port. The PC power is turned on and the switch port link LED turns green. The link light indicates what two conditions? (Choose two).
A. Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B. The PC has received a DHCP address.
C. Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.
D. If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/ s.
E. The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
F. The switch port is functioning as a half-duplex connection.

A

An Ethernet cable is attached to a PC NIC and then attached to a switch port. The PC power is turned on and the switch port link LED turns green. The link light indicates what two conditions? (Choose two).
A. Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B. The PC has received a DHCP address.
C. Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.
D. If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/ s.
E. The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
F. The switch port is functioning as a half-duplex connection.

133
Q

Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. source IP address
B. destination IP address
C. source and destination IP address
D. source MAC address
E. destination MAC address

A

Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. source IP address
B. destination IP address
C. source and destination IP address
D. source MAC address
E. destination MAC address

134
Q

The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two).
A. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/ 3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/ 1, fa0/ 2, and fa0/ 3.
E. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.

A

The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two).
A. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/ 3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/ 1, fa0/ 2, and fa0/ 3.
E. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.

135
Q

Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two).
A. increases the number of collision domains
B. decreases the number of collision domains
C. implements VLAN
D. decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

A

Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two).
A. increases the number of collision domains
B. decreases the number of collision domains
C. implements VLAN
D. decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

136
Q

Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the
graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame.
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/ 2.
C. Return the frame to Host B.
D. Send an ARP request for Host C.
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B.
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C.

A

Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the
graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame.
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/ 2.
C. Return the frame to Host B.
D. Send an ARP request for Host C.
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B.
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C.

137
Q

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/ 6 only.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/ 3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports.
E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/ 3.

A

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/ 6 only.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/ 3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports.
E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/ 3.

138
Q

What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B. allows remote management of the switch
C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other

A

What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B. allows remote management of the switch
C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other

139
Q

The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?
A. The system is malfunctioning.
B. The system is not powered up.
C. The system is powered up and operational.
D. The system is forwarding traffic.
E. The system is sensing excessive collisions.

A

The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?
A. The system is malfunctioning.
B. The system is not powered up.
C. The system is powered up and operational.
D. The system is forwarding traffic.
E. The system is sensing excessive collisions.

140
Q

What are two effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two).
A. Increase in switch operating speed.
B. Increased latency.
C. Filtering of all frame errors.
D. Filtering of collision fragments only.
E. Propagation of corrupted or damaged frames.
F. Decreased latency.

A

What are two effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two).
A. Increase in switch operating speed.
B. Increased latency.
C. Filtering of all frame errors.
D. Filtering of collision fragments only.
E. Propagation of corrupted or damaged frames.
F. Decreased latency.

141
Q

Which command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?
A. Switch( config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1
B. Switch( config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1
C. Switch( config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1
D. Switch( config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0

A

Which command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?
A. Switch( config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1
B. Switch( config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1
C. Switch( config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1
D. Switch( config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0

142
Q

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0. d056. efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?
A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

A

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0. d056. efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?
A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

143
Q

After the power-on self-test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch?
A. The POST was successful.
B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.
D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.

A

After the power-on self-test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch?
A. The POST was successful.
B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.
D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.

144
Q

What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two).
A. decreasing the number of collision domains
B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
D. increasing the size of broadcast domains
E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

A

What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two).
A. decreasing the number of collision domains
B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
D. increasing the size of broadcast domains
E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

145
Q

A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame
B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C. forward it out of all ports
D. store it until it learns the correct port

A

A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame
**B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it **
C. forward it out of all ports
D. store it until it learns the correct port

146
Q

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two).
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/ 0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/ 0 and fa0/ 1 only. F. The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.

A

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two).
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/ 0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/ 0 and fa0/ 1 only. F. The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.

147
Q

What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address?
A. drops the frame
B. sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. sends a message to the router requesting the address D. sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address

A

What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address?
A. drops the frame
B. sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. sends a message to the router requesting the address D. sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address

148
Q

As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three).

A. Hub1
B. Switch1
C. Router1
D. Switch2
E. Router2
F. Switch3

A

As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three).

A. Hub1
B. Switch1
C. Router1
D. Switch2
E. Router2
F. Switch3

149
Q

The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/ 3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

A

The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/ 3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

150
Q

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
A. SwitchB( config)# interface FastEthernet 0/ 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

B. SwitchB( config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

C. SwitchB( config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB( config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

D. SwitchB( config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB( config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

E. SwitchB( config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config)# interface FastEthernet 0/ 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

A

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
A. SwitchB( config)# interface FastEthernet 0/ 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

B. SwitchB( config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

C. SwitchB( config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB( config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

D. SwitchB( config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB( config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

E. SwitchB( config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config)# interface FastEthernet 0/ 1
SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

151
Q

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd. 1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb. 5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd. 2246.0035

A

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd. 1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb. 5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd. 2246.0035

152
Q

c

A

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/ 0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?
A. Switch1( config)# line con 0
Switch1( config-line)# password cisco
Switch1( config-line)# login

B. Switch1( config)# interface fa0/ 1
Switch1( config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0

C. Switch1( config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1

D. Switch1( config)# interface fa0/ 1
Switch1( config-if)# duplex full
Switch1( config-if)# speed 100 E.
Switch1( config)# interface fa0/ 1
Switch1( config-if)# switchport mode trunk

153
Q

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?
A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1: A1: A1: A1: A1: A1
D. B2: B2: B2: B2: B2: B2
E. C3: C3: C3: C3: C3: C3
F. D4: D4: D4: D4: D4: D4

A

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?
A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1: A1: A1: A1: A1: A1
D. B2: B2: B2: B2: B2: B2
E. C3: C3: C3: C3: C3: C3
F. D4: D4: D4: D4: D4: D4

154
Q

Which name describes an IPv6 host-enabled tunneling technique that uses IPv4 UDP, does not require dedicated gateway tunnels, and, can pass through existing IPv4 NAT gateways?
A. Dual stack
B. Teredo
C. Manual 6to4
D. Dynamic

A

Which name describes an IPv6 host-enabled tunneling technique that uses IPv4 UDP, does not require dedicated gateway tunnels, and, can pass through existing IPv4 NAT gateways?
A. Dual stack
B. Teredo
C. Manual 6to4
D. Dynamic

155
Q

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE08:
B. 2001::
C. 2002::
D. FE80::
E. FF02::

A

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE08:
B. 2001::
C. 2002::
D. FE80::
E. FF02::

156
Q

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2004: 1: 25A4: 886F:: 1
B. 2002: 7654: A1AD: 61: 81AF:CCC1
C. 2001: 0000: 130F:: 099a:: 12a
D. FEC0: ABCD:WXYZ: 0067:: 2A4

A

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2004: 1: 25A4: 886F:: 1
B. 2002: 7654: A1AD: 61: 81AF:CCC1
C. 2001: 0000: 130F:: 099a:: 12a
D. FEC0: ABCD:WXYZ: 0067:: 2A4

157
Q

Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random.
B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface. C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available.
D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.

A

Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random.
B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface. C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available.
D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.

158
Q

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group? 224.0.0.2.
A. FF02:: 2
B. FF02:: 1
C. FF02:: 4
D. FF02:: 3

A

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group? 224.0.0.2.
A. FF02:: 2
B. FF02:: 1
C. FF02:: 4
D. FF02:: 3

The IP address of all routers of IPV6 is FF02:: 2, the IP address of all routers of IPV4 is 224.0.0.2.

159
Q

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three).
A. The same address for multiple devices in the group.
B. Delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device.
C. any-to-many communication model.
D. one-to-many communication model.
E. A unique IPv6 address for each device in the group.
F. one-to-nearest communication model.

A

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three).
A. The same address for multiple devices in the group.
B. Delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device.
C. any-to-many communication model.
D. one-to-many communication model.
E. A unique IPv6 address for each device in the group.
F. one-to-nearest communication model.

160
Q

Which address is the IPv6 all-RIP-routers multicast group address that is used by RIPng as the destination address for RIP updates?
A. FF02:: 6
B. FF05:: 101
C. FF02:: 9
D. FF02:: A

A

Which address is the IPv6 all-RIP-routers multicast group address that is used by RIPng as the destination address for RIP updates?
A. FF02:: 6
B. FF05:: 101
C. FF02:: 9
D. FF02:: A

161
Q

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?
A. :: 1
B. 0::/ 10
C. 2000::/ 3
D. ::

A

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?
A. :: 1
B. 0::/ 10
C. 2000::/ 3
D. ::

162
Q

What are three IPv6 transition mechanisms? (Choose three).
A. VPN tunneling
B. Teredo tunneling
C. ISATAP tunneling
D. GRE tunneling
E. 6to4 tunneling

A

What are three IPv6 transition mechanisms? (Choose three).
A. VPN tunneling
B. Teredo tunneling
C. ISATAP tunneling
D. GRE tunneling
E. 6to4 tunneling

163
Q

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two).
A. Link-local addresses start with FF00:/ 10.
B. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
C. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/ 12.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is :: 1.
E. Global addresses start with 2000:/ 3.

A

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two).
A. Link-local addresses start with FF00:/ 10.
B. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
C. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/ 12.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is :: 1.
E. Global addresses start with 2000:/ 3.

164
Q

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?
A. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it.
B. By inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address.
C. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE.
D. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes.
E. By appending 0xFF to the MAC address.

A

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?
A. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it.
B. By inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address.
C. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE.
D. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes.
E. By appending 0xFF to the MAC address.

165
Q

What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?
A. Multicast
B. Anycast
C. Unspecified address
D. Global unicast

A

What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?
A. Multicast
B. Anycast
C. Unspecified address
D. Global unicast

166
Q

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two).
A. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
B. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
C. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
D. Leading zero’s in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
E. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.

A

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two).
A. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
B. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
C. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
D. Leading zero’s in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
E. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.

167
Q

The network administrator has been asked to give a reason for moving from an IPv4 network to an IPv6 network. What are two reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two).
A. Change of destination address in the IPv6 header.
B. NAT.
C. Change of source address in the IPv6 header.
D. No broadcast.
E. Telnet does not require a password.
F. autoconfiguration.

A

The network administrator has been asked to give a reason for moving from an IPv4 network to an IPv6 network. What are two reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two).
A. Change of destination address in the IPv6 header.
B. NAT.
C. Change of source address in the IPv6 header.
D. No broadcast.
E. Telnet does not require a password.
F. autoconfiguration.

168
Q

In which integration method is an IPv6 packet encapsulated within an IPv4 protocol?
A. dual-stack
B. tunneling
C. dot1q
D. proxy

A

In which integration method is an IPv6 packet encapsulated within an IPv4 protocol?
A. dual-stack
B. tunneling
C. dot1q
D. proxy

169
Q

Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two).
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

A

Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two).
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

170
Q

Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. An IPv6 address is 64 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.
B. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.
C. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.
D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.

A

Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. An IPv6 address is 64 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.
B. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.
C. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.
D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.

171
Q

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?
A. ipv6 autoconfig 2001: db8: 2222: 7272:: 72/ 64
B. ipv6 autoconfig
C. ipv6 address PREFIX_1:: 1/ 64
D. ipv6 address 2001: db8: 2222: 7272:: 72/ 64

A

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?
A. ipv6 autoconfig 2001: db8: 2222: 7272:: 72/ 64
B. ipv6 autoconfig
C. ipv6 address PREFIX_1:: 1/ 64
D. ipv6 address 2001: db8: 2222: 7272:: 72/ 64

172
Q

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three).
A. Optional IPsec
B. Autoconfiguration
C. No broadcasts
D. Complicated header
E. Plug-and-play
F. Checksums

A

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three).
A. Optional IPsec
B. Autoconfiguration
C. No broadcasts
D. Complicated header
E. Plug-and-play
F. Checksums

173
Q

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two).
A. anycast.
B. broadcast.
C. multicast.
D. podcast.
E. allcast.

A

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two).
A. anycast.
B. broadcast.
C. multicast.
D. podcast.
E. allcast.

174
Q

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514: 82C3: 0000: 0000: 0029: EC7A: 0000: EC72?
A. B514: 82C3: 0029: EC7A:EC72
B. B514: 82C3:: 0029: EC7A:EC72
C. B514: 82C3: 0029:: EC7A: 0000: EC72
D. B514: 82C3:: 0029: EC7A: 0: EC72

A

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514: 82C3: 0000: 0000: 0029: EC7A: 0000: EC72?
A. B514: 82C3: 0029: EC7A:EC72
B. B514: 82C3:: 0029: EC7A:EC72
C. B514: 82C3: 0029:: EC7A: 0000: EC72
D. B514: 82C3:: 0029: EC7A: 0: EC72

175
Q

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

A

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

176
Q

Which IPv6 address is valid?
A. 2001: 0db8: 0000: 130F: 0000: 0000: 08GC: 140B
B. 2001: 0db8: 0: 130H:: 87C: 140B
C. 2031:: 130F:: 9C0: 876A: 130B
D. 2031: 0: 130F:: 9C0: 876A: 130B

A

Which IPv6 address is valid?
A. 2001: 0db8: 0000: 130F: 0000: 0000: 08GC: 140B
B. 2001: 0db8: 0: 130H:: 87C: 140B
C. 2031:: 130F:: 9C0: 876A: 130B
D. 2031: 0: 130F:: 9C0: 876A: 130B

177
Q

Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three).
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address. E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.

A

Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three).
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address. E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.

178
Q

Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four).
A. ::
B. :: 192: 168: 0: 1
C. 2000::
D. 2001: 3452: 4952: 2837::
E. 2002: c0a8: 101:: 42
F. 2003: dead:beef: 4dad: 23: 46: bb: 101

A

Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four).
A. ::
B. :: 192: 168: 0: 1
C. 2000::
D. 2001: 3452: 4952: 2837::
E. 2002: c0a8: 101:: 42
F. 2003: dead:beef: 4dad: 23: 46: bb: 101

179
Q

Which of the following describes the process of encapsulating IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets?
A. Routing
B. Tunneling
C. Hashing
D. NAT
E. PAT

A

Which of the following describes the process of encapsulating IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets?
A. Routing
B. Tunneling
C. Hashing
D. NAT
E. PAT

180
Q

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80:: 380e: 611a:e14f: 3d69
B. FE81:: 280f: 512b:e14f: 3d69
C. FEFE: 0345: 5f1b:: e14d: 3d69
D. FE08:: 280e: 611: a:f14f: 3d69

A

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80:: 380e: 611a:e14f: 3d69
B. FE81:: 280f: 512b:e14f: 3d69
C. FEFE: 0345: 5f1b:: e14d: 3d69
D. FE08:: 280e: 611: a:f14f: 3d69

181
Q

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two).
A. No broadcast.
B. Change of source address in the IPv6 header.
C. Change of destination address in the IPv6 header.
D. Telnet access does not require a password.
E. autoconfig
F. NAT

A

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two).
A. No broadcast.
B. Change of source address in the IPv6 header.
C. Change of destination address in the IPv6 header.
D. Telnet access does not require a password.
E. autoconfig
F. NAT

182
Q

Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?
A. Hop Limit
B. Flow Label
C. TTD
D. Hop Count
E. Scan Timer

A

Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?
A. Hop Limit
B. Flow Label
C. TTD
D. Hop Count
E. Scan Timer

183
Q

Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command are true? (Choose two).
A. It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.
B. It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.
C. It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol.
D. It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol.
E. It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel.

A

Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command are true? (Choose two).
A. It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.
B. It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.
C. It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol.
D. It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol.
E. It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel.

184
Q

In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three).
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length. B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

A

In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three).
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

185
Q

Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two).
A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
B. DHCP
C. NHRP
D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration
E. ISATAP tunneling

A

Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two).
A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
B. DHCP
C. NHRP
D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration
E. ISATAP tunneling

186
Q

PC1 is trying to login into SERVER1. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is incorrect?
A. Test the local IP stack is working by pinging the loopback address.
B. Test that the local IP stack is talking to the Data Link layer (LAN driver) by pinging the local IP address.
C. Test that the host is working on the LAN by pinging the default gateway.
D. Ping the remote server to verify local LAN connectivity.

A

PC1 is trying to login into SERVER1. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is incorrect?
A. Test the local IP stack is working by pinging the loopback address.
B. Test that the local IP stack is talking to the Data Link layer (LAN driver) by pinging the local IP address.
C. Test that the host is working on the LAN by pinging the default gateway.
D. Ping the remote server to verify local LAN connectivity.

187
Q

Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/ 12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.

A

Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/ 12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.

188
Q

A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is the problem?
A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
B. TCP/ IP is not functioning on Host1
C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
D. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
E. Interface Fa0/ 0 on Router1 is shutdown.
F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

A

A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is the problem?
A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
B. TCP/ IP is not functioning on Host1
C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
D. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
E. Interface Fa0/ 0 on Router1 is shutdown.
F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

189
Q

The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two).
A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

A

The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two).
A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

190
Q

A user is unable to connect to the internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting starting at the lowest layer, what is the correct troubleshooting order?
1. Verify NIC operation
2. Verify ethernet cable connection
3. Verify URL
4. Verify IP configuration

A. 3412
B. 2143
C. 4213
D. 1243

A

A user is unable to connect to the internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting starting at the lowest layer, what is the correct troubleshooting order?
1. Verify NIC operation
2. Verify ethernet cable connection
3. Verify URL
4. Verify IP configuration

A. 3412
B. 2143
C. 4213
D. 1243

191
Q

A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.

A

A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.

192
Q

The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and the client is no longer able to reach network resources. What should be done to correct this situation?
A. Verify that the DNS server address is correct in the DHCP pool. B. Ping the default gateway to populate the ARP cache. C. Use the tracert command on the DHCP client to first determine where the problem is located. D. Clear all DHCP leases on the router to prevent address conflicts. E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.

Lammle, Todd. Cisco CCNA 200-301 PassFast: Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA 200-301 (Todd Lammle Authorized Study Guides) (p. 45). LammlePress, LLC. Kindle Edition.
Lammle, Todd. Cisco CCNA 200-301 PassFast: Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA 200-301 (Todd Lammle Authorized Study Guides) (p. 45). LammlePress, LLC. Kindle Edition.

A