Network Flashcards
1
Q
What is the primary purpose of networks?
A
To make connections between machines.
2
Q
What is a converged network?
A
A network that combines multiple types of traffic like data, video, and voice.
3
Q
What does 99.999% availability mean in network terms?
A
Only 5 minutes downtime per year.
4
Q
Name three examples of network traffic.
A
- File sharing
- Video chatting
5
Q
What is a client in a network?
A
A device end-user accesses the network with, such as a workstation, laptop, or smartphone.
6
Q
What function does a server provide in a network?
A
Provides resources to the rest of the network.
7
Q
What is a hub?
A
An older technology to connect networked devices, receiving information in one port and rebroadcasting it out all other ports.
8
Q
What does a Wireless Access Point (WAP) do?
A
Allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network.
9
Q
How does a switch differ from a hub?
A
A switch learns what devices are on which ports and only forwards traffic to the destination port based on the MAC address.
10
Q
What is the primary role of a router?
A
To connect two different networks together and forward traffic based on logical addresses.
11
Q
What types of media are used to connect devices in a network?
A
- Copper cable
- Fiber optic cable
- Radio frequency waves (Wi-Fi)
12
Q
What is a Wide Area Network (WAN) link?
A
Physically connects networks together and includes leased lines, DSL, and fiber optic.
13
Q
What is the Client/Server model?
A
Uses dedicated servers to provide access to files, scanners, printers, and other resources.
14
Q
What is one benefit of the Client/Server model?
A
Centralized administration.
15
Q
What is a drawback of the Peer-to-Peer model?
A
Decentralized management.
16
Q
What is a Personal Area Network (PAN)?
A
The smallest type of wired or wireless network covering a few meters.
17
Q
What is a Local Area Network (LAN)?
A
Connects components in a limited distance, typically within a building or campus.
18
Q
What defines a Campus Area Network (CAN)?
A
Connects building-centric LANs across a university or business park.
19
Q
What is a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)?
A
Connects scattered locations across a city, larger than a CAN but smaller than a WAN.
20
Q
What characterizes a Wide Area Network (WAN)?
A
Connects geographically disparate internal networks.
21
Q
What is the difference between physical and logical topology?
A
- Physical Topology: How devices are physically connected.
- Logical Topology: How the actual traffic flows in the network.
22
Q
What is a Bus Topology?
A
Uses a cable running through an area that required network connectivity, where each device taps into the cable.
23
Q
How does a Ring Topology operate?
A
Uses a cable running in a circular loop where data travels in a singular direction.
24
Q
What is the most popular physical LAN topology?
A
Star Topology.
25
What is a Full-Mesh Topology?
Every node connects to every other node, providing optimal routing.
26
What does Infrastructure Mode refer to in wireless networks?
Requires centralized management and uses a wireless access point.
27
What is Ad Hoc Mode in wireless networks?
A decentralized wireless network with no routers or access points required.
28
What technologies are part of the Internet of Things (IoT)?
* 802.11
* Bluetooth
* RFID
* NFC
* Infrared (IR)
* Z-Wave
* Ant+
29
What is the OSI model?
A reference model developed in 1977 by ISO consisting of 7 layers.
30
What are the purposes of the OSI model?
* Categorize functions of the network into layers
* Compare technologies across manufacturers
* Aid in troubleshooting networks
31
What does Layer 1 of the OSI model represent?
Physical Layer, responsible for transmission of bits across the network.
32
What are the characteristics of Layer 1?
* Representation of bits
* Wiring standards for connectors
* Physical topology
* Synchronizing bits
* Bandwidth usage
* Multiplexing strategy
33
How are bits represented on the medium in Layer 1?
Using electrical voltage for copper wiring or light for fiber optics.
34
What is TIA/EIA-568-B?
The standard wiring for RJ-45 cables and ports.
35
What are the types of physical topologies in Layer 1?
* Bus
* Ring
* Star
* Hub-and-Spoke
* Full Mesh
* Partial Mesh
36
How is communication synchronized in Layer 1?
* Asynchronous
* Synchronous
37
What is Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM)?
A method where each session takes turns using time slots to share the medium.
38
What is the main function of Layer 2 in the OSI model?
Packages data into frames and transmits those frames on the network.
39
What is a MAC address?
A 48-bit address assigned to a network interface card (NIC) by the manufacturer.
40
What are the methods of transmission in Layer 2?
* Link Layer Control (LLC)
* Media Access Control (MAC)
41
What is the main purpose of Layer 3?
Forwards traffic (routing) with logical addresses.
42
What types of addresses are used in Layer 3?
* IPv4
* IPv6
43
What is Packet Switching?
A method where data is divided into packets and forwarded.
44
What is TCP?
A connection-oriented protocol that ensures reliable transport of segments.
45
What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
* TCP: Connection-oriented, reliable
* UDP: Connectionless, unreliable
46
What is the function of Layer 5 in the OSI model?
Manages sessions, including setup, maintenance, and teardown.
47
What is the main responsibility of Layer 6?
Formatting and securing data exchanged between systems.
48
What does the Application Layer (Layer 7) provide?
Application-level services for user communication with the computer.
49
What is encapsulation in the OSI model?
The process of putting headers (and sometimes trailers) around data.
50
What is decapsulation?
The action of removing the encapsulation as data moves up the OSI layers.
51
What is a Protocol Data Unit (PDU) at Layer 2?
Frames.
52
What is the SYN flag used for in TCP communications?
To synchronize the connection during the three-way handshake.
53
What does the FIN flag indicate?
It signals the teardown of a virtual connection.
54
What is a MAC address used for?
To identify a network card on the local area network.
55
What is the EtherType field in a frame?
Indicates which protocol is encapsulated in the payload of the frame.
56
What are examples of Layer 7 protocols?
* E-mail (POP3, IMAP, SMTP)
* Web Browsing (HTTP, HTTPS)
* DNS
* FTP, FTPS
* Remote Access (TELNET, SSH)
* SNMP
57
What is the TCP/IP Model also known as?
TCP/IP stack or the DoD Model
58
How many layers does the TCP/IP Model have?
4-layer model
59
What does the Network Interface layer describe?
Physical and electrical characteristics
60
What types of cabling can the Network Interface layer use?
* Coaxial
* Optical fiber
* Twisted-pair copper cabling
61
What is the function of the Internet layer in the TCP/IP Model?
Packages data into IP datagrams
62
What examples are included in the Internet layer?
* IP
* ICMP
* ARP
* RARP
63
What does the Transport layer provide?
Communication session management between hosts
64
What are examples of protocols in the Transport layer?
* TCP
* UDP
* RTP
65
What does the Application layer define?
TCP/IP application protocols
66
What are some examples of protocols in the Application layer?
* HTTP
* TELNET
* FTP
* SNMP
* DNS
* SMTP
* SSL
* TLS
67
What is the range of port numbers?
0 to 65,535
68
What are 'Well-known' ports?
Ports 0 to 1023
69
What are ephemeral ports?
Short-lived transport port automatically selected from a predefined range
70
What is the function of File Transfer Protocol (FTP)?
Transfers computer files between a client and server on a computer network
71
What port does Secure Shell (SSH) operate on?
Port 22
72
What does the SSH File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) provide?
File access, file transfer, and file management over a reliable data stream
73
What is the purpose of Telnet?
Provides bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility
74
What is the Internet standard for sending electronic mail?
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
75
What port does Domain Name Service (DNS) use?
Port 53
76
What does DHCP do?
Dynamically assigns an IP address and other network configuration parameters to a client
77
What is the purpose of HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?
Foundation of data communication for WWW
78
What port does Network Time Protocol (NTP) use?
Port 123
79
What does the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) do?
Communicates information about network connectivity issues back to the sender
80
What is the function of the Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) Protocol?
Encapsulates a variety of network layer protocols inside a virtual link over an IP network
81
What is the purpose of Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)?
Protects data flows between peers at the network or packet processing layer
82
What does the Authentication Header (AH) provide?
Integrity and authentication
83
What does the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) provide?
Encryption and integrity for data packets
84
True or False: TCP is a connection-oriented method of communication.
True
85
Fill in the blank: The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a _______ data transport protocol.
lightweight
86
What protocols are used to send Secure and encrypted emails?
SMTP TLS and LDAPS
87
What port does Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) use?
Port 3389
88
What does Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) provide?
Signaling and controlling multimedia communication sessions
89
What is media in the context of networking?
Material used to transmit data over the network
90
What are the three categories of media?
* Copper
* Fiber optic
* Wireless
91
What are the components of coaxial cable?
* Inner: Insulated conductor or center wire
* Outer: Braided metal shield
92
What is the purpose of the outer braid in coaxial cables?
Provides EMI resistance due to shielding
93
What is RG-6 commonly used for?
Used by local cable companies to connect individual homes
94
What is the typical use of RG-59 coaxial cable?
Carries composite video between two nearby devices
95
Which connector is typically used for cable TV and cable modem connections?
F-connector
96
What does BNC stand for?
Bayonet Neill-Concelman or British Naval Connector
97
What distinguishes twinaxial cable from coaxial cable?
Uses two inner conductors to carry data
98
What are DB-9 and DB-25 connectors used for?
Asynchronous serial communications and connecting to an external modem
99
What is the most popular physical LAN media type?
Twisted Pair Cables
100
How many individually insulated strands of copper wire are in twisted pair cables?
Eight
101
What is the benefit of tighter twists in twisted pair cables?
Less EMI
102
What does UTP stand for?
Unshielded Twisted Pair
103
What is the difference between UTP and STP?
* UTP: Cheaper, no shielding
* STP: More expensive, has metallic shielding
104
What is the primary use of RJ-45 connectors?
Used in Ethernet networks
105
How many pins does an RJ-11 connector typically use?
Commonly 2 or 4 pins
106
What is the definition of bandwidth?
Theoretical measure of how much data could be transferred from a source to its destination
107
What is throughput?
Actual measure of how much data transferred from a source to its destination
108
What is the recommended maximum cable run length from the IDF to the office?
Under 70 meters
109
What is a straight-through patch cable?
Contains the exact same pinout on both ends
110
What standard is preferred for wiring a building if no pre-existing pattern is used?
T-568B
111
What does DTE stand for?
Data Terminating Equipment
112
What does DCE stand for?
Data Communications Equipment
113
What is the difference between straight-through and crossover cables?
* Straight-through: DTE to DCE or DCE to DTE
* Crossover: DTE to DTE or DCE to DCE
114
What does MDIX stand for?
Medium Dependent Interface Crossover
115
What is the purpose of plenum cable?
Provides a fire-retardant chemical layer and minimizes dangerous fumes if on fire
116
What type of cable is also known as PVC?
Non-plenum Cable
117
What are the two types of fiber optic cables?
* Multimode Fiber (MMF)
* Single-Mode Fiber (SMF)
118
What is a key feature of Single-Mode Fiber?
Used for longer distances and has a smaller core size
119
What distinguishes Multimode Fiber from Single-Mode Fiber?
Larger core size allows for multiple modes of travel for light
120
What is Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM)?
Combines multiple signals into one signal over a single fiber using different wavelengths
121
What are the advantages of fiber-optic cables?
* Higher bandwidth
* Longer distances
* Immune to EMI
* Better security
122
What are the advantages of copper cables?
* Less expensive
* Easy to install
* Inexpensive tools
123
What is the function of media converters?
Convert media from one format to another
124
What is a transceiver?
Device that sends and receives data
125
What is the difference between full duplex and half duplex?
* Full Duplex: Devices can communicate simultaneously
* Half Duplex: Devices can either transmit or receive, but not both at the same time
126
What is the maximum support speed of GBIC?
Up to 4.25 Gbps
127
What does SFP+ stand for?
Enhanced SFP, supporting up to 16 Gbps
128
What is the main purpose of a cable distribution system?
Connect the network's backbone to end user’s wall jacks
129
What is a demarcation point?
Entrance facilities where WAN connection enters a building
130
What type of punch down block is used for higher-speed network wiring?
110 Block
131
What is the purpose of patch panels?
Connect wiring from the jack to a network switch in a flexible manner
132
What is the primary use of fiber patch panels?
Connect fiber jacks throughout the building to a single patch panel
133
What is the primary objective of Ethernet?
To provide a standard for networking devices to communicate over a local area network (LAN)
## Footnote
Ethernet has become the dominant technology for Layer 1 in networking.
134
What type of cable was Ethernet originally run over?
Coax cables (10Base5, 10Base2)
## Footnote
Ethernet has since transitioned to using twisted pair cables.
135
What is the maximum speed and distance for 10BASE-T?
Maximum speed: 10 Mbps, Maximum distance: 100 meters
136
What are the two main access methods for devices on a network?
* Deterministic
* Contention-based
137
What does CSMA/CD stand for?
Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detect
138
What are the three components of CSMA/CD?
* Carrier Sense
* Multiple Access
* Collision Detect
139
What is a collision domain?
Comprised of all devices on a shared Ethernet segment
140
How do switches affect collision domains?
Each port on a switch is a separate collision domain, reducing the chance of collisions
141
What is bandwidth in networking?
The measure of how many bits the network can transmit in 1 second (bps)
142
What is the role of a hub in a network?
A Layer 1 device used to connect multiple network devices/workstations
143
What are the three basic types of Ethernet hubs?
* Passive Hub
* Active Hub
* Smart Hub
144
What is the function of a bridge in networking?
Analyzes source MAC addresses in frames and makes forwarding decisions based on destination MAC addresses
145
What distinguishes a switch from a hub?
A switch is a Layer 2 device that learns MAC addresses and makes forwarding decisions based on them
146
What is a Layer 3 device used for?
To connect multiple networks together and make forwarding decisions based on logical network addresses
147
What is the purpose of VLANs?
To allow different logical networks to share the same physical hardware while providing added security and efficiency
148
What does PoE stand for and what does it do?
Power Over Ethernet; supplies electrical power over Ethernet cables
149
What is the maximum power provided by PoE+?
Up to 25.5 watts
150
What is the purpose of port mirroring?
To make a copy of all traffic destined for a port and send it to another port for analysis
151
What is the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)?
A protocol that uses virtual IP and MAC addresses to provide an active and standby router
152
What is the primary function of a firewall?
To protect the network by allowing or blocking traffic based on predefined security rules
153
What is the difference between IDS and IPS?
* IDS recognizes attacks through signatures and anomalies
* IPS recognizes and responds to attacks
154
What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
To permit redundant links between switches and prevent traffic loops
155
What are the four states a port can transition through in STP?
* Blocking
* Listening
* Learning
* Forwarding
156
What is a VLAN trunking?
Transmits multiple VLANs over the same physical cable, tagging each VLAN with a 4-byte identifier
157
What is the function of a VPN concentrator?
Provides secure connections between remote users and a company network
158
What is the primary purpose of a proxy server?
To make requests to an external network on behalf of a client
159
What does QoS stand for?
Quality of Service
160
What is the role of a Layer 3 switch?
To connect multiple network segments and make Layer 3 routing decisions
161
What does MAC filtering do?
Permits or denies traffic based on a device’s MAC address
162
What is the significance of the root bridge in STP?
It acts as a reference point for a spanning tree and is elected based on the lowest bridge ID
163
True or False: All ports on a root bridge are designated ports.
True
164
Fill in the blank: A _______ is used to connect multiple network devices at Layer 2.
[switch]
165
What does the acronym SCADA stand for?
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
166
What is the IPv4 address format?
Written in dotted-decimal notation, e.g., 10.1.2.3
## Footnote
Each IPv4 address consists of 4 separate numbers divided by dots, known as octets.
167
What defines the network portion of an IPv4 address?
Subnet mask
## Footnote
The subnet mask determines which part of the IP address is the network and which part is the host.
168
What is the length of an IPv4 address?
32-bits
169
What are the two portions of an IPv4 address?
Network portion and Host portion
170
What is the purpose of the loopback address?
Used for testing and refers to the device itself
## Footnote
Most commonly represented as 127.0.0.1.
171
What are the characteristics of routable IP addresses?
Publicly managed by ICANN and must be purchased through an ISP
172
What is a Private IP address?
Not routable outside the local area network and can be used by anyone
173
What does NAT stand for, and what is its purpose?
Network Address Translation; allows routing of private IPs through a public IP
174
What is an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA)?
Dynamically assigned by the OS when DHCP server is unavailable
## Footnote
APIPA uses the range of 169.254.x.x.
175
What does DHCP stand for?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
176
What is the role of a subnet mask?
Defines the network portion of an IP address
177
What is the purpose of subnetting?
More efficient use of IP addresses, enables separation of networks for security, and enables bandwidth control
178
What are the methods of IPv4 data transmission?
* Unicast
* Multicast
* Broadcast
179
What is the primary benefit of IPv6 over IPv4?
Provides enough IP addresses for generations to come
180
How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
128-bits
181
What are the types of IPv6 addresses?
* Unicast Addresses
* Link-local Address
* Multicast Addresses
* Anycast Addresses
182
What is Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC)?
Discovers the current network and selects its own host ID based on its MAC address
183
What is the purpose of the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)?
Used to learn Layer 2 addresses on the network
184
What does CIDR stand for?
Classless Interdomain Routing
185
What is Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM)?
Allows subnets of various sizes to be used
186
Which routing protocols support Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM)?
* RIPv2
* OSPF
* IS-IS
* EIGRP
* BGP
187
What is used to convert binary to decimal?
A table to convert from binary to decimal
188
What does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) provide to clients?
* IP
* Subnet mask
* Default gateway
* DNS server
* WINS server
189
True or False: IPv6 uses DHCP for address configuration.
False
## Footnote
IPv6 primarily uses auto-configuration methods.
190
What is a Virtual IP Address (VIP)?
An IP address that does not correlate to an actual physical network interface
191
What is the significance of the first octet in classful IP addressing?
Defines the class of IP address and the default subnet mask
192
What is the primary function of routers?
Forward traffic between subnets, internal and external networks, or between two external networks.
193
What is a broadcast domain?
A network segment where devices can communicate directly with each other using broadcast messages.
194
What type of switch can perform routing functions?
Multilayer switches.
195
What is the role of a routing table?
Helps determine the best route entry for the network.
196
What is the most specific route entry in a routing table?
A route entry with the longest prefix.
197
What are directly connected routes?
Routes learned by physical connection between routers.
198
What is a static route?
A route manually configured by an administrator.
199
What is a default static route?
0.0.0.0/0; sent when the router doesn't know a specific route.
200
What are dynamic routing protocols?
Protocols that learn routes by exchanging information between routers.
201
What does Split Horizon prevent?
A route learned on one interface from being advertised back out of that same interface.
202
What is Poison Reverse?
A method that advertises a route back out of the same interface with an infinite metric.
203
What are Interior Gateway Protocols (IGP)?
Protocols that operate within an autonomous system.
204
What are Exterior Gateway Protocols (EGP)?
Protocols that operate between autonomous systems.
205
What is a Distance Vector protocol?
Sends a full copy of the routing table to directly connected neighbors at regular intervals.
206
What is a Link State protocol?
Requires all routers to know about the paths that all other routers can reach.
207
What is RIP?
An Interior Gateway Protocol that uses hop count as a metric.
208
What is OSPF?
An Interior Gateway Protocol that uses cost as a metric based on link speed.
209
What is EIGRP?
An advanced distance-vector protocol that uses bandwidth and delay, making it a hybrid of distance-vector and link-state.
210
What is BGP?
An External Gateway Protocol that uses the number of autonomous system hops.
211
What does administrative distance (AD) indicate?
The believability of a routing protocol; lower AD is more believable.
212
What are metrics in routing protocols?
Values assigned to a route to determine the preferred path.
213
What is NAT?
Network Address Translation; translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses.
214
What is PAT?
Port Address Translation; uses port numbers instead of IP addresses for translation.
215
What is dynamic NAT?
IP addresses automatically assigned from a pool.
216
What is static NAT?
IP addresses manually assigned.
217
What is IGMP?
Internet Group Management Protocol; used by clients and routers to manage multicast group memberships.
218
What is PIM?
Protocol Independent Multicast; routes multicast traffic between multicast-enabled routers.
219
What does DHCP do?
Assigns IP addresses and provides subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server.
220
What does DNS stand for?
Domain Name System.
221
What is the purpose of Zone Transfer in DNS?
Sharing information between DNS servers about domain names and associated IP addresses.
222
What is NTP?
Network Time Protocol; synchronizes clocks between systems over a packet-switched network.
223
What is the D-O-R-A process in DHCP?
Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge.
224
What is a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)?
A complete domain name including all levels, such as subdomain and top-level domain.
225
What are A Records in DNS?
Address Records that link a hostname to an IPv4 address.
226
What is a CNAME Record?
Canonical Name Record used to point a domain to another domain name.
227
What is an MX Record?
Mail Exchange Record used to direct emails to a mail server.
228
What is an SOA Record?
Start of Authority Record used to store important information about a domain or zone.
229
What is a PTR Record?
Pointer Record used to correlate an IP address with a domain name.
230
What does a TXT Record do?
Stores machine-readable data in the domain name system.
231
What is an NS Record?
Name Server Record indicating which DNS name server is authoritative for a domain.
232
What is the function of a DNS name server?
It is the authoritative one for a domain
## Footnote
The DNS name server is responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses.
233
What does External DNS refer to?
External DNS is essential for making domain names accessible on the internet.
234
What is a DNS Resolver?
Also known as a DNS cache located on an individual host
235
What is Recursive Lookup in DNS?
It involves querying multiple DNS servers to find the required information.
236
What is Interactive Lookup in DNS?
DNS resolver will continually query DNS servers until it finds the one with the IP for the domain
237
What is Network Time Protocol (NTP)?
Synchronizes clocks between systems communicating over a packet-switched, variable-latency data network
## Footnote
It is crucial for ensuring accurate timekeeping across networked systems.
238
What port does NTP use?
Port 123
## Footnote
NTP uses UDP for communication.
239
What is the maximum number of stratum levels NTP can handle?
15 stratum levels
## Footnote
Stratum levels indicate the distance from the reference clock.
240
What is the Pareto principle in relation to Wide Area Networks (WANs)?
80% of traffic stays on the LAN, while only 20% goes to WAN
## Footnote
This principle was commonly invoked in the early 1990s but has changed over time.
241
What are the types of WAN connection types?
* Dedicated leased line
* Circuit-switched connection
* Packet-switched connection
## Footnote
Each type has its own characteristics and use cases.
242
What is a Dedicated Leased Line?
Logical connection that connects two sites through a service provider’s facility
## Footnote
It is more expensive because the customer does not share bandwidth with others.
243
How does a Circuit-Switched Connection function?
Connection is brought up only when needed, like making a phone call
## Footnote
This on-demand bandwidth can provide cost savings.
244
What is a Packet-Switched Connection?
Always on, like a dedicated leased line, but multiple customers share the bandwidth
245
What physical media are used in WAN?
* Copper wires
* Fiber-optic cable
* Electric power lines
## Footnote
Each type has its own advantages and applications.
246
What is the maximum speed supported by Broadband over Power Lines (BPL)?
Up to 2.7 Mbps
## Footnote
BPL utilizes existing power line infrastructure.
247
What are the frequency bands for 5G?
* Low-band Frequencies: 600-850 MHz
* Mid-band Frequencies: 2.5 to 3.7 GHz
* High-band Frequencies: 25-39 GHz
## Footnote
Each band offers different speeds and coverage.
248
What is GSM?
A cellular technology that converts voice during a call into data
249
What is Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA)?
A cellular technology that uses code division to split up the channel
250
What does WiMax stand for?
Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
## Footnote
It requires an antenna installed on the roof for connectivity.
251
What is the main characteristic of Frame Relay?
Frame relay connects sites through virtual circuits.
252
What is Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)?
Layer 2 WAN technology operating using Permanent Virtual Circuits (PVCs) and Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs)
## Footnote
It uses fixed-length cells to increase transmission speed.
253
What is Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)?
Supports multiple protocols on the same network
## Footnote
Used by service providers for efficient data forwarding.
254
What is the purpose of Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN)?
Allows Internet to be used as WAN connection for secure site-to-site communication
## Footnote
It includes authentication and encryption to secure traffic.
255
What is Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SDWAN)?
A virtual WAN architecture that allows enterprises to leverage any combination of transport services
## Footnote
It reduces bottlenecks caused by traditional WAN architecture.
256
What is the function of a Channel Service Unit / Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU)?
Used to terminate the digital signals at customer’s demarcation point
257
What are the two classifications of Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
* Basic Rate Interface (BRI)
* Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
## Footnote
BRI offers two 64-kbps channels, while PRI offers a 1.472-Mbps data path.
258
What is the maximum bandwidth of Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)?
53.3 kbps
## Footnote
This is due to accessing a single 64-kbps channel at a time.
259
What does WLAN stand for?
Wireless Local Area Network
## Footnote
WLAN allows users to roam within a coverage area.
260
What is the most common type of wireless networking standard?
IEEE 802.11
## Footnote
Other wireless options include Bluetooth, Infrared, NFC, Ant+, and Z-Wave.
261
What is an Ad Hoc network?
Wireless devices communicate directly without a centralized access point
## Footnote
This type of network allows peer-to-peer connections.
262
What is the primary function of a Wireless Access Point (AP)?
Expands wired LAN into the wireless domain
## Footnote
It connects wired LAN and wireless devices into the same subnet.
263
What is the difference between a Wireless Access Point and a Wireless Router?
A Wireless Router is a gateway device that connects wireless devices to the Internet
## Footnote
It often combines features like AP, router, switch, and firewall.
264
What are the three types of WLAN Service Sets?
* Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
* Basic Service Set (BSS)
* Extended Service Set (ESS)
## Footnote
These service sets define how wireless devices communicate.
265
What is a Mesh Topology?
A network topology that may not use centralized control
## Footnote
It combines wireless range and various technologies like Wi-Fi and Cellular.
266
What is the recommended coverage overlap for 2.4 GHz AP Placement?
10% to 15% coverage overlap
## Footnote
This helps maintain the desired coverage area.
267
What is the purpose of a wireless survey?
To determine coverage areas and produce a heat map
## Footnote
This helps in planning AP placement.
268
What does DSSS stand for in wireless frequencies?
Direct-Sequence Spread Spectrum
## Footnote
It modulates data over an entire range of frequencies.
269
What is the frequency range for the 2.4 GHz band?
2.4 GHz to 2.5 GHz
## Footnote
This range includes channels that avoid overlapping other signals.
270
What is the main advantage of WPA over WEP?
WPA replaced WEP and its weaknesses with stronger security measures
## Footnote
WPA uses TKIP and provides a Message Integrity Check.
271
What is the function of MAC Address Filtering?
Configures an AP with a listing of permitted MAC addresses
## Footnote
It acts like an Access Control List (ACL) for network access.
272
What does EAP stand for in wireless security?
Extensible Authentication Protocol
## Footnote
It is used for authentication in both wireless and wired networks.
273
What is the primary purpose of the Hypervisor?
Enables virtualization to occur
## Footnote
It emulates the physical hardware for virtual machines.
274
What is a Virtual Private Branch Exchange (PBX)?
Ability to outsource your telephone system using VoIP
275
What are the four models of Cloud Computing?
* Network as a Service (NaaS)
* Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
* Software as a Service (SaaS)
* Platform as a Service (PaaS)
## Footnote
Each model offers different cloud services.
276
What does RFI stand for in wireless frequencies?
Radio Frequency Interference
## Footnote
It is caused by using similar frequencies to WLAN.
277
What does the term 'War Driving' refer to?
Performing reconnaissance looking for unsecured wireless networks
## Footnote
It involves searching for accessible networks from a vehicle.
278
What is Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?
Outsourcing of the infrastructure of servers or desktops to a service provider.
279
What is Software as a Service (SaaS)?
User interacts with a web-based application, details hidden from users.
280
What does Platform as a Service (PaaS) provide?
A development platform for companies developing applications without needing infrastructure.
281
What is Network as a Service (NaaS)?
Outsourcing of the network to a service provider, hosted off-site.
282
How is NaaS billed?
Charged by hours, processing power, or bandwidth used like utility services.
283
Give an example of IaaS.
* Amazon Web Services (AWS)
* Microsoft’s Azure
284
What is Desktop as a Service (DaaS)?
Provides a desktop environment accessible through the Internet.
285
Define elasticity in cloud computing.
Matches resources allocated with actual resource needs at any time.
286
What is scalability?
Handles growing workload for performance and efficiency.
287
What is vertical scaling?
Increasing the power of existing resources in the working environment.
288
What is horizontal scaling?
Adding additional resources to help handle extra load.
289
What does multitenancy allow?
Customers to share computing resources in a public or private cloud.
290
What is a Virtual Machine (VM) Escape?
Occurs when an attacker breaks out of an isolated VM to interact with the hypervisor.
291
What does Infrastructure as Code (IAC) enable?
Managing and provisioning infrastructure through code instead of manual processes.
292
What is orchestration in IT?
Arranging or coordinating the installation and configuration of multiple systems.
293
What is a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
Establishes a secure connection between on-premises network and provider’s global network.
294
What is the CIA Triad in network security?
* Confidentiality
* Integrity
* Availability
295
Define confidentiality in the context of network security.
Keeping data private and safe through encryption and authentication.
296
What does symmetric encryption mean?
Both sender and receiver use the same key.
297
What is asymmetric encryption?
Uses different keys for the sender and receiver.
298
What is the purpose of hashing?
Ensures data has not been modified in transit.
299
What is a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?
Flooding a network so legitimate requests cannot be processed.
300
What does a vulnerability refer to?
A quality or characteristic that allows a threat to be realized.
301
What is a zero-day vulnerability?
A newly discovered vulnerability not yet known to the vendor.
302
Define risk management.
Identification, evaluation, and prioritization of risks.
303
What is a penetration test?
Evaluates the security of an IT infrastructure by exploiting vulnerabilities.
304
What is the principle of least privilege?
Using the lowest level of permissions needed to complete a job.
305
What does Zero-Trust architecture require?
Users must be authenticated and authorized before access.
306
What is defense in depth?
Layering defensive mechanisms to protect data.
307
What does multi-factor authentication involve?
Authenticates identity using more than one method.
308
What is a dictionary attack?
Guesses passwords by checking every word in a word list.
309
What is the purpose of attracting and trapping potential attackers?
To counteract any attempts at unauthorized access to a network.
310
What does Multi Factor Authentication involve?
Authenticating or proving an identity using more than one method, including:
* Something you know
* Something you have
* Something you are
* Something you do
* Somewhere you are
311
What is a Dictionary Attack?
An attack that guesses the password by attempting to check every single word or phrase contained within a word list.
312
What is a Brute Force Attack?
An attack that tries every possible combination until the password is figured out.
313
What are the recommended characteristics for a good password?
A minimum of 12 characters with:
* Uppercase
* Lowercase
* Numbers
* Special characters
314
What is a Hybrid Attack?
A combination of dictionary and brute force attacks.
315
What is Local Authentication?
The process of determining whether someone or something is who or what it claims to be.
316
What is Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)?
A protocol that validates a username and password combination against an LDAP server.
317
What ports are commonly associated with LDAP?
Port 389 for LDAP and Port 636 for LDAP Secure.
318
What is the function of Active Directory (AD)?
To organize and manage everything on the network, including clients, servers, devices, and users.
319
What is Kerberos used for?
Authentication and authorization within a Windows domain environment.
320
What does RADIUS stand for?
Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service.
321
What are the main functions of RADIUS?
Provides centralized administration of:
* Authentication
* Authorization
* Accounting
322
What ports does RADIUS commonly use?
Port 1812 for authentication messages and Port 1813 for accounting messages.
323
What is TACACS+?
A protocol used to perform the role of an authenticator in an 802.1x network.
324
What is 802.1x?
A standardized framework used for port-based authentication on both wired and wireless networks.
325
What is Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?
A protocol that allows for numerous different mechanisms of authentication.
326
What does EAP-MD5 utilize?
Simple passwords and the challenge handshake authentication process.
327
What is EAP-TLS?
A protocol that uses public key infrastructure with a digital certificate installed on both the client and the server.
328
What does EAP-TTLS require?
A digital certificate on the server and a password on the client for authentication.
329
What is Network Access Control (NAC)?
A system that ensures a device is scanned for its current state of security before being allowed network access.
330
What is a Persistent Agent in NAC?
A piece of software installed on a device requesting access to the network.
331
What is the difference between a Persistent Agent and a Non-Persistent Agent?
A Persistent Agent is installed on the device, while a Non-Persistent Agent requires users to download an agent via a web-based captive portal.
332
What does IEEE 802.1x define in terms of access control?
Access periods for given hosts on a time-based schedule.
333
What is a Physical Security Detection Method?
Security control used during an event to find out whether something malicious may have happened.
334
What is an Asset Tag?
A unique identifier for a piece of equipment, such as a serial number, code, or barcode.
335
What is Tamper Detection?
A method to ensure that network equipment has not been modified once labeled and stored.
336
What is eFuse?
An electronic detection mechanism that can record the version of the IOS used by a switch.
337
What is the goal of Asset Disposal?
To ensure that a system no longer needed by an organization is properly managed.
338
What is Degaussing?
The process of exposing a hard drive to a powerful magnetic field to wipe previously written data.
339
What does purging/sanitizing data entail?
Removing data that cannot be reconstructed using any known forensic techniques.
340
What are Data Remnants?
Leftover pieces of data that may exist in the hard drive which are no longer needed.
341
What are the three main types of network security attacks?
Attacks on:
* Confidentiality
* Integrity
* Availability
342
What is a Denial of Service (DoS) Attack?
Occurs when one machine continually floods a victim with requests for services
## Footnote
This attack can overwhelm the target's resources, making it unavailable to legitimate users.
343
What is a TCP SYN Flood?
Occurs when an attacker initiates multiple TCP sessions, but never completes them
## Footnote
This type of DoS attack exploits the TCP handshake process.
344
What is a Smurf Attack?
Occurs when an attacker sends a ping to a subnet broadcast address with the source IP spoofed to be that of the victim server
345
What is a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) Attack?
Occurs when an attacker uses multiple computers to ask for access to the same server at the same time
## Footnote
DDoS attacks are more complex and difficult to mitigate than DoS attacks.
346
Define Botnet.
A collection of compromised computers under the control of a master node
## Footnote
Botnets are often used to conduct DDoS attacks.
347
What is a Zombie in the context of network attacks?
Any of the individually compromised computers
## Footnote
Zombies are typically used as part of a botnet.
348
What is an On-Path/Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) Attack?
Occurs when an attacker puts themselves between the victim and the intended destination
## Footnote
This allows the attacker to intercept and potentially alter communication.
349
What is Session Hijacking?
Occurs when an attacker guesses the session ID that is in use between a client and a server and takes over the authenticated session
## Footnote
Successful session hijacking can lead to unauthorized access to sensitive information.
350
Define DNS Poisoning.
Occurs when an attacker manipulates known vulnerabilities within the DNS to reroute traffic from one site to a fake version of that site
351
What is DNSSEC?
Uses encrypted digital signatures when passing DNS information between servers to help protect it from poisoning
352
What is a Rogue DHCP Server?
A DHCP server on a network which is not under the administrative control of the network administrators
## Footnote
This can lead to network misconfigurations and security vulnerabilities.
353
Define Spoofing.
Occurs when an attacker masquerades as another person by falsifying their identity
## Footnote
Spoofing can happen at various levels, including IP and MAC addresses.
354
What is IP Spoofing?
Modifying the source address of an IP packet to hide the identity of the sender or impersonate another client
## Footnote
IP spoofing is focused at Layer 3 of the OSI model.
355
What is MAC Spoofing?
Changing the MAC address to pretend the use of a different network interface card or device
## Footnote
This can be used to bypass MAC address filtering.
356
What is ARP Spoofing?
Sending falsified ARP messages over a local area network
## Footnote
ARP spoofing can be used as a precursor to other attacks.
357
What is VLAN Hopping?
Ability to send traffic from one VLAN into another, bypassing the VLAN segmentation configured within Layer 2 networks
358
Define Malware.
Designed to infiltrate a computer system and possibly damage it without the user’s knowledge or consent
## Footnote
Types of malware include viruses, worms, and ransomware.
359
What is a Virus?
Made up of malicious code that is run on a machine without the user’s knowledge and infects it whenever that code is run
## Footnote
Viruses often spread through infected files or programs.
360
What is a Worm?
A piece of malicious software that can replicate itself without user interaction
## Footnote
Worms often exploit vulnerabilities in software to spread.
361
What is Ransomware?
Restricts access to a victim’s computer system or files until a ransom or payment is received
## Footnote
Ransomware attacks can lead to significant financial losses.
362
What is a Rogue Access Point?
A wireless access point that has been installed on a secure network without authorization from a local network administrator
## Footnote
This can create security vulnerabilities and potential data breaches.
363
Define Social Engineering.
Any attempt to manipulate users to reveal confidential information or perform actions detrimental to a system’s security
## Footnote
Social engineering exploits human psychology rather than technical vulnerabilities.
364
What is Phishing?
Sending an email in an attempt to get a user to click a link
## Footnote
Phishing attacks often impersonate legitimate organizations.
365
What is Spearphishing?
More targeted form of phishing
## Footnote
Spearphishing usually targets specific individuals or organizations.
366
What is a Logic Bomb?
A specific type of malware that is tied to either a logical event or a specific time
## Footnote
Logic bombs can be triggered by certain conditions being met.
367
What does a Firewall do?
Uses a set of rules defining the traffic types permitted or denied through the device
## Footnote
Firewalls can be software or hardware-based.
368
What is a Stateful Firewall?
Inspects traffic as part of a session and recognizes where the traffic originated
## Footnote
This allows stateful firewalls to provide more robust security compared to stateless firewalls.
369
What is a NextGen Firewall (NGFW)?
Third-generation firewall that conducts deep packet inspection and packet filtering
## Footnote
NGFWs provide advanced features like application awareness.
370
What is an Access Control List (ACL)?
Set of rules applied to router interfaces that permit or deny certain traffic
## Footnote
ACLs can be used to control traffic flow in a network.
371
Define Intrusion Detection System (IDS).
Monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and alerts administrators
## Footnote
IDS can be network-based (NIDS) or host-based (HIDS).
372
What is a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
Establishes a secure connection between a client and a server over an untrusted public network like the Internet
## Footnote
VPNs encrypt data to protect it from eavesdropping.
373
What is the purpose of Secure Socket Layer (SSL)?
Provides cryptography and reliability using the upper layers of the OSI model, specifically Layers 5, 6, and 7
## Footnote
SSL is commonly used for secure web browsing.
374
What does IP Security (IPSec) provide?
Authentication and encryption of packets to create a secure encrypted communication path between computers
375
What is the purpose of the Diffie-Hellman Key Exchange?
Allows two systems that don’t know each other to be able to exchange keys and trust each other
376
What is the first step in establishing an IPSec tunnel?
RTR1 initiates creation of IPSec tunnel after PC1 sends traffic to PC2
## Footnote
This initiates the key exchange and security association negotiation.
377
What does IKE Phase 1 negotiate?
Negotiates Security Association (SA) to form ISAKMP tunnel
378
What is the difference between Transport Mode and Tunneling Mode?
Transport Mode uses packet’s original IP header; Tunneling Mode encapsulates the entire packet
## Footnote
Transport Mode is typically used for client-to-site VPNs, while Tunneling Mode is for site-to-site VPNs.
379
What does the Authentication Header (AH) provide?
Connectionless data integrity and data origin authentication for IP datagrams
380
What is the function of Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)?
Provides authentication, integrity, replay protection, and data confidentiality
## Footnote
It is used in both transport and tunneling modes.
381
What is a Managed Device in SNMP?
Any device that can communicate with an SNMP manager known as the management information base (MIB)
## Footnote
Managed devices include routers, switches, and servers.
382
What is the purpose of SNMP?
Used to send and receive data from managed devices back to a centralized network management station
383
What is a unique objective identifier in SNMP?
Sent trap messages get a unique objective identifier to distinguish each message
## Footnote
This allows for better tracking and management of alerts.
384
What is the Management Information Base (MIB)?
The structure of the management data of a device subsystem using a hierarchical namespace containing object identifiers
## Footnote
It is critical for SNMP operations.
385
What security risk is associated with SNMPv1 and SNMPv2?
Default community strings of public (read-only) or private (read-write) are considered a security risk
386
What does SNMPv3 provide?
Three security enhancements: integrity, authentication, and confidentiality
## Footnote
These enhancements significantly improve SNMP security.
387
What is the purpose of System Logging Protocol (Syslog)?
Sends system log or event messages to a central server, called a syslog server
## Footnote
This centralizes logging for easier management.
388
What does the Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system do?
Provides real-time or near-real-time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and applications
389
What is traffic log?
Contains information about the traffic flows on the network
## Footnote
Traffic logs allow for investigation of any abnormalities.
390
What is an Audit Log/Audit Trail?
Contains a sequence of events for a particular activity
## Footnote
It is essential for compliance and forensic investigations.
391
What is the function of Patch Management?
Involves planning, testing, implementing, and auditing of software patches
392
What should be included in a Password Policy?
Specifies minimum password length, complexity, periodic changes, and limits on password reuse
## Footnote
This helps enforce strong password practices.
393
What is Port Security?
Prevents unauthorized access to a switchport by identifying and limiting the MAC addresses of the hosts that are allowed
394
What is DHCP Snooping?
Provides security by inspecting DHCP traffic, filtering untrusted DHCP messages, and building a DHCP snooping binding table
## Footnote
This helps prevent rogue DHCP servers.
395
What does the Control Plane Policing (CPP) do?
Configures a QoS filter that manages the traffic flow of control plane packets to protect the control plane of Cisco IOS routers and switches
396
What is MAC Filtering?
Defines a list of devices and only allows those on your Wi-Fi network
## Footnote
It is a basic form of wireless security.
397
What is Captive Portal?
A web page displayed to newly connected Wi-Fi users before being granted broader access to network resources
## Footnote
It is often used for guest networks.
398
Fill in the blank: A _______ is a technique where a VLAN contains switch ports that are restricted to using a single uplink.
Private VLAN (Port Isolation)
## Footnote
This is used to control communication between ports.
399
What is the role of the Native VLAN?
VLAN where untagged traffic is put once it is received on a trunk port
400
What is network availability?
Measure of how well a computer network can respond to connectivity and performance demands placed upon it
401
How is high availability measured?
Availability is measured by uptime, specifically five nines of availability (99.999%)
402
What is the maximum allowable downtime per year for high availability?
5 minutes
403
What does availability concern itself with?
Being up and operational
404
What does reliability concern itself with?
Not dropping packets
405
What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) measure?
Average time it takes to repair a network device when it breaks
406
What does Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) measure?
Average time between failures of a device
407
What is link redundancy?
Multiple connections between devices
408
What is internal hardware redundancy?
Redundant power supplies and NICs
409
What is active-active configuration in NICs?
Multiple NICs are active at the same time, each with its own MAC address
410
What is active-passive configuration in NICs?
One NIC is active at a time, appearing to have a single MAC address
411
What is network interface card teaming?
Using a group of network interface cards for load balancing and failover on a server or other device
412
What is Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)?
Proprietary first-hop redundancy by Cisco allowing for active and standby routers
413
What is Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)?
IETF open-standard variant of HSRP for active and standby routers
414
What is Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
Proprietary first-hop redundancy by Cisco focusing on load balancing
415
What does Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) achieve?
Redundancy by having multiple links between devices
416
What is multipathing?
Creates more than one physical path between the server and its storage devices for fault tolerance and performance
417
What are cold sites?
Available buildings without hardware or software configured, leading to slow recovery
418
What are warm sites?
Available buildings that contain some equipment, with restoral time between 24 hours and seven days
419
What are hot sites?
Available buildings with equipment and data in place, allowing minimal downtime
420
What is a cloud site?
Allows creation of a recovery version of an organization’s enterprise network in the cloud
421
What is Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?
Time within which a business process must be restored after a disaster
422
What is Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
Interval of time during a disruption before data loss exceeds the BCP's maximum allowable threshold
423
What is a full backup?
Complete backup that is the safest but time consuming and costly
424
What is an incremental backup?
Backup only of data changed since the last backup
425
What is a differential backup?
Backups data since the last full backup
426
What is a snapshot?
Read-only copy of data frozen in time
427
What is an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)?
Provides emergency power to a load when the input power source fails
428
What is a Power Distribution Unit (PDU)?
Distributes electric power to racks of computers and networking equipment
429
What does a generator provide?
Long-term power during a power outage
430
What is the purpose of Quality of Service (QoS)?
To optimize network performance for different types of traffic
431
What is delay in QoS?
Time a packet travels from source to destination, measured in milliseconds
432
What is jitter in QoS?
Uneven arrival of packets, especially harmful in VoIP
433
What are the categories of QoS?
* Delay
* Jitter
* Drops
434
What is the purpose of IT governance?
To provide a comprehensive security management framework for the organization
435
What defines a policy in an organization?
Defines the role of security and establishes the desired end state for that security program
436
What is a standard in an organization?
Implements a policy in an organization
437
What is a baseline in network architecture?
Creates a reference point in network architecture and design
438
What is a guideline in organizational documents?
Recommended action that allows for exceptions in unique situations
439
What is a procedure?
Detailed step-by-step instructions to perform a task
440
What is a Change Management plan?
Structured way of changing the state of a computer system or network
441
What does an Incident Response Plan contain?
* Preparation
* Identification
* Containment
* Eradication
* Recovery
* Lessons learned
442
What is a Disaster Recovery Plan?
Documents how an organization can quickly resume work after an unplanned incident
443
What is a Business Continuity Plan?
Outlines how a business will continue operating during an unplanned disruption
444
What is a System Life Cycle Plan?
Describes the approach to maintaining an asset from creation to disposal
445
What is a Password Policy?
Set of rules to improve computer security by motivating users to create secure passwords
446
What is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)?
Set of rules that restricts how a network resource may be used
447
What does a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) Policy allow?
Allows employees to access enterprise networks using personal mobile devices
448
What does a Remote Access Policy define?
Acceptable methods of remotely connecting to the internal network
449
What is an Onboarding Policy?
Describes requirements for integrating a new hire into the company
450
What is an Offboarding Policy?
Documented policy for the process of employee departure
451
What is a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) Policy?
Allows employees to access enterprise networks and systems using their personal mobile devices
## Footnote
It includes creating a segmented network for BYOD devices.
452
What does a Remote Access Policy outline?
Defines acceptable methods of remotely connecting to the internal network
453
What is the purpose of an Onboarding Policy?
Describes all the requirements for integrating a new hire into the company and its cultures
454
What is covered in an Offboarding Policy?
Covers all the steps to successfully part ways with an employee who’s leaving the company
455
What is the focus of a Security Policy?
Outlines how to protect the organization’s systems, networks, and data from threats
456
What does a Data Loss Prevention Policy define?
How organizations can share and protect data while minimizing accidental or malicious data loss
457
What is a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)?
Defines what data is confidential and cannot be shared outside of that relationship
458
What are the consequences of violating a Non-Disclosure Agreement?
* Fines
* Forfeiture of rights
* Jail time
459
What is a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)?
A non-binding agreement detailing common actions between two or more organizations
460
What does a Service-Level Agreement (SLA) document?
The quality, availability, and responsibilities agreed upon by a service provider and a client
461
What is Network Management?
The process of administering and managing computer networks
462
What is shown in a Physical Network Diagram?
The actual physical arrangement of the components that make up the network
463
What does a Logical Network Diagram illustrate?
The flow of data across a network and how devices communicate with each other
464
What is the purpose of a Wiring Diagram?
Labels which cables are connected to which ports
465
What is the goal of a Radio Frequency (Wireless) Site Survey?
Planning and designing a wireless network to deliver the required wireless solution
466
What does a Wired Site Survey determine?
If a site has the right amount of power, space, and cooling to support a new upgrade or installation
467
What is included in an Audit and Assessment Report?
* Executive summary
* Scope and objectives
* Assumptions and limitations
* Methods and tools
* Environment and system diagram
* Security requirements
* Findings and recommendations
* Audit results
468
What are Baseline Configurations?
Set of specifications for an information system that has been formally reviewed and agreed on
469
What does Network Performance Monitoring do?
Monitors performance from the end user’s workstation to the final destination
470
What is latency in the context of network performance?
Time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network
471
What is bandwidth?
Maximum rate of data transfer across a given network
472
What is throughput?
Actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination
473
What does jitter refer to in networking?
When a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs
474
What do sensors in network management monitor?
A device’s temperature, CPU usage, and memory
475
What is a Minor Temperature Threshold?
Sets off an alarm when a rise in temperature is detected but hasn’t reached dangerous levels
476
What is a Major Temperature Threshold?
Sets off an alarm when temperature reaches dangerous conditions
477
What is Full Packet Capture?
Used to capture the entire packet, including the header and payload for all traffic entering and leaving a network
478
What is Flow Analysis?
Relies on a flow collector to record metadata and statistics about network traffic
479
What does NetFlow define?
A particular traffic flow based on different packets that share the same characteristics
480
What is Zeek?
Passively monitors a network and logs full packet capture data of potential interest
481
What does the Multi Router Traffic Grapher (MRTG) do?
Creates graphs showing traffic flows through the network interfaces of routers and switches
482
What does Link State indicate?
Communicates whether a given interface has a cable connected and a valid protocol for communication
483
What are Selective Packet Discards (SPD)?
Drops low priority packets when the CPU is too busy to save capacity for higher priority packets
484
What is a Runt in networking?
An Ethernet frame that is less than 64 bytes in size
485
What is a Giant in networking?
Any Ethernet frame that exceeds the 802.3 frame size of 1518 bytes
486
What is Throttle in networking?
Occurs when the interface fails to buffer incoming packets
487
What does CRC stand for in networking?
Cyclic Redundancy Check
488
What is the purpose of Environmental Monitoring?
Ensures network devices operate within specified temperature and humidity ranges
489
What is the ideal temperature range for network devices?
Between 50 and 90 ºF
490
What humidity range is appropriate for network devices?
40-60%
491
What is the theoretical speed of data going across the network?
Bandwidth
492
What term describes the actual speed of data on the network?
Throughput
493
What does Received Signal Strength Indication (RSSI) measure?
Estimated measure of the power level that a radio frequency client device is receiving from a wireless access point or wireless router
494
What is Effective Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)?
Maximum power radiated from an ideal isotropic antenna, given its antenna gain, and the transmitter power of the radio frequency system
495
What does decibels over isotropic (dBi) indicate?
Tells signal strength being radiated from a wireless access point
496
What characterizes a vertical antenna?
Radio frequency waves extend outward in all directions away from the antenna and the wireless access point at an equal power level
497
How does a dipole antenna operate?
Produces radio frequency waves extending outward in two directions
498
What is a Yagi antenna?
A unidirectional antenna that sends the radio frequency waves in only one direction
499
What is the purpose of a parabolic grid antenna?
Allows the radio waves to be transmitted in only one direction over a longer distance than a Yagi antenna
500
What type of antennas are more likely used for indoor applications?
Omnidirectional and unidirectional antennas
501
Define polarization in the context of antennas.
The orientation of the electric field (or transmission) from the antenna
502
What is channel utilization?
A statistic or measure of the amount of airtime utilization that occurs for a particular frequency or channel
503
What should channel utilization be kept under for a faster wireless network?
30%
504
What does Clear Channel Assessment (CCA) do?
Listens to see if another device is actively transmitting on the channel before attempting to send frames on that channel
505
What is a site survey?
Process of planning and designing a wireless network to provide the required wireless solution
506
What are the basic steps in a site survey?
* Scan airwaves
* Find access points
* Request association
* Authenticate
* Contact DHCP server
507
What is coverage in wireless networking?
A measure of how much area around a wireless transmitter is there sufficient signal strength for wireless devices to utilize
508
What is interference in wireless networks?
Occurs when multiple wireless networks communicate on the same channel using the same frequency
509
What channels should be used in the 2.4 GHz spectrum to avoid interference?
Channels 1, 6, and 11
510
What does attenuation refer to in networking?
Reduction of signal strength between the transmission and receipt of the signal
511
What is client disassociation?
Occurs when a client is disconnected from a wireless access point
512
What is an idle timeout?
Occurs when there’s no traffic within 300 seconds
513
What is a deauthentication attack?
A common wireless attack used by hackers to disassociate wireless clients and make them attempt to reconnect to the access point
514
What does SSID stand for?
Service Set Identifier
515
What is a captive portal?
A web page displayed to newly-connected Wi-Fi users before being granted broader access to network resources
516
What is the purpose of a bandwidth speed test?
Verifies the real-world throughput from a client device all the way out to the Internet and back
517
What command is used to check IP connectivity between two devices?
Ping
518
What does the traceroute command do?
Displays the path between your device and the destination IP address, showing each route hop along the path
519
What is the function of the arp command?
Used to display and modify entries in the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache on a system
520
What does the route command do?
Used to view and manipulate the IP routing table in a system
521
What is a duplicate address issue in networking?
Occurs when two devices on the same network are assigned the same IP address
522
What is VLAN tagging?
Practice of segmenting an IT organization’s network, separating users into respective network sections
523
What is network performance baseline?
Defines the normal working conditions of an enterprise network infrastructure
524
True or False: Collisions only occur in wired networks.
False
525
What is a broadcast storm?
Occurs when a network system is overwhelmed by continuous multicast or broadcast traffic
526
What is the default route in networking?
Route that takes effect when no other route is available for an IP destination address
527
What are the three methods to prevent loops in the switching environment?
Enable BPDU on managed switches, enforce a maximum number of MAC addresses per port, break up large broadcast domains using routers and Layer 3 switches
528
What does a MAC Address uniquely identify?
A network interface card on a given network
529
What is the format of a MAC Address?
Vendor code followed by a unique value (e.g., D2:51:F1:3A:34:65)
530
True or False: MAC addresses are used in Layer 3 networks.
False
531
What issue occurs when two devices on the same network have the same IP address?
Duplicate IP Address / IP Address Conflict
532
What is a Rogue DHCP Server?
A DHCP server on a network not under the administrative control of network administrators
533
What is Multicast Flooding?
Occurs when no specific host is associated with the multicast MAC address in the CAM table of the switch
534
What is Asymmetrical Routing?
Network packets leave via one path and return via a different path
535
What happens during a Routing Loop?
An error in the routing algorithm creates a circular route among network devices
536
What does Split Horizon prevent?
A route from being advertised back in the direction from which it came
537
What is Route Poisoning?
Increasing a router’s metric to an infinitely high number after detecting a failed route
538
What is the purpose of a Hold-Down Timer?
Prevents bad routes from being restored and passed to other routers by accident
539
What does DHCP stand for?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
540
What does DHCP do?
Automatically assigns an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server’s IP address to a client
541
What issue arises from DHCP Scope Exhaustion?
The DHCP server runs out of valid IPs to assign to clients
542
What is the Default Lease Time for DHCP?
1440 seconds (1 day), 7 days, or 30 days
543
What should you check to ensure proper VLAN communication?
Configuration and routing setup between VLANs
544
What is a Firewall?
A network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic
545
What is the difference between a Host-Based Firewall and a Network-Based Firewall?
Host-Based Firewall runs on an individual device; Network-Based Firewall is deployed in line with network traffic
546
What does an Access Control List (ACL) do?
Blocks unauthorized users and allows authorized users to access specific resources
547
What is the role of DNS?
Matches domain names with corresponding IP addresses
548
What does NTP stand for?
Network Time Protocol
549
What does NTP allow?
Synchronization of system clocks between different layers of time sources
550
What are common network performance issues?
* High CPU usage
* High bandwidth usage
* Poor connectivity
* Network malfunction
551
What can high CPU usage in a network lead to?
Increased latency, jitter, and packet loss
552
What is the Optical Link Budget?
A calculation that considers all anticipated losses along the length of a fiber optic connection
553
What are BYOD challenges?
Policies allowing users to bring personal devices to work, leading to decreased capital expenditures and increased operational expenditures
554
What can cause connection downtime in fiber optic connections?
Low optical link budgets
555
What is a digital Certificate used for?
To facilitate verification of identities between users in a transaction
