Network + Flashcards

2
Q

what are networks used for ?

A

networks are used to make connections between machines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

server

A

a device that provides resources to the rest of the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is a client ?

A

a device used by an end-user to access the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a wireless access point

A

a device that allows wireless devices to connect into a wired network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a switch?

A

a device that connects network devices together

operates at layer 2 of the OSI model

switches learn MAC address’s by analyzing incoming traffic, when it sees a mac address not in its table it adds it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what can switches learn ?

A

switches can learn what devices are on what ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the primary function of a Router?

A

used to connect two different networks together and forwards traffic to and from the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is Media in a network?

A

connects two devices or a device to a switch port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the point of a Wide Area Network or WAN?

A

physically connects two geographical dispersed networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does the client server model work?

A

uses a dedicated server to provide access to files, scanners, printers and other resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

benefits of the client to server model ?

A
  • administration and backup are easier under this model
  • centralized administration
  • easier management
  • better scalability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

disadvantages of the client server model

A

-higher cost
- requires specialized OS
-requires dedicated resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the peer to peer model?

A

peers share resources files/printers directly with others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

benefits of the peer to peer model

A
  • lowcost
  • no dedicated resource
  • No specialized OS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

drawbacks of the peer to peer model

A

decenetralized managament
inefficient for large networks
poor scalability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pan?

A

personal area network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

examples of a Pan network ?

A

bluetooth devices
Usb devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

explain a LAN or local area network ?

A

connects components within a limited distance
up to a few hundred feet
small offices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what standard does ethernet use ?

A

ethernet uses the IEEE 802.3 standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what standard does wifi use ?

A

wifi uses the 802.11 standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a CAN or campus area network ?

A

connects LANs that are building centric across a university, industrial park or business park

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does a MAN metropolitian area network connect?

A

connects scattered locations across a city or metro area ?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

WAN wide area network

A

connects geographically disparate internal networks and consists of leased lines or VPNs
covers a large geographic area
the internet is the largest WAN avaliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Wan distance?

A

world wide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MAN distance

A

city or county

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CAN distance

A

campus area or business park

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

LAN distance

A

room or building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PAN distance

A

around a person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does phsical mean in a network

A

how devices are connected by media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what does logical mean in a network

A

how the actual network traffic flows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bus topology ?

A

uses a single cable where each device taps into by using either a vampire tap or a T connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ring topology ?

A

uses a cable running in a circular loop where each device connects to the ring but data travels in a singular direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ring topology: Token ring ?

A

ring topology that uses an electronic token to prevent collosions when communicating on the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ring topology: what does FDDI use ? explain FDDI

A

uses two counter rotating rings for redundancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

star topology ?

A
  • most popular phsical LAN topology
  • the central point of a star network is most likely going to be a switch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a drawback to a star topology ?

A

if the central device fails the whole network fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Wireless: infastructure mode ?

A

uses a wireless access point as a centralized point and supports wireless security controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Wireless: Ad Hoc mode ?

A

decentralized wireless network which creates P2P connections and does not require a router or access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Wireless mesh topology ?

A

interconnection of different types of nodes, devices, or radios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what does OSI stand for ?

A

OSI stands for open systems interconnection model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the 7 layers of the OSI model starting from Layer 1?

A
  1. phsical
  2. Data Link
  3. Network
  4. Transport
  5. Session
  6. Presentation
  7. Application
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the phsical layer?

A
  • where transmission of bits across the network occurs includes phsical and electrical network characteristics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does the phsical layer decide ?

A

the phsical layer decides the topology of the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is asynchronous communication?

A

uses start and stop bites to indicate when transmissions occur from the sender to the reciever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is a good example of asynchronous communication ?

A

something like a voicemail is a good example

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is synchronous communication ?

A

uses a refrence clock to coordinate the transmissions by both the sender and the reciever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

broadband communication ?

A

divides our bandwidth into seperate channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is baseband communication ?

A

uses all availiable frequencies on a medium (cable to transmit data)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is time division multiplexing ?

A

each session takes a turn using time slots to share the medium between users

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is multiplexing ?

A

multiplexing is getting more out of a limited network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are some examples of Physical layer devices ?

A
  • cable
  • ethernet
  • coaxial
  • hubs
  • access points
  • media converters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what do layer 1 devices primarily do ?

A

usually they repeat what they are told.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the primary function of the data link layer?

A

packages data into frames and transmit those frames on the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what do the first and second parts of a MAC address represent ?

A

the first 6 digits in a MAC address are the vendor code the second 6 are the unique value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Logical link control LLC ?

A

provides connection services and allows acknowledgment of receipt of messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are some examples of devices at the data link layer?

A

NIC’s
Bridges
Switches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the primary function of layer 3 the network layer?

A

forwards routing traffic with logical addressing

  • the routing layer
  • fragments frames to travers different networks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are two common layer 3 protocols ?

A

IPV4 and IPV6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the big question at layer 3?

A

the big question at layer 3 is how data should be forwarded or routed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

how does Packet switching / routing work ?

A

data is divided into packets and then forwarded based on IP address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is circuit switching ?

A

dedicated communication link is established between two devices for the duration of the communication

Like a phone call

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is message switching ?

A

data is divided into messages which may be stored then forwarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what do routers maintain ?

A

a routing table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is ICMP?

A

sends error messages and operational info to an IP address
most commonly used ICMP is ping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are common devices found on layer 3?

A

Routers
multi-layer switches
ip and routers are the most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what do we call the transport layer?

A

the transport layer is the dividing line between what we call the upper layers of the OSI model and the lower layers of the OSI model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

when we talk about segments and datagrams what layer are we talking about?

A

we are talking about the transport layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are two protocols in the transport layer?

A
  • TCP
    -UDP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

transmission control protocol ?

A

connection oriented protocol that is a reliable way to transport segments across the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the UDP user datagram protocol ? EXPLAIN

A

connectionless protocol that is an unreliable way to transport segments across the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what does connectionless mean ?

A

connectionless means it doesn’t have to wait for connections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

EXAM: layer 4 what is layer 4 associated with

A

layer 4 is associated with segments almost exclusively because we use it with TCP

  • TCP and UDP operate at layer 4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is UDP very good for ?

A

udp is very good for audio and visual streaming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

windowing ?

A

allows the clients to adjust the amount of data in each segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are some examples of layer 4 devices?

A
  • TCP & UDP
  • WAN accelerators
  • Load balancers and firewalls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is the primary function of the session layer ?

A

keeps conversations separate to prevent intermingling of data

  • manages communication between devices start, stop ,restart
  • tunneling occurs at this layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how do sessions work in three steps ?

A

set up
maintain
tear down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

explain setting up a session

A

checking of user credentials and assigning numbers to sessions to help identify them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

explain tearing down a session

A

ending of a session after the transfer is done or when the other party disconnects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is the primary focus of the presentation layer?

A

formats the data to be exchanged and secures the data with proper encryption

  • Character encoding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what should we remember when we think about layer 6?

A

when you think about layer 6 remember data formatting and encryption

the presentation layer is responsible for formatting and encryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is data formatting ?

A

data is formatted by the computer to have compatibility between different devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

encryption ?

A

used to scramble the data in transit to keep it secure from prying eyes and provide data confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the primary function of layer 7?

A

provides application level services where users communicate with the computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what are some things found on layer 7?

A
  • email applications
  • web browsing
  • DNS
  • FTP
    -RDP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what are the 4 layers of the tcp ip model >

A
  1. network interface
  2. internet
  3. transport
  4. application
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what makes up the application layer in the tcp/ip model?

A

the top three layers of the OSI model are all called the application layer in the TCP/IP model

so the session presentation and application layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is the network interface layers function in the TCP/ip model ?

A

describes how to transmit bits across the network and determines how the network medium is going to be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is the function of the internet layer in the TCP/IP model ?

A

data is taken and packaged into IP datagrams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what are some examples of protocols in the internet layer for the TCP/IP model

A

IP
ICMP
ARP
Reverse ARP

this is essentially the network layer of the OSI model so IP’s - ARP etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is the transport layers function in the TCP/IP model ?

A

defines the level of service and the status of the connection being used by TCP, UDP, or RTP

-support for end to end services

  • support fo multiplexing
  • support for port numbers mapping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is the application layer’s function in the TCP/IP model ?

A

dictates how programs are going to interface with the transport layer by conduction session management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what is a port ?

A

logical opening on a system representing a service or application thats listening and waiting for the traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

how many ports are there

A

65,535

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

how many well known or reserved ports are there ?

A

the well known or reserved port are 0-1023

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

ephermal ports ?

A

1024-65,535

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what does an IPv4 packet consist of ?

A
  • source address
    -destination address
  • ip flags
  • protocol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

secure shell ssh

A

port 22
provides secure remote control of another machine using a text based environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

secure file transfer protocol SFTP

A

port 22
provides secure file transfers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Telnet

A

port 23
provides insecure remote control of another machine . remote access via the command prompt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

simple mail transfer protocol SMTP

A

port 25
provides the ability to send emails over the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Domain name services DNS

A

port 53
converts domain names to IP addresses and IP addresses to domain names

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what port does Dynamic host control protocol or DHCP run on ?

A

ports 67,68
automatically provide network parameters to your clients such as their assigned ip address, subnet mask, default gateway, and the DNS server they should use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what port is trivial file transfer protocol TFTP?

What is TFTP typically used for ?

A

port 69 UDP
used as a lightweight file transfer method for sending configuration files or network booting of an operating system
usually used for sending or recieving config file from a router or switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Hyper text transfer protocol HTTP

A

port 80
used for insecure web browsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what port is POP3?

what is POP3 used for ?

A

port 110
used for recieving incoming emails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Network Time protocol NTP

A

port 123 UDP
used for keeping accurate time within a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Network basic input/output system NetBios

A

port 139 TCP
used for file or printer sharing in a windows network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

internet mail application protocol IMAP

A

port 143 TCP

a newer method of retrieving incoming emails which imporves upon the older POP3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

simple network management protocol SNMP

A

ports 161,162 UDP

used to collect data about network devices and monitor there status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Lightweight directory access protocol LDAP

A

ports 389 TCP

used to provide directory services to your network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Hypertext transfer protocol secure HTTPS

A

port 443 used for secure web browsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

server message block SMB

A

port 445 TCP

used for windows file and printer sharing services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

system logging protocol syslog

A

port 514 UDP

used to send logging data back to a centralized server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

simple mail transfer protocol transport layer security SMTP TLS

A

port 587 TCP

secure and encrypted way to send emails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Lighweight directory access protocol secure

A

port 636 provide directory services in a secure way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

POP3 over SSL

A

port 995 secure and encrypted way to recieve emails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

structured query language server protocol SQL

A

port 1433 used for communication from a client to the database engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Microsoft structured query language

A

port 3306 used for communication from a client to Mysql database engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Remote Desktop protocol RDP

A

port 3389 provides graphical remote control from another client to a server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what is TCP what layer of the OSI model is it on?

A

TCP is a transport layer protocol that operates at layer 4 of the OSI model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

how does TCP work ?

A

TCP operates by conducting a three way handshake between a client and a server and then establishes the connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what is TCP considered?

A

TCP is considered connection oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what is UDP considered ?

A

UDP is considered fast and easy to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what is ICMP

A

ICMP is used to communicate information about network connectivity isssues back to the sender ping is a great example of ICMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Generic routing encapsulation or GRE?

A

used as a simple and effective way to create a tunnel called a GRE tunnel over a public network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

do GRE tunnels provide us with any encryption ?

A

They do not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Internet Protocol Security IPsec

A

used to protect one or more data flowes between peers and it uses encryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what security controls will implemeting IPSec accomplish for us ?

A
  1. data confidentiality
  2. data integrity
  3. origin authentication
  4. Anti-replay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what two protocols does IPSec use to achieve encryption ?

A

AH and ESP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

IPSec: AH authentication header?

A

a protocol within IPSec that provides integrity and authentication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

IPSec: Encapsulating Security Payload or ESP?

A

provides encryption and integrity for the data packets sent over IPSec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

what are the three types of media?

A
  1. copper
  2. fiber optic
  3. wireless
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what is media ?

A

matariel used to transmit data over the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what are the three types of copper media ?

A
  1. coaxial
  2. twisted pair
  3. serial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what are f-type connectors ?

A

F-type connectors are a screw on type of connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what are the two types of twisted pair cabeling ?

A

UTP or STP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what does UTP stand for ?

A

UTP stands for unshielded twisted pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what does STP stand for

A

shielded twisted pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

what are the two ways someone can get access to a network ?

A

Deterministic and Contention based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

deterministic ?

A

very organized and orderly and requires an electronic token to transmit. Like a student in a classroom getting called on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

contention based networks ?

A

very chaotic and can transmit whenever possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

what is the problem with contention based networks ?

A

you can have collosions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

does ethernet use a contention or deterministic method ?

A

contention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

how does ethernet prevent collosions ?

A

Ethernet prevents colisions with CSMA/CD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection CSMA/CD?

A

prevents collosions by using carrier-sensing to defer transmissions until no other stations are transmitting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

what is a collision domain ?

A

each area of the network that shares a single segment is known as a collision domain

collision domain devices in a group whose frames can collide with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

what does adding an ethernet switch do for our network ?

A

increases scalability of a network by creating multiple collision domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

bandwidth?

A

measures how many bits the network can transmit per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

how far can multi-mode fiber reach?

A

multimode fiber can reach distances of 200-500 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

how far can single mode fiber travel ?

A

single mode fiber can go up to 40 kilometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

how far can copper cables transmit data ?

A

maximum distance of a 100 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Using cat 6 at 100 meters what will the speed be ?

A

Using CAT 6 at 100 meters will limit the speed from 10 Gbps to 1 Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

what speed will you get using CAT 6 at under 55 meters.

A

Using CAT 6 at under 55 meters can reach 10 Gbps of speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

what type of fiber should we use for long distances ?

A

single mode fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what sort of fiber do we need to use with long distances ?

A

fiber for long distances you need to use single mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

what is a hub?

A

also known as a multi-layer repeater it is a layer 1 device that connects multiple network devices and workstations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

what are the three types of hubs ?

A
  1. Passive hub
  2. active hub
  3. smart hub
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Passive hub ?

A

repeats signal with no amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Active hub ?

A

repeats signal with amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

smart hub ?

A

active hub with enhanced features like SNMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

how does a bridge make forwarding decisions?

A

analyzes source MAC address and makes intelligent forwarding decscions based on the destination MAC in the frames

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

switch ?

A

also known as a multiport bridge it is a layer 2 device that connects multiple network segments together .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

what is a switch essentially?

A

a switch is essentially a multi-port bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what layer does a router operate at ?

A

a router is a layer three device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

what is a router?

A

layer 3 device that connects multiple networks and makes forwarding decisions based on logical network information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

what is a layer 3 switch ?

A

makes layer 3 routing decisions and then interconnects entire networks not just the network segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

EXAM: switch ?

A

layer 2 device focused on MAC addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Exam: router ?

A

layer 3 device focused on IP addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

what are some additional features switches can offer ?

A
  1. VLANs
  2. Trunking
  3. STP
  4. Link aggregation
  5. power over ethernet
  6. Port monitoring
  7. User authentication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

what is link aggregation?

A

combines multiple phsical connections into a single logical connection to minimize or prevent congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

what is the standard for link aggregation ?

A

IEEE 802.3ad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

are switches full duplex ?

A

switches are full duplex which means every port can operate at 100mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

power over ethernet ?

A

supplies electrical power over ethernet and requires cat 5 or higher copper cable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

what is the benfit of power over ethernet ?

A

the benefit of power over ethernet is instead of needing two seperate cables for power and data you can use one cord for both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

port mirrioring ?

A

makes a copy of all traffic destined for a port and sends it to another port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

switches can provide additional features such as ?

A
  1. port mirrioring
  2. secure shell ssh
  3. ot-of-band-management
  4. first hop redundancy
  5. MAC filtering
  6. traffic filtering
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

out-of-band management ?

A

keeps all network configurations devices on a seperate network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

First hop redundancy

A

uses hot standby router protocol to create a virtual IP and MAC addresses to provide active and stanby routers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

How do devices such as a switch do traffic filtering at layer 2 ?

A

permits or denies traffic based on a device’s MAC address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

what is the standard for spanning tree protocol ?

A

802.1d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

spanning tree protocol STP ?

A

permits redundant links between switches and prevents loopong of network traffic

STP is the IEEE 802.1d standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

shortest path bridging SPB

A

used instead of STP for larger network environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

VLAN ?

A

allows different logical networks to share the same phscial hardware and provides added security and efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

when do routers start to come into play ?

A

Routers start to come into play once we leave our local area network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Definition: Router

A

forwards traffic between subnets, between an an internal and external network or between two external networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

what makes a broadcast domain

A

each subnet or external network is going to be its own broadcast domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

can a multi layer switch function as a router ?

A

if you are using an external switch it is functioning as a router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

how do routers make decisions?

A

routers make there routing decisions by using a routing table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Routing table?

A

helps determine which route entry is the best fit for the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

how do routers map an IP address to a MAC address?

A

routers use an arp cache to map an IP address to a given MAC address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

what are the three different sources that a router can use ?

A
  1. Directly connected route
  2. Static route
  3. Dynamic route
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Routing: Directly connected route ?

A

learned by physical connections between routers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Routing: static route ?

A
  • manually configured by an admin
  • there is always one default standard route in every router that is 0.0.0.0/0
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Routing: Dynamic routing ?

A

learned by exchanging information between routers

routers send routes to other routes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

what are the two ways we can prevent routing loops ?

A
  1. split horizon
  2. Poising reverse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Split Horizon ?

A

prevents a route learned on one interface from being advertised back out on the same interface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Poising reverse ?

A

causes a route received on one interface to be advertised back out on the same interface with a metric considered to be infinite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

what are the two different types of dynamic routing protocols ?

A
  1. internal
  2. external
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Internal dynamic routing protocols?

A
  1. interior gateway protocol IGP
    - operates within an autonomous system
    - Example: Intranet

We use this routing protocol to route within our internal networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

External dynamic routing protocols ?

A
  1. Exterior gateway protocol EGP
    - operate between autonomous systems
    - example Internet

BGP is one of the most commonly used routing protocols for EGP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Routing: Distance vector ?

A

Distance vector routing algorithm simplifies the routing process by assuming the cost of every link is one unit. Therefore, the efficiency of transmission can be measured by the number of links to reach the destination. In Distance vector routing, the cost is based on hop count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Routing: convergence ?

A

time it takes for routers to update their routing table in response to a topology change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Routing: hold down timer ?

A

prevents updates for a specific period of time and speeds up convergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Routing: hop count ?

A

number of routers from the source router through which data must pass to reach the destination network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Routing: Link state routing protocol ?

A

requires all the routers to know about the paths that all other routers can reach in the network

every node constructs a map of the connectivity to the network, in the form of a graph, showing which nodes are connected to which other nodes.

Examples of link state routing protocols include OSPF and ISIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Routing: what is RIP or the routing information protocol?

A

Interior routing protocol

a distance vector protocol that uses hop count - maximum number of hops it can do is 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

RIP features

A
  1. updates every 30 seconds
  2. easy to configure
  3. Runs over UDP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

open shortest path first OSPF?

A
  1. a link state protocol that uses cost
  2. interior gateway protocol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Routing: OSPF?

A

OSPF is known as a classless protocol, classless routing protocols are those protocols that include subnet mask information when the routing table or updates are exchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Routing: intermediate system to intermediate system or IS-IS?

interior or exterior protocol ?

A

a link state protocol that also uses cost and functions like the OSPF protocol but is not widely popular
- interior routing protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Routing: Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol EIGRP?

A

hybrid of distance vector and link state protocols that uses bandwidth and delay
- interior routing protocol

cisco protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Routing: what is BGP or border gateway protocol?

Is BGP an interior or exterior routing protocol ?

A

a path vector that uses the number of autonmous system hops instead of router hops/ bgp is an external routing protocol - this is more concerned with how many systems you have to go through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Routing: route belivability ?

A

if a route has a lower administrative distance the route is more believable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

network address translation NAT?

A

translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses for routing over public networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What are the three different types of address translation ?

A
  1. DNAT Dynamic NAT
  2. SNAT static NAT
  3. PAT port address translation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

NAT: DNAT dynamic nat

A

automatically assigns an IP address from a pool and gives a one to one translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

NAT: SNAT static nat

A

manually assign an IP address and gives one to one translation

static Nat was primarily used as a security feature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

NAT: PAT port address translation

A

most common one used today

sharing on one public IP by multiple private IP addresses which gives a many to one translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

inside local ?

A

private ip address refrencing an inside device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

inside global ?

A

public IP address refrencing from an inside device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

outside global?

A

public IP address referencing an outside device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Outside local ?

A

private IP address refrencing an outside device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Outside local

A

private ip address refrencing an outside device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

multicast routing ?

A

multicast sender sends traffic to a class D IP address known as a multicast group

main goal of multicast routing is to send the traffic only to devices that wish to recieve the traffic

the two primary protocols used for multicast routing are IGMP and PIM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

what are the two primary ways of doing multicast routing ?

A

IGMP internet group management protocol
PIM protocol independent multicast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

IGMP internet group management protocol

A

lets routers know which interfaces have multicast recievers and allow clients to join a multicast group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

PIM protocol independent multicast ?

A

routes multicast traffic between multicast enabled routers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Virtualization

A

allows multiple virtual instances to exist on a single physical server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Hypervisor

A

enables virtualization to occur and emulates the physical hardware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Popular hypervisors

A

VMWare ESXi

Microsoft Hyper-V

Virtual box

Vmware Workstation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

what is a bare metal hypervisor ?

A

bare metal hypervisor is when you just run the hypervisor as the OS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Network attached storage NAS?

A

disk storage delivered as a service over TCP/IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Storage area network SAN?

A

specialized LAN that transfers data at block level with a special protocol

To the users it looks and acts like a local drive

A storage area network or storage network is a computer network which provides access to consolidated, block-level data storage. SANs are primarily used to access data storage devices, such as disk arrays and tape libraries from servers so that the devices appear to the operating system as direct-attached storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Fiber channel FC?

A

special purpose hardware providing 1-16 GBPS of storage area network speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

what is Fiber channel over ethernet or FCOE

what purpose does it serve in our networks?

A

removes the need for specialized hardware and runs FC over ethernet frames

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

IP small computer systems interface ISCSI

A

lowers cost and relies on configuration that allows jumbo frames over the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

InfiniBand ?

A

virtualized storage technology that uses a switched fabric topology and features very high throughput and very low latency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

what problem does a virtual switch solve?

A

overcomes the problem of all virtual servers being on one broadcast domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Virtual desktop?

A

a desktop computer that is run on a browser using the web

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

software defined networking SDN?

A

provides an easy to use front end to configure physical and virtual devices through a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

what is the purpose of VOIP?

What does VOIP do for our networks?

A

digitizes voice traffic to be treated like other traffic on the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

what protocol does VOIP use ?

A

VOIP uses a protocol known as SIP

Sip is used to setup and manage voip sessions

SIP can also extend voice communication to include video conferencing, instant messaging, file transfers and more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Session initiation protocol SIP?

A

used to setup, maintain, and tear down calls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

private cloud ?

A

systems and users only have access with other devices inside the same private cloud or system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

public cloud ?

A

systems and users interact with devices on public networks such as the internet and other clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Hybrid cloud ?

A

combination of public and private clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

community cloud ?

A

collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared between several orgs from a specific community with the same concerns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Network as a service Naas

A

allows for the outsourcing of a network service provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Infrastructure as a service IaaS

A

allows for the outsourcing of infrastructure of the servers and desktops to a service provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Software as a service SaaS

A

users interact with a web based application and the details of how it works are hidden – examples of Saas products include m065 and google docs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Platform as a service Paas

A

provides a platform for companies that develop applications without the need for infrastructure – digital ocean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Desktop as a service Daas

A

provides a desktop environment that is accessible through the internet in the form of a cloud desktop or virtual desktop environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Cloud: elasticity?

A

attempts to match the resources allocated with the actual amount of resource needed at any given point and time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Cloud: what is elasticity focused on ?

A

elasticity is focused on meeting the sudden increase and decreases in a workload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Cloud: scalability ?

A

handles the growing workload required to maintain good performance and efficiency for a given software or application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Is scalability a long term approach ?

A

Scalability is common to be used long term elastic approaches can change every day or every minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Cloud: vertical scaling ?

A

increases the power of the existing resources in the working environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

cloud: horizontal scaling ?

A

adding additional resources to help handle the extra load being experienced

adding additional instances instead of moving to a larger instance size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

cloud: multitenancy

A

allowing customers to share computing resources in a public or private cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

what are the benefits of multitenancy solutions ?

A
  1. better storage
  2. better use of resources
  3. lower overall cost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Virtual machine VM escape ?

A

occurs when an attacker break out of one of the isolated VMs and begins to directly interact with the underlying hypervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

infrastructure as code IAC ?

A

enables managing and provisioning of infrastructure through code instead of through manual processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

how do we use IAC effectively ?

A

To use IAC effectively we need to use scripted automation and orchestration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Cloud: orchestration ?

A

process of arranging or coordinating the installation and configuration of multiple systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Snowflake system?

A

any system that is different from the standard configuration template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Cloud: private direct connection ?

A

extends pre-existing on premise data center into the providers network to directly connect to your virtual private cloud network

establishes a secure, dedicated connection from your infrastructure into AWS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Cloud: datacenter ?

A

any facility that businesses and other orgs use to organize, process, store, and disseminate large amounts of data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Cloud: what are the three main layers in a three tiered hierarchy ?

A
  1. core
  2. Distribution aggregation
  3. access edge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Three tiered hierarchy: explain the Core

what is the core’s function in the three tiered hierarchy

A
  • big fast expensive routers
  • backbone of the cloud network
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Three tiered hierarchy: distribution aggregation

what is the function of the distribution aggregation layer in the cloud three tired hierarchy

A
  • provides boundary definitions by implementing ACL’s and policies
  • layer three switches
  • packets are being properly routed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Three tiered hierarchy: access edge

A
  • connect to endpoint devices
  • regular switches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

what are the 4 layers we need to be aware of with SDN?

A
  1. Application layer
  2. control layer
  3. infrastructure layer
  4. management plane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

SDN layer: application layer ?

A

focuses on the communication resource requests or info about the network as a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

SDN layer: control layer?

A

uses the information from the application and decides how to route a packet on the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

SDN layer: infrastructure layer?

A

contains the network devices that receive information about where to provide the data and then perform those movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

SDN layer: Management plane?

A

used to monitor traffic conditions and the status of the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

what can we achieve with a spine and leaf architecture

A

By using a spine and leaf architecture we can give faster speeds and lower latency than the traditional three-tiered hierarchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Traffic Flows Datacenter: North-South?

A

North: traffic that is exiting the datacenter
South: traffic that is entering the datacenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Traffic Flows Datacenter: East-west?

A

refers to dataflows within a datacenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

deterministic ?

A

very organized and orderly requires an electronic token to transmit.

Like a student raising his hand and getting called on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

contention based ?

A

very chaotic and can transmit whenever possible

the problem with this method is you have collisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

what sort of network access method does ethernet use ?

A

ethernet uses contention based network access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

how does ethernet prevent collisions?

A

ethernet prevents collisions with something known as CSMA/CD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Carrier sense multiple access collision detection CSMA/CD?

A

prevents collisions by using carrier sensing to defer transmissions until no other stations are transmitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Collision domain ?

A

each area of the network that shares a single segment is known as a collision domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

What does ethernet switching do for our networks?

A

increases scalability of a network by creating multiple collision domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

what does bandwidth mean in networking ?

A

measures how many bits the network can transmit per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

what is the maximum distance of copper cables ?

A

100 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

what are the metrics of CAT 6 cables?

A

Using CAT 6 at 100 meters will limit the speed from 10 Gbps to 1 Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

using CAT 6 at 55 meters what sort of speeds can you get ?

A

Using CAT 6 at under 55 meters can reach 10 Gbps of speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

what are the distances typically associated with multi mode fiber ?

A

Multimode fibers deal with shorter distances something in the 200 to 500 meter range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

should we use multimode fiber or single mode fiber for long distances ?

A

use single mode fiber for long distances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

what sort of fiber should we use for short distances ?

A

you need to use multimode fiber for short distances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

Network Devices: Hub

A

also known as a multiport repeater it is a layer 1 device that connects multiple network devices and workstations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

what are the three types of hubs ?

A
  1. passive hub
  2. active hub
  3. smart hub
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Hubs: passive hub ?

A

repeats single with no amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Hubs: active hub ?

A

repeats signal with amplification
used for long distances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Hubs: smart hubs ?

A

active hub with enhanced features like snmp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

Network devices: bridge ?

A

analyzes source MAC addresses and makes intelligent forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC in the frames

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Network Devices: switch ?

A

also known as a multiport bridge, it is a layer 2 device that connects multiple network segments together. A switch is essentially a multi-port bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

Network devices: Router?

A

Layer 3 device that connects multiple networks and makes forwarding decisions based on logical network information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Network Devices: layer 3 switch ?

A

makes layer 3 routing decisions and then interconnects entire networks not just network segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

what layer does a switch operate on and what does it focus on ?

A

layer 2 device focused on MAC addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

what layer does a router operate on and what is it focused on ?

A

layer three device focused on IP addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

what are the additional features switches can offer?

A

VLAN’s
Trunking
STP
Link aggregation
Power over ethernet
Port monitoring
User authentication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Switching Features: Link Aggregation ?

A

combines multiple physical connections into a single logical connection to minimize or prevent congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

what is the standard for link aggregation ?

A

Link aggregation standard IEEE 802.3ad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

what problem does link aggregation solve in a network ?

A

link aggregation is a solution for the problem of congestion. congestion can occur when all ports operate at the same speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

are switches full duplex or half duplex ?

A

switches are full duplex which means every port can operate at 100mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

what is the standard for power over ethernet?

A

802.3at

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Power over ethernet?

A

supplies electrical power over ethernet and requires cat 5 or higher copper cable.

the benefit of this is instead of needing two separate cables for power and data you can use one for booth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Port monitoring or mirroring ?

A

makes a copy of all traffic destined for a port and sends it to another port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

what is out of band management ?

A

keeps all network configuration devices on a separate network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

first hop redundancy ?

A

FHRP is used to prevent network failure at a default gateway. This is achieved by configuring multiple routers with the same IP address and Mac address, thus presenting an illusion of a single virtual router to the hosts in a Local Area Network (LAN).

this helps with redundancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

MAC filtering ?

A

permits or denies traffic based on a devices MAC address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Traffic filtering ?

A

permits or denies traffic based on IP address or application ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

what is IT governance ?

A

It governance is used to provide a comprehensive security management framework for the org

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

How is IT governance achieved ?

A
  1. Policies
  2. standards
  3. baseline
  4. Guidelines
  5. Procedures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

what is a security policy ?

A

defines the role of security inside of an org and establishes the desired end state for the security program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

what are the three different categories for security policies ?

A
  1. organizational
  2. system specific
  3. issue specific
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

what is an organizational policy ?

A

provides frameworks to meet the business goals and define the roles, responsibilities, and teams associated with it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

what are system specific policies ?

A

these address the specific technology, application, network or computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

what are issue specific policies ?

A

addresses a specific security issue such as email privacy, employee termination procedures, or other specific issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

what are standards ?

A

implements a policy in an org

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

Baseline ?

A

creates a reference point in network architecture and design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Guideline ?

A

recommended action that allows for exceptions and allowances in unique situations and recommends actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Procedures ?

A

detailed step-by-step instructions created to ensure personnel can perform a given task or series of actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

Change management ?

A

structured way of changing the state of a computer system, network, or IT procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

incident response plan ?

A

contains instructions on how to help network and system admins, detect, respond to, and recover from network security incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

incident response plans are broken into 6 core phases

A
  1. preparation
  2. identification
  3. containment
  4. Eradication
  5. recovery
  6. lessons learned
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Disaster recovery plan ?

A

Documents how an org can quickly resume work after an unplanned incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

Business continuity plan ?

A

outlines how a business will continue operating during an unplanned disruption in service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

System life cycle plan ?

A

describes the approach to maintaining an asset from creation to disposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

what is the 5 phase lifecycle used for all of our systems and networks.

A
  1. planning
  2. design
  3. transition
  4. operations
  5. retirement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

standard operating procedure ?

A

a step-by-step instructions compiled by an org to help its employees carry out routine operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

Password policies ?

A

a set of rules created to improve computer security by motivating users to create and properly store secure passwords

338
Q

acceptable use policies?

A

a set of rules that restricts the ways in which a network resource may be used and sets guidelines on how it should be used

339
Q

BYOD policies ?

A

allows employees to access enterprise networks and systems using there personal devices

340
Q

remote access policies ?

A

a document which outlines and defines acceptable methods of remotely connecting to the internal network

341
Q

Onboarding policies ?

A

A documented policy that describes all the requirements for integrating a new hire into the company and its cultures

342
Q

Offboarding policy ?

A

A documented policy that covers all the steps to successfully part ways with an employee who’s leaving the company

343
Q

Security policies ?

A

a document that outlines how to protect the organizations systems, networks and data from threats

344
Q

DLP policies?

A

A document defining how orgs can share and protect data

Goal of a data loss prevention policy minimizes accidental or malicious data loss

345
Q

NDA agreement ?

A

Defines what data is confidential and cannot be shared outside of the relationship

346
Q

Memorandum of understanding MOU?

A

non-binding agreement between two or more organizations to detail what common actions they intend to take

347
Q

Service level agreement SLA ?

A

Documents the quality, availability, and responsibilities agreed upon by a service provider and client

348
Q

what is network management ?

A

the process of administering and managing computer networks

349
Q

what is a physical network diagram ?

A

shows the actual physical arrangement of the components that make up the network

350
Q

What is a Logical Network Diagram?

A

illustrates the flow of data across a network and shows how devices communicate with each other

351
Q

what is a radio frequency wireless site survey ?

A

Planning and designing of a wireless network to deliver the required wireless solution

352
Q

Wired site survey?

A

determines If a site has the right amount of power, space, and cooling to support a new upgrade or installation

353
Q

what are baseline configs?

A

set of specifications for an information system, or a configuration item within a system, that has been formally reviewed and agreed on

354
Q

what is network performance monitoring ?

A

monitors the performance from the end user’s workstation to the final destination they are trying to reach

355
Q

what are the three key metrics for network performance ?

A
  1. latency
  2. Bandwidth
  3. Jitter
356
Q

what is Latency ?

A

time it takes for data to reach its destination across the network. latency is reported in milliseconds

357
Q

what is bandwidth ?

A

maximum rate of data transfer across a given network.

358
Q

what is throughput ?

A

this is the actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to the destination

359
Q

explain Jitter ?

A

when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs

360
Q

what do sensors do for us in our networks ?

A

monitor a device’s temperature, CPU usage, and memory which could indicate if it is operating properly or is about to fail

361
Q

what is a minor temperature threshold ?

A

monitor a devices temperature CPU usage and memory which could indicate if it is operating properly or if it is about to fail

362
Q

what is a major temperature threshold ?

A

used to set off an alarm when temperature reaches dangerous conditions.

363
Q

what are the two ways to measure data in our networks ?

A

In order to measure traffic in our network we can either use full packet capture or netflow data

364
Q

what is full packet capture ?

A

captures the entire packet, including the header and the payload for all traffic entering and leaving a network

365
Q

what is flow analysis ?

A

relies on a flow connector to record the metadata and statistics about network traffic rather then recording each frame

366
Q

what is netflow?

A

defines a particular traffic flow based on the different packets that share the same characteristics.

367
Q

Zeek?

A

passively monitors a network like a sniffer but only logs full packet capture of data of potential interest

368
Q

MRTG multi router traffic grapher?

A

creates graphs showing traffic flows through the network interfaces of routers and switches by polling the appliances using snmp

369
Q

Interface statistics: flush

A

used to count selective packet discards SDP that have occurred

370
Q

Interface statistics: selective packet discards

A

drops low priority packets when the CPU is too busy so it can save capacity for higher priority packets as a form of Qos

371
Q

Interface statistics: runt

A

an ethernet frame that is less than 64 bytes in size

372
Q

Interface statistics: giant

A

any ethernet frame that exceeds the 802.3 frame size of 1518 bytes

373
Q

Interface statistics: throttle

A

occurs when the interface fails to buffer the incoming packets

374
Q

Interface statistics: CRC

A

CRC number of packets received that failed the cyclic redundancy checksum or CRC check upon receipt

375
Q

Interface statistics: Frame

A

used to count the number of packets where a CRC error and a non-integer number of octets was received

376
Q

Interface statistics: ignored

A

used to count the number of packets that the interface ignored since the hardware interface was low on internal buffers

377
Q

Interface statistics: underrun

A

number of times the sender has operated faster then the router can handle, causing buffers or packets dropped

378
Q

Interface statistics: babble

A

used to count any frames that are transmitted and are larger than 1518 bytes

Babble is for transmission giant is for received

379
Q

Interface statistics: late collision

A

used to count the number of collision that occur after the interface has started transmitting its frame

380
Q

Interface statistics: deferred

A

used to count the number of frames that were transmitted successfully after waiting because the media was busy

381
Q

Interface statistics: output buffer failure

A

number of times a packet was not output from the output hold queue because of a shortage of shared memory

382
Q

what does the CIA triad stand for ?

A
  1. confidentiality
  2. integrity
  3. availability
383
Q

how do we ensure confidentiality in our networks ?

A

keep data private and safe using encryption and authentication to access resources

384
Q

explain what encryption does for us in our networks ?

A

ensures the data can only be read or decoded by the intended recipient

385
Q

what is symmetric encryption ?

A

sender and receiver use the same key to encrypt and decrypt a message

386
Q

what are the three main types of symmetric encryption out there ?

A
  1. DES
  2. Triple DES
  3. AES
387
Q

what is Data encryption standard DES?

How long is the key for DES ?

Is DES considered weak or strong encryption by today’s standards ?

A

a 56-bit encryption key to secure data. today this is considered weak encryption

388
Q

explain Triple DES

how many keys does it use?

A

uses three 56-bit keys which gives a total key strength of 168 bits

389
Q

what is the Advanced Encryption Standard or AES?

what keys is it available in?

A

Preferred symmetric encryption standard today and is available in 128-bit, 192-bit, and 256-bit keys

390
Q

which is faster symmetric or asymmetric encryption ?

A

Symmetric encryption is almost a 1000x faster than asymmetric encryption

391
Q

what sort of overhead is needed when an org is using symmetric encryption ?

A

The overhead with symmetric encryption is making sure that all the users have the key who need to use it

392
Q

what is asymmetric encryption ?

A

Sender and receiver use different keys to encrypt and decrypt a message

393
Q

Public key infrastructure or PKI?

A

gives secure email exchanges and web browsing and solves the problem of having to distribute the keys ahead of time

394
Q

how does PKI help with email security ?

A

PKI is where we encrypt the data from an email sender to an email receiver

395
Q

what does integrity mean inside our networks ?

A

ensures data was not modified in transit and verifies it came from its original source

396
Q

how do we ensure we have integrity in our networks ?

A

We ensure we have integrity in our networks and applications by using hashing

397
Q

what is hashing ?

A

runs a string of data through an algorithm, creates a hash that serves as a unique individual fingerprint for a file or data set

398
Q

what does availability mean in our networks ?

A

measures data accessibility and is increased by designing redundant networks

399
Q

what is a threat ?

A

a person or event that has the potential for impacting a valuable resource in a negative manner

400
Q

what is a denial of service attack ?

A

occurs when one machine continually floods a victim with request for services

401
Q

explain a TCP SYN flood ?

A

occurs when an attacker initiates multiple TCP sessions but never completes them

402
Q

smurf attack ?

A

occurs when an attacker sends a ping to a subnet broadcast address with a source IP spoofed to be that of the victim server

403
Q

distributed denial of service attack ?

A

occurs when an attacker uses multiple computers to ask for access to the same server at the same time

404
Q

botnet ?

A

a collection of compromised computers under the control of a master node

405
Q

zombie ?

A

any of the individually compromised computers within a botnet

406
Q

explain an on path or man in the middle attack

A

occurs when an attacker puts themselves between the victim and the intended destination

407
Q

session hijacking ?

A

occurs when an attacker guesses the session ID that is in use between a client and a server and takes over the authenticated session

408
Q

DNS poisioning

A

occurs when an attacker manipulates known vulnerabilities within DNS to reroute traffic from one site to a fake version of the site

409
Q

what was created to combat DNS poisioning ?

A

DNSSEC was created to combat DNS poisioning

410
Q

what is DNSSEC?

A

uses encrypted digital signatures when passing DNS information between servers to help protect it from poisoning

411
Q

explain a rogue DHCP server

A

a DHCP server on a network which is not under the administrative control of the network admins

412
Q

spoofing ?

A

occurs when an attacker masquerades as another person by falsifying their identity

413
Q

IP spoofing ?

A

modifying the source address of an IP packet to hide the identity of the sender or impersonate another client

414
Q

what layer of the OSI model does IP spoofing occur

A

IP spoofing is focused at layer 3 of the OSI model

415
Q

MAC spoofing ?

A

changing the MAC address to pretend the use of a different network interface card or device

416
Q

what is MAC filtering ?

A

relies on a list of all known and authorized MAC addresses

417
Q

what is ARP spoofing ?

A

sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network

418
Q

what is the purpose of ARP?

A

the purpose of ARP is to create a binding between a MAC address and an IP address inside of a LAN

419
Q

how do we prevent ARP poisoning in a network ?

A

to prevent ARP poisoning set up good VLAN segmentation within your network

420
Q

what is VLAN hopping ?

A

ability to send traffic from one VLAN to another, bypassing the VLAN segmentation you have configured with your layer 2 networks

421
Q

what are the two ways attackers can accomplish VLAN hoping ?

A
  1. Double tagging
  2. Switch spoofing
422
Q

VLAN hoping: Double tagging ?

A

connecting to an interface on the switch using access mode with the same VLAN as the native untagged VLAN on the trunk

423
Q

VLAN hoping switch spoofing ?

A

Attempting to conduct a dynamic trunking protocol DTP negotiation

424
Q

what is malware ?

A

designed to infiltrate a computer system and possibly damage it without the users consent or knowledge

425
Q

what is a virus ?

A

made up of malicious code that is run on a machine without the users knowledge and infects it whenever that code is run

426
Q

what is a worm ?

A

a piece of malicious software that can replicate itself without user interaction

427
Q

explain a trojan horse ?

A

a piece of malicious software disguised as a piece of harmless or desirable software

428
Q

ransomeware?

A

restricts access to a victims computer system or files until a ransom or payment is received

429
Q

what is spyware?

A

gathers information about you without your consent

430
Q

what is a rootkit ?

A

designed to gain administrative control over a computer system or network device without being detected

431
Q

rogue access point ?

A

a wireless acess point that has been installed on a secure network without authorization from a local network admin

432
Q

Shadow IT?

A

use of IT systems, devices, software applications, or services without the explicit approval of the IT department

433
Q

Evil Twin Attack ?

A

wireless access point that uses the same SSID as your own network

434
Q

De-Authentication attack ?

A

attempt to interupt communication between an end user and the wireless access point

435
Q

Wireless interception ?

A

captures wireless data packets as they go across the airwaves

436
Q

what is social engineering ?

A

any attempt to manipulate users to reveal confidential information or perform actions detrimental to a systems security

437
Q

what is phising ?

A

sending an email in an attempt to get a user to click on it

438
Q

Spearphising ?

A

more targetd form of phising

439
Q

what is whaling?

A

focused on key executives within an org or other key leaders, executives and managers in the company.

440
Q

what is tailgating ?

A

entering a secure portion of the organizations building by following an authorized person into the area without their knowledge or consent

441
Q

what is an insider threat ?

A

an employee or other trusted insider who uses their authorized network access in unauthorized ways to harm the company

442
Q

what is a posture assessment ?

A

asesses cyber risk posture and exposure to threats caused by misconfiguration and patching delays

443
Q

what are the 4 main steps of a security posture assessment ?

A
  1. Define mission critical components
  2. identify strengths weaknesses and security issues
  3. strengthen your position
  4. stay in control
444
Q

what is a business risk assessment ?

A

used to identify understand and evaluate potential hazards in the workplace

445
Q

what is a process assessment ?

A

the disciplined examaniation of the processes used by the org against a set of criteria

446
Q

what is a vendor assessment ?

A

the assessment of a prospective vendor to determine if they can effectively meet the obligations and the needs of the business

447
Q

what is least privilege ?

A

using the lowest level of permissions or privielegs needed in order to complete a job function or admin task

448
Q

Discretionary access control or DAC ?

A
  • an access method where access is determined by the owner of the resource
449
Q

what are the two main challanges when using DAC?

A
  1. every object in a system has to have an owner
  2. Each owner must determine the access rights and permissions for each object
450
Q

Mandatory access control MAC?

A

An access control policy where the computer system gets to decide who gets access to what objects

451
Q

Role based access control RBAC

A

An access control model that is controlled by the system but focuses on a set of permissions versus an individual permission

Creating groups makes it easy to control permissions based around actual job functions

452
Q

Zero trust ?

A

a security framework that requires users to be authenticated and authorized before being granted access to applications and data

453
Q

what are the 4 key principles you need to follow to implement zero trust in your network ?

A
  1. Reexamine all default access controls
  2. Employ a variety of prevention techniques and defense in depth
  3. Enable real-time monitoring and controls to identify and stop malicious activity quickly
  4. Ensure the networks zero-trust architecture aligns to a broader security strategy
454
Q

what is defense in depth ?

A

cybersecurity approach in which a series of defensive mechanisms are layered in order to protect valuable data and information

455
Q

explain a DMZ ?

A

a perimeter network that protects an organizations internal local area network from untrusted traffic

only allows people from the outside internet to access certain resources within your network

456
Q

explain a screened subnet ?

A

subnet in the network architecture that uses a single firewall with three interfaces to connect three dissimilar networks

Used in networks that have both public and private areas, a screened subnet lets users access the internet without exposing the local area network to internet-based cyber attacks or data breaches. It does this by establishing a network between an internal network and an external/presumed hostile network, such as the internet. This ensures that there is no single vulnerable point that could potentially compromise the entire enterprise network.

It uses three network interfaces:

Interface 1 is the public interface connected to the internet.
Interface 2 connects to the demilitarized zone (DMZ) to which hosted public services are attached.
Interface 3 connects to the intranet to provide access to and from internal networks.
The subnet’s main purpose is to isolate the DMZ and its publicly accessible resources from the intranet, thereby minimizing external attention and possible attacks on that subnet. The architecture makes it more difficult to attack the intranet, especially when a properly configured firewall is combined with the use of private IP addresses on one or both of these subnets. Even if the firewall itself is compromised, an attacker won’t be able to access the intranet.

457
Q

Separation of duties

A

prevents fraud and abuse by distributing carious tasks and approval authorities across a number of different users

458
Q

MFA?

A

authenticates or proves an identity using more than one method

459
Q

MFA: something you know?

A

a. Usernames
b. Passwords
c. PIN
d. Answers to questions

460
Q

MFA: something you have ?

A

a. smartcards
b. RSA key fobs
c. RFID tags

461
Q

MFA: something you are?

A

a. fingerprints
b. Retina scans
c. Voice prints

462
Q

MFA: something you do?

A

a. How you sign your name
b. How you draw a pattern

463
Q

MFA: Somewhere you are?

A

a. Geotagging
b. geofencing

464
Q

Authentication ?

A

the process of determining whether someone or something is who or what it claims to be

465
Q

LDAP?

A

validates a username and password combination against an LDAP server as a form of authentication

The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is a common method of accessing data over the network.

466
Q

Kerberos?

A

focused on authentication and authorization with a windows domain environment

467
Q

Remote authentication dial-in user service RADIUS

A

provides centralized administration of dial-up, VPN, and wireless network authentication

468
Q

Terminal access controller access control system plus TACACS+

A

used to perform the role of an authenticator in an 802.1x network

469
Q

802.1x

A

a standardized framework that’s used for port-based authentication on both wired and wireless networks

470
Q

There are three roles required to authenticate with 802.1x ?

A
  1. supplicant
    a. Device or user requesting access to the network
  2. authenticator
    a. Switch wireless access point
  3. Authentication server
    a. Centralized device that performs the authentication
471
Q

extensible authentication protocol EAP?

A

allows for numerous different mechanisms of authentication

472
Q

EAP-MD5?

A

utilizes simple passwords and the challenge handshake authentication process to provide remote access authentication

473
Q

EAP-TLS

A

uses public key infrastructure with a digital certificate being installed on both the client and the server

474
Q

EAP-TTLS

A

requires a digital certificate on the server and a password on the client for its authentication

475
Q

EAP-FAST

A

uses a protected access credential to establish mutual authentication between devices

476
Q

PEAP

A

uses server certificates and Microsoft’s AD databases to authenticate a clients password

477
Q

Network access control NAC

A

ensures a device is scanned to determine its current state of security prior to being allowed network access

478
Q

persistent agent

A

a piece of software installed on a device requesting access to the network

479
Q

Non-persistent agent

A

requires the users to connect to the network and go to a web based captive portal to download an agent on their devices

480
Q

what is one of the most common network access control standards ?

A

IEEE 802.1x

481
Q

where is IEEE 802.1x used ?

A

used in port-based network access control

482
Q

NAC: Time-Based

A

defines access periods for given hosts using a time-based schedule / only logging in during approved times

483
Q

NAC: Location-based

A

evaluates the location of the endpoint requesting access using IP or GPS geolocation

484
Q

NAC: Role based adaptive NAC

A

reevaluates a device’s authentication when its being used to do something / looking at the role of the device and figure out if it is doing something it should or should not be able to do

485
Q

NAC: Rule-based

A

uses a complex admission policy that might enforce a series of rules with the use of logical statements

486
Q

Efuse

A

an electronic detection mechanism that can record the version of the IOS used by a switch

487
Q

what does OSI stand for ?

A

open systems interconnection model

488
Q

what is layer 1 of the OSI model ?

A

layer 1 is the physical layer

489
Q

describe what happens at layer 1 the physical layer of the OSI model

A
  • Where transmission of bits across the network occurs and includes physical and electrical network characteristics
  • Data is transferred in bytes at this layer series of 1s and 0s
490
Q

what does the physical layer decide about the network ?

A

The physical layer also decides the topology of the network

491
Q

what is an issue to be aware of at layer 1

A

Another issue to be aware of at layer 1 is how is communication synchronized

492
Q

what is asynchronous communication ?

A

Asynchronous communication is something like a voicemail, the communication happens out of sync or out of time

uses start and stop bits to indicate when transmissions occur from the sender to the receiver

493
Q

what is synchronous communication ?

A

uses a reference clock to coordinate the transmissions by both the sender and receiver

494
Q

what is broadband ?

A

divides our bandwidth into separate channels

495
Q

what is baseband communication ?

A

uses all available frequencies on a medium (cable) to transmit data

A telephone is a good example of baseband communication

Aka using all the bandwidth allocated to that phone line

Baseband uses a reference clock

Wired home ethernet network is also going to use baseband

496
Q

what is TDM or time division multiplexing ?

A

Each session takes a turn using time slots to share the medium between users

497
Q

Statistical time-division multiplexing

A

Dynamically allocates the time slots on an as-needed basis

498
Q

Frequency division multiplexing

A

Divides the medium (that cable) into channels based on the frequency and each session is transmitted over different channel

499
Q

what is multiplexing ?

A

multiplexing is getting more out of a limited network

500
Q

what are some examples of devices at the physical layer ?

A

Cable

Ethernet

Coaxial

Hubs

Access points

Media converters

Layer 1 devices simple repeating what they are told

501
Q

what is the main function of the data link layer ?

A

Packages data into frames and transmits those frames on the network

502
Q

what is media access control or MAC ?

A

Physical addressing system of a device which operates on a logical topology

Uses a 48 byte address assigned to a network interface card

503
Q

how are the digits in a MAC address divided ?

A

The first 6 digits in a mac address are the vendor code the second 6 digits are the unique value

504
Q

Logical Link Control LLC?

A

provides connection services and allows acknowledgment of receipt of messages

505
Q

what does LLC or logical link control provide ?

A

LLC provides basic error control functions

506
Q

what is run on the application layer

A

services /apps
web browsers
files

507
Q

what is run on the presentation layer

A

encoding
compression
encryption

508
Q

what is the session layer used for ?

A

managing sessions

509
Q

explain protocols in laymen terms

A

a set of rules or a way for computers to do things

510
Q

Please do not throw sasuage pizza away

A

Phsical
datat link
network
transport
session
presentation
application

511
Q

in the TCP/IP model what are the three layers from the OSI model that make up the application layer

A

application
presentation
session

512
Q

what is the order of the IP protocl stack we use today

A

Application
transport
network Data link
phsical

513
Q

what are the two most common protocols in the transport layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack

A

TCP & UDP

514
Q

what protocl does DNS use ?

A

UDP

515
Q

what layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack does IP addresses operate ?

A

the network layer or internet layer

516
Q

what do we call information transmitted at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack ?

A

Packets

517
Q

what networking device is looking at the layer 3 or network layer packets ?

A

routers

518
Q

what is layer 2 of the TCP/IP protocol stack

A

data link layer

network

internet layer

519
Q

what is ARP used for ?

A

arp is used to map IP address’s to MAC adresses’s

520
Q

what do we call information that is sent over the data link layer of the tcp/ip model

A

frames

521
Q

what layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack does encapsulation start?

A

the application layer

522
Q

what layer of the tcp/ip protocol stack does decapsulation start ?

A

the phsical layer

523
Q

what is a demarcation point ?

A

a spot where we connect our network to an internet service provider

524
Q

what does GRE stand for ?

A

Generic routing encapsulation

525
Q

what is an overlay network ?

A

an overlay network is a computer network that is layered on top of another network

526
Q

what does an underlay network represent ?

A

underlay network represents the actual interfaces and paths that are being used as traffic is being forwarded on networks

527
Q

topology ?

A

how networks are layed out.

528
Q

what are some things we should keep in mind when troubleshooting network issues ?

A
  1. device configuration reviews
  2. routing tables
  3. interface status
  4. VLAN assignments
  5. Network performance baselines
529
Q

what do most networking devices have for configurations ?

A

most network devices have two configs a startup config and a running config

530
Q

Networking devices: startup config ?

A

stored in NVRAM and contains the commands needed to initially configure a router

531
Q

Networking devices: running config?

A

actively being used by the router at that moment

532
Q

what command can we use to see the startup config for a router ?

A

show startup-config

533
Q

what command can we use to see the running config for a router ?

A

show running-config

534
Q

how can we display the routing table on a windows machine ?

A

“route print”

535
Q

how would we display the routing table on a linux command line ?

A

route - n

536
Q

Net Troubleshoot: VLAN Assignment / Tagging?

A

practice of segmenting an IT organazations network, seperating users into respective network sections

537
Q

what is a network performance baseline ?

A

defines the normal working conditions of an enterprise network infastructure

538
Q

What is the purpose of the DHCP service ?

A

assigns devices with an IP address and also provides them a subnet mask, default gateway and DNS server.

539
Q

What is the purpose of the DNS service ?

A

converts domain names to IP addresses using hierarchical and decentralized system of naming

540
Q

what is a DNS zone transfer ?

A

sharing of information between DNS servers about which domain names they have and there associated IP addresses

541
Q

what is the purpose of the Network Time Protocol or NTP ?

A

Synchronizes clocks between systems communicating over a packet switched variable latency data network

542
Q

what must DHCP provide for each client to effectively access the internet?

A

DHCP must provide and IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and DNS server to each client to effectively access the internet

543
Q

Explain a DHCP reservation ?

A

DHCP reservations allow the DHCP server to pre-set an IP address to a specific client based on its MAC address.

DHCP reservations are usually used with servers or printers on your internal network and are rarely used with end-user devices

544
Q

What does DHCP do for our networks ?

A

provides an IP address to every machine on the network and eliminates configuration errors

545
Q

DHCP: Scope ?

A

a list of valid IP addresses available for assignment or lease to a client computer or endpoint device on any given subnet

546
Q

DHCP: Reservation ?

A

excludes some IP addresses being handed out to devices unless they meet a certain condition

547
Q

As a network admin how does DHCP help us out ?

A

with DHCP we can automate setup of all our devices when they join the network

548
Q

DHCP: what happens when a device joins the network ?

A

when a device joins the network its going to do what we call a discovery “hey DHCP server I need an IP address”

549
Q

DHCP: what are the 4 steps of the DHCP process ?

A
  1. Discover
  2. Offer
  3. Request
  4. Acknowledge

D.O.R.A

550
Q

DHCP: what 4 pieces of information do network clients get from DHCP?

A
  1. IP address
  2. Subnet Mask
  3. Default Gateway IP
  4. DNS Server IP
551
Q

DHCP relay ?

A

DHCP relay is used when the client device and the DHCP server are not located on the same subnet or network

552
Q

Does DHCP operate using TCP or UDP

A

UDP

553
Q

DNS: What does the domain name service help us do ?

A

helps network clients find a website using human-readable hostnames instead of numeric IP addresses

554
Q

DNS: what are some examples of fully qualified domain names or FQDN ?

A

Examples of fully qualified domain names

www.diontraining.com

Mail.diontraining.com

Ftp.diontraining.com

555
Q

What are the different levels of the DNS hierarchy?

A
  1. Root - Answers requests in the root zone
  2. Top-level domain - .com .net
  3. Second-level domain - Diontraining.com google.com
  4. Subdomain - Support.diontraining.com
  5. Host - Refers to a specific machine
556
Q

DNS Records: A ?

A

links a hostname to an IPV4 address

557
Q

DNS Records: AAAA?

A

links a hostname to an IPv6 address

558
Q

DNS Records: CNAME?

A

points a domain name to another domain or subdomain

essentially a domain redirect

559
Q

DNS Records: MX?

A

Directs email to a mail server

560
Q

DNS Records: SOA?

A

stores important information about a domain or zone ?

561
Q

DNS Records: PTR?

A

corelates an IP address with a domain name

These are essentially the opposite of A records

562
Q

DNS Records: TXT?

A

Adds text into the DNS record

563
Q

DNS Records: SRV?

A

specifies a host and port for a specific service

564
Q

DNS Records: NS?

A

Type of DNS server that stores all the DNS records for a given name

565
Q

DNS: Zone transfer ?

A

sends DNS records data from the primary nameserver to the secondary nameserver.

Zone transfers use the TCP protocol to transfer data

566
Q

DNS: reverse DNS lookup ?

A

determines what the domain name is for a given IP address.

567
Q

DNS: forward lookup ?

A

uses DNS to find the IP address for a given network

568
Q

Internal DNS ?

A

allows cloud instances on the same network to access each other using internal DNS names

569
Q

External DNS?

A

records created around the domain names from a central authority and used on the public internet

An external DNS is a publicly accessible third-party domain name server that’s generally open for anyone on the internet to access and update. External DNS allows you to query for the IP address of a domain. An external DNS provider is also known as a public DNS provider.

570
Q

DNS: Time to Live TTL

A

tells the DNS resolver how long to cache a query before requesting a new one

571
Q

DNS: Recursive lookup?

A

DNS server communicates with several other DNS servers to hunt down the IP address and return to the client

572
Q

NTP?

A

synchronizes clocks between systems communicating over a packet-switched variable-latency data network

573
Q

what is the easiest way to describe NTP?

A

Essentially keeps all the devices on the same time

574
Q

what port and protocol does NTP use?

A

NTP data is going to be sent over UDP using port 123

575
Q

wireless analyzer

A

ensures you have the proper coverage and helps prevent overlap between wireless access points coverage zones and channels

576
Q

protocol analyzer

A

used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communications channel Example wireshark

577
Q

Packet capturing tool

A

used to capture packets running over a network connection in real time and then save them for later analysis

578
Q

What is wireshark ?

A

wireshark is both a protocol analyzer and has packet capture functionality

579
Q

What is a bandwidth speed test ?

A

verifies the real world throughput from a client device all the way out to the internet and back

this is like the WIFI speed tests you do at work

580
Q

what is real world throughput ?

A

the speed from your client to the endpoint device and back.

581
Q

IPERF?

A

gathers an active measurement of the maximum achievable bandwidth of an IP based network

Iperf is a tool for network performance measurement and tuning. It is a cross-platform tool that can produce standardized performance measurements for any network. Iperf has client and server functionality, and can create data streams to measure the throughput between the two ends in one or both directions

582
Q

NetFlow Analyzer ?

A

performs monitoring troubleshooting and in-depth inspection, interpretation and synthesis of traffic flow data

583
Q

TFTP?

A

protocol for exchanging files between two TCP/IP machines

port 69

584
Q

What is the ping command used for ?

A

ping checks the connectivity between two devices and usually is used to see if a device is up and is often used for network troubleshooting

585
Q

how would you ping an IPV6 address ?

A

ping can use IPV6 with the -6 option.

586
Q

traceroute / tracert

A

displays the path between device and its destination showing the source and destination IP address for each hop along the way

587
Q

what is a hop when we are talking about traceroute ?

A

a hop is any router or firewall that is in the path of the transmission from the client to the destination

588
Q

what is the purpose of the ipconfig command ?

A

Ipconfig displays all of the current TCP/IP network config values and refreshes DHCP and DNS settings for a windows client/ server

589
Q

using Ipconfig how would we release the current IP address ?

A

ipconfig /release

590
Q

how would we attempt to get a new IP address using the ipconfig command ?

A

Ipconfig /renew

591
Q

how would we attempt to get all the IP info and DHCP info using the Ipconfig command ?

A

Ipconfig /all

592
Q

what is the equivalent of IP config on a linux system

A

ifconfig

593
Q

how do we learn more about a specific interface with ifconfig ?

A

ifconfig -v eth0

594
Q

what does the IP command do on a linux operating system ?

A

Ip – assigns an address to a network interface or configures network interface parameters on a Unix, Linux, or OSX operating system

595
Q

what is the nslookup tool used for ?

A

used to query the DNS to provide the mapping between domain names and IP addresses or other DNS records

596
Q

how would you do a forward lookup using the nslookup tool ?

A

nslookup google.com

597
Q

how would we do a reverse lookup using the nslookup tool ?

A

nslookup 8.8.8.8

598
Q

explain the dig command

A

used to conduct queries against DNS nameservers and is only available for Linux, Unix and OS X systems by default

599
Q

what is the ARP command used for ?

A

ARP command is used to display and modify entries in the address resolution protocol cache on a system.

600
Q

what is the command for viewing the ARP cache ?

A

arp -a

601
Q

what is the route command used for ?

A

route is used to view and manipulate the IP routing table in a windows osx or linux system

602
Q

what is a default route ?

A

route that takes effect when no other route is available for an IP destination address

603
Q

how would we print a routing table on a windows machine ?

A

route print

604
Q

what is the nbtstat command used for ?

A

used to view the current connection and statistics for devices communicating using the NetBIOS over TCP/IP protocol

605
Q

what is the netstat command used for ?

A

displays information for IP based connections on a client including its current sessions its source and destination IP’s and port numbers.

606
Q

what is the tcpdump command used for on linux systems?

A

Tcpdump – allows for the display of TCP/IP and other packets being transmitted or received over the network to the clients screen

607
Q

what is a network platform ?

A
  1. routers
  2. switches
  3. firewalls

refers to any of these above items regardless of the brand or manufacturer

608
Q

what does the show interface command do ?

A

displays statistics for the network interfaces on the device

609
Q

what does the show config command do ?

A

show config - displays the current system configuration on the screen

610
Q

what is VTP?

A

VLAN trunking protocol

multiple VLANS in a single link

611
Q

what is a collision in regards to networking ?

A

occurs when two hosts on the network transmit at the same time which causes the signals to combine on the network medium

612
Q

where do collisions occur in networks ?

A

collisions can occur in both wired and wireless networks

613
Q

what is a collision domain ?

A

network segment where simultaneous data transmissions collide with each other

614
Q

how do we break apart collision domains ?

A

Use any layer 2 device to break apart collision domains like a switch or a bridge

615
Q

how can we as a network admin overcome and excessive collision issue ?

A
  1. turn off auto negotiation
  2. hardcode to lower speed
  3. change to half duplex.
616
Q

what is a broadcast storm ?

A

occurs when a network system is overwhelmed by continuous or multicast or broadcast traffic

A broadcast storm or broadcast radiation is the accumulation of broadcast and multicast traffic on a computer network. Extreme amounts of broadcast traffic constitute a “broadcast storm”. It can consume sufficient network resources so as to render the network unable to transport normal traffic.

617
Q

what is a broadcast domain ?

A

a logical division of a computer network where all nodes can reach each other by broadcast at the data link layer

618
Q

what networking device can we use to break subnets into separate broadcast domains ?

A

we can use a router

619
Q

what are the couple main causes for a broadcast storm occurring in your network ?

A
  1. too large singular broadcast domain
  2. large volume of DHCP requests
  3. loops are created in the switching environment
620
Q

what are the three main ways we can prevent broadcast storms from happening ?

A
  1. enable bridge protocol data units
  2. enforce a maximum number of MAC address’s per port
  3. break up large broadcast domains using routers and layer 3 switches
621
Q

Duplicate Addresses: Logical domain manager ?

A

listens to multicast messages on a network and keeps track of the MAC addresses being used

622
Q

what will port security help us with in our network ?

A

to prevent issues on your network relating to duplicate MAC addresses you can enable port security on your switches.

623
Q

what is a duplicate IP address or Ip address conflict

A

occurs when another computer on the same network has an identical IP to another workstation or server on the same network (This can also be a DHCP server issue)

624
Q

how does duplicate IP addressing usually happen?

A

Duplicate IP addressing issues usually come from using static IP address’s

625
Q

what are the three main causes for duplicate IP addresses in a network ?

A

Static IP address issue

DHCP server issue

Rogue DHCP server

626
Q

Routing issues: multicast flooding

A

no specific host is associated with the multicast MAC address in the CAM table of the switch.

To fix this issue we need to disable multicast traffic on the switchport

627
Q

What is asymmetrical routing ?

A

Network packets leave via one path and return via a different path

628
Q

Routing issues: missing routes ?

A

when a router cannot reach a destination because there is a missing route in the routing table

629
Q

Loops: Switching / Bridging loops

A

occurs whenever there is more than one path between the source and the destination devices.

630
Q

How do we prevent a switching loop?

A

to prevent a switching loop you have to enable STP or spanning tree protocol

631
Q

what is the bottom line with switching loops ?

A

switching loops are usually an issue with how stp is configured

632
Q

what are routing loops ?

A

formed when an error occurs in the operation of the routing algorithm and creates a circular route amongst a group of network devices

633
Q

what are two ways to prevent routing loops in our network ?

A

split horizon
route poisoning

634
Q

Routing: What is split horizon ?

A

routing configuration that stops a route from being advertised back in the direction where it came from.

In computer networking, split-horizon route advertisement is a method of preventing routing loops in distance-vector routing protocols by prohibiting a router from advertising a route back onto the interface from which it was learned

635
Q

Routing: Route poisoning ?

A

increasing a routers metric to an infinitely high number after detecting one of its connected routes has failed

Route poisoning is a method of quickly forgetting outdated routing information from other router’s routing tables by changing its hop count to be unreachable (higher than the maximum number of hops allowed) and sending a routing update.

636
Q

Routing: hold down timer ?

A

prevents bad routes from being restored and passed to other routers by accident

637
Q

what does DHCP do when a client joins the network ?

A

automatically assigns an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and DNS servers IP address to a client when it joins the network

638
Q

Rogue DHCP server ?

A

a DHCP server on a network which is not under the administrative control of the network admins

639
Q

what are the three ways rogue DHCP servers can be prevented

A
  1. DHCP snooping
  2. Port Security
  3. Intrusion Detection system
640
Q

What is DHCP scope exhaustion ?

A

Occurs when the DHCP server runs out of Valid IPs to assign to the clients requesting access on the network

641
Q

what 4 pieces of information do clients need to communicate reliably on a network ?

A
  1. IP address
  2. Subnet Mask
  3. Default Gateway IP
  4. DNS Server IP
642
Q

What is a host based firewall ?

A

runs on an individual computer or device connected to the network to protect that one device

643
Q

what is a network based firewall ?

A

Deployed in line with the network traffic flow to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic based on established rule sets.

644
Q

firewall issues are commonly broken down into three main things

A

Access to protected resources from unprotected networks is not working

Access to unprotected resources from protected networks is not working

Access to the firewall and its configurations is not working

645
Q

firewall issues are one of two things.

A

Issues can usually be broken down into “either traffic is not going through the firewall or not going to the firewall properly “

646
Q

ACL?

A

provides security by blocking unauthorized users and allowing authorized users to access specific resources

647
Q

What command would we use to view firewall rules on a network based firewall

A

show access lists

648
Q

What are the 4 things to keep in mind when writing an ACL?

A

When writing an ACL rule keep these things in mind

Ensure there are no typos in your rules

Verify the protocol and port numbers referenced by the rule are correct

Verify the source and destination addresses are referenced by the rule

Did you include the correct IP and subnet mask

Verify the order of rules is being verified correctly

649
Q

what are two common questions to ask yourself when troubleshooting DNS?

A

Are the A records and CNAME records properly created ?

We can verify this using NSlookup

Is the TTL or time to live set properly

650
Q

What is DNS latency ?

A

time and delay that occurs whenever users request a particular domain name

651
Q

How do we solve DNS latency issues as a network admin ?

A

by using DNS servers that are closer to our users

652
Q

What do issues with NTP usually boil down too ?

A

NTP packets not being received

NTP packets not being processed

NTP packets have errors or packet lost

653
Q

How do we usually solve NTP issues ?

A

Ensure proper connection between clients and servers

Verify communication between clients and servers using MAC address

Verify communication between clients and servers using the IP addresses

654
Q

what is bandwidth ?

A

theoretical speed of data going across the network

655
Q

what is throughput ?

A

actual speed of data on the network

656
Q

wireless Received Signal Strength Indication RSSI ?

A

estimated measure of the power level that a radio frequency client device is receiving from a wireless access point or wireless router (otherwise known as signal strength)

657
Q

Wireless: Vertical antenna ?

A

radio frequency waves extend outward in all directions away from the antenna and the wireless access point to an equal power level

658
Q

Wireless: Dipole Antenna ?

A

produces radio frequency waves extending outward in two directions

659
Q

Wireless: Yagi Antenna ?

A

a unidirectional antenna that sends the radio frequency waves in only one direction

(commonly used for site to site connections)

660
Q

Wireless Parabolic Grid Antenna ?

A

allows the radio waves to be transmitted in only one direction over a longer distance then a yagi

661
Q

Wireless: what antennas are we more likely to use for indoor use ?

A

For indoor use you are more likely to use omnidirectional and unidirectional antennas

662
Q

Wireless: Channel Utilization?

A

a statistic or measure of the amount of airtime utilization that occurs for a particular frequency or channel

663
Q

where should our channel utilization be in our network to have a fast wireless network ?

A

In order to have a fast wireless network you want to keep your channel utilization under 30% to have a faster wireless network

664
Q

What do access points and clients form when they operate on the same channel ?

A

Access points and clients form a single broadcast domain when they operate on the same channel

665
Q

What is Clear Channel Assessment or CCA ?

A

listens to see if another device is actively transmitting on the channel before attempting to send frames on the channel

666
Q

When a wireless client attempts to connect to a wireless network it goes through a 7 step process

A

Wireless client sends a probe request to discover any 802.11 wireless networks in proximity to itself (broadcast message)

Receiving access point checks to see if it can support the data rate the client requested

Wireless client sends a low-level 802.11 authentication frame to the access point to begin authentication

Access point receives the authentication frame and responds with an acknowledgment to continue the handshake

Wireless client chooses the access point it wants to associate with and sends an association request

Access point processes the association request if the information sent matches its capabilities

Client is fully connected and associated and can now conduct any data transfer it needs and use the wireless network

667
Q

When a wireless client is connecting to the AP and the network it has to do the following

A

Scan airwaves

Find access points

Request association

Authenticate

Contact the DHCP server

668
Q

wireless: Coverage ?

A

a measure of how much area around a wireless transmitter is there sufficient signal strength for wireless devices to utilize

669
Q

What are a couple ways we can increase coverage to a wireless area ?

A

Signal booster

Larger antenna

Wireless repeater

Second access point

670
Q

Wireless: interference ?

A

occurs when multiple wireless networks communicate on the same channel using the same frequency

671
Q

Wireless: multipath reception ?

A

occurs when the transmitted signal bounces off walls and other phsical objects and then is redirected to the reciever

672
Q

Wireless: What are the ways a client can be disconnected from an Access point.

A
  1. Idle timeout
  2. Session timeout
  3. Manual deletion
  4. Wireless network change
  5. Authentication timeout
  6. Access point radio reset
673
Q

Captive portals ?

A

Captive portals usually rely on 802.1x, and 802.1x uses RADIUS for authentication. The IEEE 802.1x standard is a network authentication protocol that opens ports for network access when an organization authenticates a user’s identity and authorizes them for access to the network. This defines port security. The user’s identity is determined based on their credentials or certificate, which is confirmed by the RADIUS server.

674
Q

explain what the physical layer is in our networks

A

where transmission of bits across the network occurs

data is transferred in bytes at this layer series of 1s and 0s

675
Q

explain network availability

A

measure of how well a computer network can respond to connectivity and performance demands that are placed on it

676
Q

what does availability mean in our networks ?

A

being up and operational

677
Q

what does reliability mean in our networks ?

A

not dropping packets

678
Q

what is Mean time to repair MTTR ?

A

measures average time it takes to repair a network device when it breaks

679
Q

Mean time between failures MTBF?

A

measures average time between when failures occur on a device

680
Q

How can redundancy be achieved ?

A

redundancy is achieved using a single device or multiple devices

681
Q

explain network interface card teaming

A

using a group of network interface cards for load balancing and failover on a server or other device

682
Q

Hot standby router protocol HSRP?

A

Cisco’s proprietary first hop redundancy protocol which allows for an active and a standby router to be used together

683
Q

Virtual router redundancy protocol VRRP?

A

IETF’s open standard variant of HSRP which allows for an active router and multiple standby routers

684
Q

Gateway load balancing protocol GLBP?

A

Cisco’s proprietary first-hop redundancy which focuses on load balancing over redundancy

Cisco protocol

685
Q

Link Aggregation control Protocol LACP

A

achieves redundancy by having multiple links between the network devices where load balancers over multiple links can occur

686
Q

what do we need to keep in mind when designing redundant networks ?

A

Examine technical and operational goals

What is the function of this network

What are you trying to accomplish with this network

Identify the budget to fund high availability features

This can get really expensive

Categorize business applications into profiles

Establish performance standards for high availability solutions

Define how to manage and measure the high availability solutions

687
Q

what are the 4 options when we talk about recovery sites ?

A

Cold site

Warm site

Hot site

Cloud site

688
Q

Cold site

A

an available building that does not have any hardware or software in place or configure

Recovery with a cold site is going to be slow and time consuming

689
Q

Warm site

A

an available building that already contains a lot of the equipment

Recovery is going to be fairly quick

690
Q

Hot site

A

an available building that already has the equipment and data in place and configured

Very minimal downtime but this is very expensive

691
Q

Cloud site

A

allows for the creation of a recovery version of an organizations enterprise network in the cloud

692
Q

Recovery time objective ?

A

duration of time and service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster to avoid unacceptable consequences

693
Q

Explain a full backup ?

A

complete backup of every single file on a machine

694
Q

incremental backup ?

A

only backs up data that changed since the last backup

695
Q

Differential backup

A

only backs up the data since the last full backup

696
Q

Uninterruptible Power Supply UPS?

A

provides emergency power to a load when the input power source or main power fails

697
Q

Power Distribution Unit PDU

A

Distributes electric power to racks of computers and network equipment located within a data center

698
Q

what are the three main types of WAN connections in a business ?

A
  1. dedicated lease lines
  2. circuit switched
  3. packet switched connections
699
Q

WAN: dedicated lease line ?

A

logical connection that connects two sites through a service providers facility or a telephone

700
Q

how would you describe a dedicated leased line?

A

a dedicated lease line is a single pipe going from your service providers office to your business office

701
Q

WAN: circuit switched connection ?

A

connection is brought up only when needed similiar to making a phone call.

essentially this is full access when you need it but when you dont need it its not there

702
Q

WAN: packet switched connection ?

A

works like an always-on dedicated lease line but multiple customers share the same bandwidth

703
Q

what are the options for wireless wan connections ?

A
  1. cellular
  2. microwave
  3. satelite
  4. high-frequency radio
704
Q

what are the three technoogies we may find when dealing with 3G

A
  1. WCDMA
  2. HSPA
  3. HSPA +
705
Q

WAN: wideband code division multiple access or WCDMA?

A

used by the UTMS standard and could reach data speeds of up to 2 MBPS

706
Q

WAN: high speed packet access HSPA?

A

reaches speeds of up to 14.4 mbps and is sometimes referred to as 3.5 G

707
Q

WAN: High speed packet access evolution HSPA+?

A

reaches speeds of up to 50 MBPS and is sometimes reffered to as 3.75 G

708
Q

what are the three differentbands 5G comes with ?

A

low-band, mid-band, high-band as you go up in the bands you get higher speeds but less coverage

709
Q

GSM global system for mobile communication ?

A

a cellular tech that takes the voice during a call then converts it to digital data

710
Q

Code division multiple access ?

A

a cellular technology that uses code division to split up a channel

711
Q

microwave connection?

A

uses a beam of radio waves in the microwave requency range to transmit info between two fixxed locations

712
Q

statelite connection ?

A

a method osusing communication satelites located in space to connect a user to the internet

713
Q

Channel service unit data service unit or CSU/DSU?

A

terminates the digital signals at the customers location

714
Q

EXAM: what are T1s and D1s ?

A

these are dedicated leased lines

715
Q

what is the speed of a T1 connection ?

A

T1 has a speed of 1.544 mbps

716
Q

what is the speed of a T3 connection ?

A

T3 has a speed of 44.7 MBPS

717
Q

what is the speed of an E1 connection ?

A

E1 has a speed of 2.0 mbps

718
Q

what is metro ethernet?

A

less expensive and more common than specialized serial ports used in a CSU/DSU environment

service provider gives you an ethernet jack that you can plug into your router

An increasingly popular leased line is one called Metro Ethernet. This is ethernet that you would connect in a regional area or a city area and be able to simply have ethernet at both ends of the connection. We would normally use a T1, or E1, or some other type of WAN. So this is not something that you commonly see, but you can obviously see the advantages. All of your equipment already has ethernet on it, so why not simply plug-in and not use any additional equipment just to connect sites together.

719
Q

point-to-poit PPP connection ?

A

commonly used layer 2 protocol on dedicated lease lines to transmit multiple layer 3 protocols such as IP and IPX

720
Q

what cann PPP connections use for authentication ?

A

PAP
CHAP

721
Q

PAP or passsword authentication protocol ?

A

performs one-way authentication between a client and a server

722
Q

How does the Challenge-handshake authentication protocol or CHAP perform authentication?

A

performs one way auth using a three-way handshake

723
Q

how secure are PAP credentials ?

A

they are not secure at all because they are sent in the clear

724
Q

how secure are credentials when using the CHAP authentication methods ?

A

chap uses hashed credentials which are way more secure then PAP

725
Q

Point-to-point over ethernet or PPPOE?

A

a network protocol for encapsulation point-to-point protocol frames inside ethernet frames

726
Q

explain cable modems ?

A

uses a cable television infastructure that is made up of hybrid fiber-coax distribution network

727
Q

what are HFC and doxis associated with ?

A

cable modems

728
Q

how do cable modems transmit and recieve data ?

A

cable modems transmit and recieve over cable television infastructure

729
Q

Where are satelite modems used and what are the potential drawbacks ?

A

used in remote, rural, or disconnected locations where other connections are not available

weather can weaken signals

satelite usually has higher latency because of the distance it has to travel

730
Q

Plain old telephone service or POTS?

A

runs on public switchedtelephone network PTSN which consists of all telephone carriers from around the world

731
Q

Integrated Services Digital Network ISDN?

A

an older technology designed to carry voice, video, or data over B bearer channels / puts and bind channels together

732
Q

Frame relay?

A

creates virtual circuits to connect remote LANs to WANs

Wan technology

was a departure from circuit switched T1s

with frame relay lan traffic is encapsulated into frame relay frames

Frame relay was replaced with MPLS

MPLS is the defualt for WAN’s nowadays

733
Q

SONET

A

layer 1 tech that uses fiber as its media and has high data rates which range from 155 mbps to 10 gbps or more

multiplex digital signals over optical cable

734
Q

what does ATM deal with ?

A

ATM deals with Fiber and SONET networks

735
Q

Multiprotocol label switching MPLS?

A

allows traffic to be dynamically routed based on load conditions and path availability / this is primarily used by service providers on there backbone networks

736
Q

Dynamic multiport virtual private network DMVPN?

A

allows internet to be used as WAN connection for secure site-to-site communication

  • allows remote sites to build the VPN between each other and tear it down
  • cisco protocol
737
Q

Software-defined wide area network SD-WAN ?

A

allows for leveraging any combo of transport services to securely connect users to their applications / essentially a software based WAN architecture

738
Q

Multipoint generic routing encapsulation MGRE?

A

Enables one node to communicate with many other nodes essentially creating a point-to-multipoint link

MGRE is often used in DMVPN

739
Q

what can you use MGRE for ?

A

You can use MGRE at your main office to connect branch offices back to it

740
Q

what is MGRE usually combined with ?

A

MGRE is usually going to be combined with DMVPN

MGRE is used to create tunnels from one node to multiple nodes

741
Q

what is bandwidth ?

A

theoretical speed of data going across the network

742
Q

throughput ?

A

actual speed of data on the network

743
Q

Received Signal Strength Indication RSSI ?

A

estimated measure of the power level that a radio frequency client device is receiving from a wireless access point or wireless router (otherwise known as signal strength)

744
Q

Effective Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power EIRP?

A

maximum power radiated from an ideal isotropic antenna, given its antenna gain, and the transmitter power of the radio frequency system

745
Q

what is an omnidirectional antenna considered ?

A

An omnidirectional antenna is considered Isotropix

746
Q

what are most wireless AP’s going to use?

A

Most wireless access points are going to use omni directional antennas

747
Q

Vertical antenna?

A

radio frequency waves extend outward in all directions away from the antenna and the wireless access point to an equal power level

748
Q

Dipole antenna?

A

produces radio frequency waves extending outward in two directions

749
Q

Yagi antenna?

A

a unidirectional antenna that sends the radio frequency waves in only one direction
(commonly used for site to site connections)

750
Q

Parabolic grid antenna?

A

allows the radio waves to be transmitted in only one direction over a longer distance than a yagi antenna (commonly used for site to site connections)

751
Q

what antennas are we most likely to use inside ?

A

For indoor use you are more likely to use omnidirectional and unidirectional antennas

752
Q

Polarization?

A

the orientation of the electric field or transmission from the Antenna

753
Q

do most wifi networks use vertical or horiziontal ?

A

Most Wi-Fi networks use vertical polarization

754
Q

Channel Utilization?

A

a statistic or measure of the amount of airtime utilization that occurs for a particular frequency or channel

755
Q

what should our channel utilization be at to have a fast wireless network ?

A

In order to have a fast wireless network you want to keep your channel utilization under 30% to have a faster wireless network

756
Q

Access points and clients form a single broadcast domain when they operate on the same channel

A

expand on this

757
Q

Clear Channel Assessment CCA?

A

listens to see if another device is actively transmitting on the channel before attempting to send frames on the channel

758
Q

Site survey?

A

process of planning and designing a wireless network to provide the required wireless solution

759
Q

When a wireless client attempts to connect to a wireless network it goes through a 7 step process

A
  1. Wireless client sends a probe request to discover any 802.11 wireless networks in proximity to itself (broadcast message)
    1. Receiving access point checks to see if it can support the data rate the client requested
    2. Wireless client sends a low-level 802.11 authentication frame to the access point to begin authentication
    3. Access point receives the authentication frame and responds with an acknowledgment to continue the handshake
    4. Wireless client chooses the access point it wants to associate with and sends an association request
    5. Access point processes the association request if the information sent matches its capabilities
      Client is fully connected and associated and can now conduct any data transfer it needs and use the wireless network
760
Q

When a wireless client is connecting to the AP and the network it has to do the following ?

A

Scan airwaves
Find access points
Request association
Authenticate
Contact the DHCP server

761
Q

Coverage?

A

a measure of how much area around a wireless transmitter there is sufficient signal strength for wireless devices to utilize

762
Q

how do we determine coverage with wireless networks ?

A

by conducting a wireless site survey

763
Q

how do we increase coverage to a wireless area ?

A

Signal booster
Larger antenna
Wireless repeater
Second access point

764
Q

Interference?

A

occurs when multiple wireless networks communicate on the same channel using the same frequency

765
Q

Attenuation?

A

reduction of signal strength between the transmission and receipt of the signal

766
Q

Multipath reception?

A

occurs when the transmitted signal bounces off walls and other physical objects and then is redirected to the receiver

767
Q

There are lots of reasons a client can be disassociated from an access point these include

A

Idle timeout
Session timeout
Manual deletion
Wireless network change
Authentication timeout
Access point radio reset

768
Q

Service set Identifier SSID?

A

a natural language name used to identify a wireless network in an 802.11 network

769
Q

Captive portals?

A

a web page displayed to newly-connected WI-FI users before being granted broader access to network resources

770
Q

Captive portal: HTTP redirect?

A

redirects all traffic to a web server which then redirects them to a captive portal using a 302 HTTP status code

771
Q

Captive portal: Icmp redirect?

A

sends error messages and operational information indicating the success or failure of communicating with another IP address

772
Q

Captive portal: DNS redirect?

A

the client is redirected by the onboard DNS server to the captive portal webpage

773
Q

Captive portals and radius ?

A

Captive portals usually rely on 802.1x, and 802.1x uses RADIUS for authentication. The IEEE 802.1x standard is a network authentication protocol that opens ports for network access when an organization authenticates a user’s identity and authorizes them for access to the network. This defines port security. The user’s identity is determined based on their credentials or certificate, which is confirmed by the RADIUS server.

774
Q

what is Network availability?

A

measure of how well a computer network can respond to connectivity and performance demands that are placed upon it

775
Q

Availability?

A

being up and operational

776
Q

Reliability?

A

not dropping packets

777
Q

Mean time to repair MTTR?

A

measures average time it takes to repair a network device when it breaks / want this to be a very small number

778
Q

Mean Time Between Failures MTBF?

A

measures average time between when failures occur on a device / want this to be a very large number

779
Q

how is redundancy achieved ?

A

Redundancy is achieved using a single device or multiple devices

780
Q

Network interface card teaming ?

A

using a group of network interface cards for load balancing and failover on a server or other device

781
Q

Layer 3 redundancy?

A

used if the default gateway goes down and clients couldn’t leave the subnet

782
Q

Hot standby router protocol HSRP?

A

cisco’s proprietary first-hop redundancy protocol which allows for an active and a standby router to be used together

783
Q

Virtual Router Redundancy protocol VRRP?

A

IETF’s open standard variant of HSRP which allows for an active router and multiple standby routers

784
Q

Gateway load balancing protocol GLBP?

A

Cisco’s proprietary first-hop redundancy which focuses on load balancing over redundancy

785
Q

Link Aggregation control Protocol LACP?

A

allows the user to combine numerous physical Ethernet links into one logical link, which helps create load balancing in the interfaces.

786
Q

When looking at designing redundant networks keep in mind the following ?

A
  1. Examine technical and operational goals
    a. What is the function of this network
    b. What are you trying to accomplish with this network
  2. Identify the budget to fund high availability features
    a. This can get really expensive
  3. Categorize business applications into profiles
  4. Establish performance standards for high availability solutions
    Define how to manage and measure the high availability solutions
787
Q

There are really 4 options when we talk about recovery sites

A

Cold site
Warm site
Hot site
Cloud site

788
Q

Cold site?

A

an available building that does not have any hardware or software in place or configure
Recovery with a cold site is going to be slow and time consuming

789
Q

Warm site?

A

an available building that already contains a lot of the equipment
Recovery is going to be fairly quick

790
Q

Hot site?

A

an available building that already has the equipment and data in place and configured
Very minimal downtime but this is very expensive

791
Q

Cloud site?

A

allows for the creation of a recovery version of an organizations enterprise network in the cloud

792
Q

Recovery time objective or RTO ?

A

duration of time and service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster to avoid unacceptable consequences

793
Q

what question does RTO answer for us ?

A

RTO answers the question of how much time did it take to recover after the notification of a business process disruption

794
Q

what should we use for low RTO situations ?

A

Use either a hot site or a cloud site for low RTO situations

795
Q

Recovery point Objective RPO?

A

interval of time during a disruption before data lost exceeds the Business Continuity plan maximum allowable threshold or tolerance

796
Q

Different backups ?

A

Full backup – complete backup of every single file on a machine

Incremental backup – only backs up data that changed since the last backup

Differential backup – only backs up the data since the last full backup

Snapshot – read only copy of your data from a point in time

797
Q

Uninterruptible Power Supply UPS?

A

provides emergency power to a load when the input power source or main power fails

798
Q

Power Distribution Unit PDU?

A

Distributes electric power especially to racks of computers and network equipment located within a data center

799
Q

How do we provide power to our servers during a blackout ?

A

Generally a PDU is combined with a UPS or generator to provide power during a blackout

800
Q

Wet pipe system?

A

using a sprinkler system and pipes that always contain water – a leak in the pipe could be very dangerous we should not use this

801
Q

Quality of service QOS

A

enables strategic optimization of network performance based on different types of traffic

802
Q

There are different categories of QOS what are the three big ones we need to be aware of?

A

Delay

Jitter

Drops

803
Q

QOS: Delay?

A

the time a packet travels from the source to the destination – measured in miliseconds – this is a big deal with voice or streaming video

804
Q

QOS:` Jitter ?

A

uneven arrival of packets which is especially harmful in VOIP traffic

805
Q

QOS: Drops?

A

occurs during link congestion when a routers interface queue overflows and cause packet loss

806
Q

Effective bandwidth?

A

is going to be the lowest bandwidth of the device in the network stream

807
Q

what is the purpose of QOS?

A

to categorize traffic, apply a policy, and prioritize traffic in accordance with a Qos Policy

a family of evolving Internet standards that provides ways to give preferential treatment to certain types of IP traffic

808
Q

QOS: what are the three different mechanisms you can use when categorizing your traffic ?

A

best effort

No QOS traffic is first in and first out

Integrated services Hard QOS

Traffic has strict bandwidth reservations

Differentiated services Soft QOS

Has differentiation of data types where routers and switches can make decisions based on markings and fluctuate traffic

809
Q

how do we classify traffic with QOS ?

A

Classification

Traffic is placed into different categories

Marking

Alters bits within a frame, cell, or packet which indicates handling of traffic

Congestion Management

Determines the order in which packets are sent out an interface based on priorities assigned to those packets

Congestion avoidance

Newly avoided packets would be discarded if the devices output queue fills to capacity

Policing and shaping

Policing – typically discards packets exceeding the configured rate limit

Shaping - Allows buffer to delay traffic from exceeding the configured rate

Link efficiency

Packet payload is compressed to conserve bandwidth

VOIP payload can be reduced by 50%

810
Q

are there collosions with full duplex mode ?

A

no collosions cannot happen in full duplex mode

811
Q

loopback plug ?

A

useful for testing physical ports

sends traffic out one port and right back into the port

812
Q

how does a network device determine if a specific packet is the start of a new traffic flow ?

A

tcp flags

813
Q

SD-WAN?

A

software defined networking in a wide area network

a WAN built for the cloud

814
Q

LAG and mirrioring ?

A

port bonding / link aggregation

multiple interfaces acts like one big interface

815
Q

LACP ?

A

link aggregaton control protocol

you can combine 4 10 GB ports to equal 40GB ports

816
Q

what is the network layer sometimes referred to as ?

A

the routing layer!

IP addresses operate at the network layer

817
Q

what is the maximum supported distance of a 1000 base-T copper cable

A

100 meters

818
Q

what are the three main types of copper media ?

A

coaxial
twisted pair
serial

819
Q

what is an RG-6 cable typicaly used for ?

A

RG-6 is commonly used by ISP’s to connect internet to your home

820
Q

what are the two main connector used when it comes to coaxial cables ?

A

F-type
BNC

821
Q

what is an f-type connector ?

A

commonly used in cable tv
this is a skrew in type of connection

822
Q

what is a BNC connector

A

this is a push in connector used with coaxial cable

823
Q

what are twinaxial cable used for ?

A

twinaxial cables are used for very short range high speed connections between devices

824
Q

what is the most commonly used LAN cable ?

A

twisted pair

you use these at work all the time its on every desk at flagship

825
Q

what is the best range for UTP and STP to operate ?

A

0-100 meters

826
Q

what are the two connector types used with twisted pair cabeling ?

A

RJ45
RJ11

827
Q

what are RJ45 connectors typically used for ?

A

commonly used for data transfer

828
Q

what is the standard for trunking ?

A

802.1q

829
Q

Compare and contrast ethernet standards and there maximum supported distance.

A

1000base-T 100 meters
10Gbase-T 100 meters
40G base-t - 30 meters

830
Q

what protocols are used for incoming mail communication ?

A

IMAP and POP3 are used for incoming mail communication

831
Q

what is required to get data from one side of the network to the other ?

A
  1. Server IP address
  2. protocol = TCP/UDP
  3. Server application port number
  4. client IP address
  5. protocol
  6. client port number
832
Q

Unicast ?

A

one station sending information to another station

web surfing and file transfers are unicast traffic

833
Q

PDU protocol data unit?

A

a protocol data unit is a unit of transmission

the PDU’s are different groups of Data at different OSI layers

Ethernet operates on a frame of data

the TCP PDU is a segment
the UDP PDU is a datagram

834
Q

RSTP rapid spanning tree protocol

A

802.1W

RSTP has a faster convergence this took the convergence time from 30 to 50 seconds to 6

you can use both STP and RSTP in a network and they can coexist

835
Q

What are the common Interior Gateway protocols ?

A

OSPF
RIP
EIGRP

836
Q

what version of OSPF would we use for IPV6

A

OSPF v3

837
Q

how long is an IPV6 address in bytes ?

A

128 bits long

838
Q

what are the private IP address ranges ?

A

10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255

839
Q

where are jumbo frames commonly used ?

A

in a SAN network environment

840
Q

What are ACL’s used for in our networks ?

A

ACL’s are used to deny or allow traffic

841
Q

what protocl is EAP a part of ?

A

802.1x