Netjets Captain Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

On a dry runway, your LDA (turbo jet aircraft) should be equal to

A

LD x 1.67

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2
Q

on SID’s higher gradient are sometimes published with the altitude up to which they must be realised. Above that altitude

A

min gradient of 3.3% is applicable to to an altitude of 820 above the highest obstacle

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3
Q

if landing on wet runway and the anti skid light illuminates, one should

A

disengage the system, use max reverse thrust and deploy the drag devices and apply gentle braking

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4
Q

flashing red lights to an aircraft on ground means

A

taxi clear of landing area in use

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5
Q

a flashing green light to an aircraft in flight means

A

return for landing

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6
Q

at ISA -34 your pressure altitude

A

over reads

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7
Q

long range cruise

A

is faster than max range

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8
Q

a reduced climb max thrust uses

A

more trip fuel

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9
Q

given airfield elevation of 1500ft, altimeter 1000 millibars, calculate pressure altitude

A

1890

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10
Q

flight carries in lower than optimum altitude equals

A

less time, more fuel

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11
Q

timing in hold above 14000 is

A

1m 30 seconds

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12
Q

lightning is most likely to occur at temp of?

A

+5 to -5 OAT

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13
Q

with engine failure at v1, it is possible to

A

continue to 35ft without exceeding the takeoff field length and stop without exceeding the take off field length

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14
Q

the corrective action for dutch roll is?

A

use firm but gently aileron

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15
Q

for the least trip fuel , climb at

A

best rate of climb

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16
Q

when does net takeoff flight path end and enroute performance begin

A

1500ft

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17
Q

first segment is

A

is from 35 ft point to the point where the gear is retracted

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18
Q

second segment is

A

from the end of the 1st segment to gross height of at least 400 feet at constant v2

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19
Q

final segment is

A

extends from the level off height to a q net height of 1500 or more with the flaps up and max continuous thrust

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20
Q

how does weight affect descent point?

A

you must descend earlier with heavier plane

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21
Q

there are 2 runways, on is 8000 ft and the other is 10000 ft long, with respect to second segment climb, which runway will allow for a greater 2nd segment perfomance

A

10000ft runway

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22
Q

on a 3 degree glide path, oat -25oc. OM crossing height of 1760ft, the aircraft will indicate

A

1820ft

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23
Q

in a swept wing, compared to a straight wing, the same amount of lift requires

A

a greater angle of incidence

24
Q

on a swept wing, the aircraft stress limit with flaps down compared to flaps up is

25
what is local qnh
regional alti setting
26
qne is defined as
standard alti setting 2992 or 1013.2 mb
27
a super stall is caused by?
nose up pitching moment compounded by wing wake which blanks out the high set elevator
28
what is the best means for stopping on a runway?
brakes
29
initially on a wet runway what is the most effective means for slowing down?
reverse thrusters and spoilers
30
normal climb speed schedules are
compromise between enroute speeds and best rate speed
31
as weight decreases, the indicated mach number for long range cruise will
decrease
32
as altitude increases the differences between IAS and TAS
Increase
33
approach gradient requirements take into consideration
engine failure performance
34
if braking efficiency is proportional to the temp of the brakes, which is correct
braking can be degraded in large aircraft after long taxis
35
v2 is defined as
1.2 Vs or 1.1 VMCA
36
in bad weather, landing limits are a combination of
DA and RVR
37
when landing on a wet runway , you should apply a 115% correction factor
always
38
In a metar the sequence R28 11V16 decodes as
runway 28 RVR 1100 to 1600 meters
39
if you have a tcas 2 RA would demand a
climb/descend
40
final reserve is
fuel quantity which equals 15 mins flight at holding speed at 1500 ft and at actual weight
41
which about the moca is right
the width of the moca corridor 10 nm
42
what initial action should be carried out in case of bomb scare
inform atc and put bomb in most safe position
43
an engine failure during flight with consequential damage in the surrounding structure, according to the OM part a is
an accident
44
standard takeoff minima for a runway with REDL, but without runway centrelights is
250 m VIS/RVR
45
forecast should be prepared within? before time of departure
3 hours
46
an aircraft being overtaken, who has right of way?
plane being overtaken
47
what is the normal radius of an MSA and obstacle clearance
25nm and 1000 ft
48
what is the min auth rvr for a visual approach
800m
49
lvp's must be in place when rvr is less than ?
400 m
50
takeoff alternate should be
one hour flight single engine with still air and ISA conditions
51
sids are calculated for
all engines running
52
climb gradient means
gradient = still air
53
on a sid you have to be at 4000 ft at 4dme after the der, what would be your target speed
the best angle speed
54
the gross climb gradient (2 engines) aeroplane for the second and fourth segments respectively are equal to
2.4 and 1.2
55
a takeoff with more than normal takeoff flaps will result in
longer takeoff distance
56
does the weight of a aircraft inflence vmca
vmca is inversely proportional to the aircraft mass