Netjets Captain Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

On a dry runway, your LDA (turbo jet aircraft) should be equal to

A

LD x 1.67

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2
Q

on SID’s higher gradient are sometimes published with the altitude up to which they must be realised. Above that altitude

A

min gradient of 3.3% is applicable to to an altitude of 820 above the highest obstacle

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3
Q

if landing on wet runway and the anti skid light illuminates, one should

A

disengage the system, use max reverse thrust and deploy the drag devices and apply gentle braking

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4
Q

flashing red lights to an aircraft on ground means

A

taxi clear of landing area in use

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5
Q

a flashing green light to an aircraft in flight means

A

return for landing

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6
Q

at ISA -34 your pressure altitude

A

over reads

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7
Q

long range cruise

A

is faster than max range

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8
Q

a reduced climb max thrust uses

A

more trip fuel

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9
Q

given airfield elevation of 1500ft, altimeter 1000 millibars, calculate pressure altitude

A

1890

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10
Q

flight carries in lower than optimum altitude equals

A

less time, more fuel

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11
Q

timing in hold above 14000 is

A

1m 30 seconds

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12
Q

lightning is most likely to occur at temp of?

A

+5 to -5 OAT

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13
Q

with engine failure at v1, it is possible to

A

continue to 35ft without exceeding the takeoff field length and stop without exceeding the take off field length

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14
Q

the corrective action for dutch roll is?

A

use firm but gently aileron

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15
Q

for the least trip fuel , climb at

A

best rate of climb

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16
Q

when does net takeoff flight path end and enroute performance begin

A

1500ft

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17
Q

first segment is

A

is from 35 ft point to the point where the gear is retracted

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18
Q

second segment is

A

from the end of the 1st segment to gross height of at least 400 feet at constant v2

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19
Q

final segment is

A

extends from the level off height to a q net height of 1500 or more with the flaps up and max continuous thrust

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20
Q

how does weight affect descent point?

A

you must descend earlier with heavier plane

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21
Q

there are 2 runways, on is 8000 ft and the other is 10000 ft long, with respect to second segment climb, which runway will allow for a greater 2nd segment perfomance

A

10000ft runway

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22
Q

on a 3 degree glide path, oat -25oc. OM crossing height of 1760ft, the aircraft will indicate

A

1820ft

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23
Q

in a swept wing, compared to a straight wing, the same amount of lift requires

A

a greater angle of incidence

24
Q

on a swept wing, the aircraft stress limit with flaps down compared to flaps up is

A

lower

25
Q

what is local qnh

A

regional alti setting

26
Q

qne is defined as

A

standard alti setting 2992 or 1013.2 mb

27
Q

a super stall is caused by?

A

nose up pitching moment compounded by wing wake which blanks out the high set elevator

28
Q

what is the best means for stopping on a runway?

A

brakes

29
Q

initially on a wet runway what is the most effective means for slowing down?

A

reverse thrusters and spoilers

30
Q

normal climb speed schedules are

A

compromise between enroute speeds and best rate speed

31
Q

as weight decreases, the indicated mach number for long range cruise will

A

decrease

32
Q

as altitude increases the differences between IAS and TAS

A

Increase

33
Q

approach gradient requirements take into consideration

A

engine failure performance

34
Q

if braking efficiency is proportional to the temp of the brakes, which is correct

A

braking can be degraded in large aircraft after long taxis

35
Q

v2 is defined as

A

1.2 Vs or 1.1 VMCA

36
Q

in bad weather, landing limits are a combination of

A

DA and RVR

37
Q

when landing on a wet runway , you should apply a 115% correction factor

A

always

38
Q

In a metar the sequence R28 11V16 decodes as

A

runway 28 RVR 1100 to 1600 meters

39
Q

if you have a tcas 2 RA would demand a

A

climb/descend

40
Q

final reserve is

A

fuel quantity which equals 15 mins flight at holding speed at 1500 ft and at actual weight

41
Q

which about the moca is right

A

the width of the moca corridor 10 nm

42
Q

what initial action should be carried out in case of bomb scare

A

inform atc and put bomb in most safe position

43
Q

an engine failure during flight with consequential damage in the surrounding structure, according to the OM part a is

A

an accident

44
Q

standard takeoff minima for a runway with REDL, but without runway centrelights is

A

250 m VIS/RVR

45
Q

forecast should be prepared within? before time of departure

A

3 hours

46
Q

an aircraft being overtaken, who has right of way?

A

plane being overtaken

47
Q

what is the normal radius of an MSA and obstacle clearance

A

25nm and 1000 ft

48
Q

what is the min auth rvr for a visual approach

A

800m

49
Q

lvp’s must be in place when rvr is less than ?

A

400 m

50
Q

takeoff alternate should be

A

one hour flight single engine with still air and ISA conditions

51
Q

sids are calculated for

A

all engines running

52
Q

climb gradient means

A

gradient = still air

53
Q

on a sid you have to be at 4000 ft at 4dme after the der, what would be your target speed

A

the best angle speed

54
Q

the gross climb gradient (2 engines) aeroplane for the second and fourth segments respectively are equal to

A

2.4 and 1.2

55
Q

a takeoff with more than normal takeoff flaps will result in

A

longer takeoff distance

56
Q

does the weight of a aircraft inflence vmca

A

vmca is inversely proportional to the aircraft mass