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Net+ Exam > NET+ Questions > Flashcards

NET+ Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which Server Application uses two well known port numbers during a typical transaction?

A

FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

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2
Q

Which protocol shuts down redundant links until they are needed to prevent network switching loops?

A

STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

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3
Q

What is the max distance and transmit speed for 802.11n?

A

175 feet & 600Mbps

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4
Q

What is the max distance and transmit speed for 802.11ac?

A

115 feet & 3.5 gbps

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5
Q

What is the max distance and transmit speed for 802.11g?

A

150feet & 54Mbps

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6
Q

What is the max distance and transmit speed for 802.11a?

A

75feet & 54Mbps

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7
Q

What Byte Header does UDP use?

A

8byte header

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8
Q

Name two network topologies used by WLans

A

Infrastructure & Ad hoc

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9
Q

Which layer of OSI does the IP (Internet Protocol) operate? Is it connected or connectionless?

A

Network; connectionless

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10
Q

what traffice shaping techniques can be used to prevent networks from being overwhelmed by data transmissions?

A

Rate Limiting and Bandwidth Throttling

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11
Q

What device ONLY operates at the OSI’s physical layer?

A

Hub

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12
Q

Which two well known ports are the default values used to configure a POP3 email Client?

A

110 & 25

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13
Q

Switches and bridges perform their basic functions at which layer of the OSI model?

A

Data Link

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14
Q

What are the first Byte values or a Class D network?

A

224-239

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15
Q

What is a Class D network reserved for?

A

multicast addresses

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16
Q

What is the range of well known port numbers used by TCP and UDP?

A

1 through 1023

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17
Q

What feature allows a IDS (Intrusion detection system) to monitor all traffic on a SWITCHED network?

A

Port Mirroring

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18
Q

What 4 message types are exchanged by a DHCP client and server during a successful IP address allocation transaction?

A

DHCP Discover
DHCP Offer
DHCP Request
then is met with
DHCP ACK(Acknowledge)

(Renew,release, and inform are not used during address allocation and are only used for unsuccessful transactions)

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19
Q

The TCP/IP protocols that can provide either a connectionless or connection oriented services to applications operate at which layer of the OSI?

A

Transport Layer

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20
Q

What is the network that connects a client device to an access point on a wireless LAN?

A

BSS (Basic Service Set)

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21
Q

What is a Basic Service Set (BSS)?

A

A BSS is a set of stations (Client devices and access points)

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22
Q

What is a AP (Access Point)?

A

An access point is the center point of a BSS and serves as a bridge between wireless clients and a wired network.

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23
Q

What is a BSSID?

A

a unique identifier for each BSS.

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24
Q

What is ESS(Extended Service Set)?

A

One or more interconnected BSS which allows wireless clients to roam between BSSs

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25
Q

What is SSID(service set identifier) and what is its use?

A

it is the name of the wireless LAN which is used to identify and differentiate it from other wireless LANs in the area.

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26
Q

When using both an internal and external DNS server, which two devices should only be registered with the external DNS?

A

Internet Web Servers and Incoming Email Servers
OR
Records that only contain resources that must be accessed via the internet such as web servers or public email servers

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27
Q

What 4 technologies are used for a PAN (personal area network)?

A

Bluetooth, Z-wave, RFID, NFC

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28
Q

What is the function of a TCP or UDP port number?

A

The port Number is used by both the sender and receiver to identify the application that generated the information in the datagram

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29
Q

What protocols use the term “DATAGRAM” to describe the data transfer unit it creates?

A

UDP & IP

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30
Q

What protocol uses the term ‘Frame and Segment’?

A

TCP (ethernet and Transmission control protocol)

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31
Q

Which layer in the OSI is responsible for signals that transmit over the network medium?

A

Physical - responsible for transmission and reception of signals over the network medium

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32
Q

The protocol that adds a ‘Header and Footer’ to the information passed down from an upper layer then creates a frame operates at which layer of the OSI model?

A

Data Link Layer

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33
Q

What terms refer to an area of an ENTERPRISE network that is seperated by firewalls and contains servers that must be accessible both from the internet and from the internal network?

A

Perimeter Network and DMZ

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34
Q

The Star Topology is NOT used by which ethernet physical layer option?

A

10Base2

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35
Q

What is 10Base2

A

Coaxial Cable in a BUS topology

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36
Q

What do 10baseT, 10basetx and 1000baseT have in common? what topology are they used for?

A

They all use a Twisted Pair cable and are used in a star Topology

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37
Q

Which protocols operate at the application layer of the OSI?

A

SNMP and HTTP

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38
Q

What does SNMP stand for and what layer of OSI does it operate?

A

Simple Network Management protocol
Network Layer

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39
Q

What does HTTP Stand for?

A

Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

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40
Q

The maximum channel width using wireless networking equipment based on iEEE 802.11 standard is _________?

A

160 MHz

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41
Q

Which component is identified by the port number in a transport layer protocol header?

A

An application

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42
Q

What layers of the OSI model have dedicated hardware devices associated with them?

A

Physical, Network, and Data Link

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43
Q

Which DNS resource recored resolves a hostname into an IPV6 address?

A

AAAA

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44
Q

Why would a relay agent be needed to enable a DHCP server to assign IP addresses to clients on another Network?

A

DHCP address assignment process relies on broadcast transmissions and because clients cannot initiate an address assignment by contacting a DHCP server on another network directly

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45
Q

What is a default gateway?

A

the TCP/IP parameter that is configured on an end system and specifies the internet protocol (IP) address of a local router providing access to other networks

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46
Q

iEEE 802.11g only uses what frequency band?

A

2.4GHz band

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47
Q

iEEE 802.11b only uses what frequency band?

A

2.4GHz band

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48
Q

iEEE 802.11n can use what frequency band?

A

both 2.4 and 5.0 GHz band

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49
Q

iEEE 802.11a only uses what frequency band?

A

5.0GHz band

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50
Q

iEEE 802.11ac only uses what frequency band?

A

5.0GHz band

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51
Q

Which protocol exchanges directory service information?

A

LDAP (Lightwieght Directory Access Protocol)

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52
Q

Which protocol operates at the network layer of the OSI but does not encapsulate data that an upper layer protocol generates for transmission over the network?

A

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

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53
Q

What is ICMP(Internet Control Message Protocol)?

A

A network layer protocol used by network devices to diagnose network communication issues. It sends operational and error messages

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54
Q

What is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class A Network?

A

255.0.0.0. Class A only uses the first octet as the network identifier

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55
Q

What is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class B Network?

A

255.255.0.0.

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56
Q

What is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class C Network?

A

255.255.255.0.

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57
Q

Mac Address contain ___ Hexadecimals and only have alphanumerical values of ___ to ___

A

6 Byte
A-F

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58
Q

In the US, which cellular communication tech is virtually obsolete? What Frequency band did it use?

A

TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access
2G

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59
Q

What systems do major US cell carriers now use?

A

CDMA (Code Division Mutliple Access) and GSM (Global System for Mobile communication

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60
Q

The protocol that delivers data to its ultimate destination on an internetwork can be found can be found on which layer of the OSI?

A

Network Layer

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61
Q

What is the process by which dynamic routing protocols update other routers with routing table information?

A

Convergence

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62
Q

What is the process by which routers propagate information from their routing tables to other routers on the network using dynamic routing protocols called?

A

Convergence

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63
Q

What ports do DHCP servers use?

A

Port 67 and 68

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64
Q

What port does TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) use?

A

Port 69

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65
Q

Which Layer of OSI specifies logical addresses for end system communication and route datagrams across a network?

A

Network Layer

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66
Q

Which cloud service model allows you to select the operating system of your choice?

A

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)

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67
Q

At which layer of the OSI does network address translation (NAT) operate?

A

Network Layer

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68
Q

What is a CNAME?

A

Canonical Name- is a resource record that specifies an alternative host name for a system already registered in the DNS

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69
Q

Which DNS resource record implements email security mechanisms including Sender Policy Framework and Domain Key Identified Mail?

A

TXT

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70
Q

What is TXT and what is it used for?

A

A DNS resource record tool. A text string is stored in a TXT resource and can be used in a variety of applications.
A list of authorized email hosts is inserted into the TXT record by Sender Policy Framework (SPF) and a public key is inserted by Domain Key Identified Email

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71
Q

What is MX and what is it used for?

A

Mail Exchange record. A mail exchange record specifies the mail server that the domain should use

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72
Q

What is NOT used by SPF and DKIM

A

MX, PTR, CNAME

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73
Q

what is PTR?

A

Pointer Records. It contains both hostnames and ip addresses but theyre used for reverse name resolution, or resolving ip addresses into host names

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74
Q

What protocol is NOT used to allocate IP Address assignments to clients on a network?

A

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)

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75
Q

What protocols ARE used to allocate IP Address assignments to clients on a network?

A

RARP, BOOTP, DHCP

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76
Q

What is RARP?

A

Reverse Address Resolution Process

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77
Q

what does BOOTP stand for and what is it used for?

A

Bootstrap Protocol, used to allocate ip address assignments to clients on a network

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78
Q

What is the TCP exchange that establishes a connection before any data is transmitted?

A

Three-way Handshake

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79
Q

Which devices function as the cabling nexus which forms the figurative center of a star on an Ethernet network using the Star Topology?

A

Hub and Switch

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80
Q

What standard calls for the use of CSMA/CA mechanism?

A

iEEE 802.11

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81
Q

What standard calls for the use of CSMA/CD mechanism?

A

iEEE 802.3

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82
Q

Which protocol provides a connection oriented service with guaranteed delivery at the transport layer of the OSI?

A

TCP

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83
Q

Which topology requires termination resistors be installed at two locations?

A

BUS

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84
Q

Why does a BUS topology require two terminated resistors to be installed?

A

To eliminate signals as they reach the end of the coaxial cable. To prevent them from reflecting back in the other direction and stop them from interfering with newly transmitted signals

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85
Q

What is a routing protocol that does not rely on hop counts tp measure the efficiency of routes?

A

Link State Protocol

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86
Q

ALL UTP-based gigabyte ethernet networks use a ____ Topology

A

Star

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87
Q

ALL coaxial based ethernet networks (including Thin Ethernet) use a ___ Topology

A

BUS

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88
Q

From TOP to BOTTOM what is the correct order of the OSI Model?

A

1.Application
2.Presentation
3.Session
4.Transport
5.Network
6.Data Link
7.Physical

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89
Q

What enables two computers to communicate using an iEEE 802.11 LAN using and Ad hoc Topology?

A

They communicate directly with eachother via their Wireless network adpaters. No router, internet, access poitn, or special antenna are needed at all.

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90
Q

What iEEE wireless LAN standard uses DSSS (Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum) signal modulation technique?

A

802.11b

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91
Q

What is a circuit swtiched network connection?

A

Landline voice phone call

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92
Q

What organization assigns well-known port numbers used in Transport Layer protocol headers?

A

IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)

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93
Q

On an IEEE 802.11b/g/n wireless network running at 2.4Ghz with multiple access points, why is it a good plan to use channels 1,6, and 11 with no two adjacent access points configured to used the same channel?

A

Channels 1,6,&11 are the only three channels with frequencies that do not overlap

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94
Q

What TCP/IP protocol cannot support subnetting because it does not include the subnet mask within its route update messages?

A

RIPv1

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95
Q

What TCP/IP protocols support subnetting/ have a subnet mask within its route update message?

A

RIPv2, OSPF, and BGP

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96
Q

What does OSPF stand for?

A

Open shortest path first

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97
Q

What does BGP stand for?

A

Border Gateway Protocol

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98
Q

What is the native file sharing protocol used on all Microsoft windows operating systems?

A

Server Message Block (SMB)

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99
Q

Which topology provides the greatest number of redundant paths through the network?

A

Mesh

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100
Q

Which device physically connects computers in the same VLAN?

A

A Switch

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101
Q

In protocols operating at which layer of the OSI is flow control implemented?

A

Transport

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102
Q

An entrance point to the protocol stack for applications is provided in which layer of the OSI model?

A

Application

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103
Q

On a DHCP server, which element can you create to specify the appropriate IP addresses the server should assign to clients?

A

Scope

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104
Q

Are collisions on an Ethernet network normal?

A

YES

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105
Q

Which type of transmissions do DHCP clients rely on to locate and initiate contact with the DHCP server on the local network?

A

Broadcast

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106
Q

in the Fully qualified domain name (FQDN)
www.paris.mydomain.org, which words represent the topmost layer in the DNS namespace hierarchy?

A

org (The last dot abbreviation represents the topmost layer)

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107
Q

John has been hired to design the network of a company. The client wants the network to be configured with 10 sub-nets, each with 14 hosts. The company has an assigned class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Is this configuration possible? If so, how many sub-nets and hosts can john create on the network?

A

Yes, By using 4 sub-net bits Ed can create up to 16 sub-nets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each sub-net.

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108
Q

What includes the methods that prioritize network traffic to prevent applications from suffering faults caused by network congestion?

A

Qos (Quality of Service)

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109
Q

What is port forwarding?

A

a routing method that redirects traffic intended for one IP address and port number to another.

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110
Q

Which type of routing protocol routes datagrams between autonomous systems?

A

EGP (Exterior gateway protocol)

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111
Q

OSPF and RIP are both _______ gateway protocols

A

Interior

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112
Q

Which type of routing protocol routes datagrams between autonomous systems?

A

EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol)

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113
Q

Which type of routing protocol routes datagrams WITHIN an antonymous system?

A

IGP (interior gateway protocol)

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114
Q

What two protocols are an example of interior gateway protocols? (IGP)

A

OSPF(Open shortest path first) and RIP (Routing information protocol)

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115
Q

Which device would you configure to function as a DHCP server?

A

A wireless router

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116
Q

Which well known port is used by HTTPS(Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) by default?

A

443

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117
Q

Which organization developed the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model?

A

ISO (International organization for standardization)

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118
Q

In order to supply clients with a default gateway address, which configuration should they choose on the DHCP server?

A

Router

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119
Q

What is the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolution queries and sends them to the DNS Server?

A

Resolver

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120
Q

Which DHCP address allocation method allows the server to reclaim IP addresses that clients no longer use?

A

Dynamic

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121
Q

Which organization assigns well-known port numbers used in transport layer protocol headers?

A

IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)

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122
Q

What is a protocol that inserts a 32-bit field in the Ethernet Frame to identify VLANs?

A

IEEE 802.1Q

123
Q

The private IP address range from ______ to _____. The designated private IP addresses range from _____ to ____

A

10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255
and
192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255

124
Q

Which topology uses a wireless access point (AP) to allow wireless devices to access resources on a wired network?

A

Infrastructure

124
Q

Which two elements are used to identify devices in a particular VLAN?

A

Hardware Addresses and Switch Port Numbers

125
Q

Which protocol can only be used on the LOCAL subnet?

A

ARP (Address resolution protocol)

126
Q

Which technology enables IP addresses that a DHCP server assigns to clients to be automatically added to the DNS namespace?

A

Dynamic DNS

127
Q

What is a hierarchical switching architecture in which remote switches handle the majority of network traffic and a host switch is only utilized for traffic between remote locations? *Commonly used for departmental switching.

A

Distributed Switching

128
Q

Which topology does a wireless access point enable computers equipped with wireless network interface adapters to function in?

A

Infrastructure

129
Q

Which 2 IEEE wireless LAN standards define devices with a maximum aggregate channel width of 20MHz?

A

802.11a and 802.11g

130
Q

What is the allowed Ephemeral port number value range?

A

49152-50134

131
Q

What are the reserved ports that specific manufacturers register for their applications to?

A

1024-49151

132
Q

What must you create on a DHCP server to assign the same IP address to a computer?

A

Reservation

133
Q

What is it called when a permanent IP address is assigned to a specific MAC address on a DHCP server?

A

Reservation

134
Q

The installation of a new light fixture accidentally severs one of the LAN cables running through the dropped ceiling space. The severed cable would cause the greatest amount of disturbance to the network with which topology?

A

Bus

135
Q

Which two routing protocols can be used on a TCP/IP with segments at different speeds, making hop counts an inaccurate measure of route efficiency?

A

OSPF (Open shortest path first) &
EIGRP (Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol

136
Q

The medium, network interfaces, connecting hardware, and signaling methods used on a network are defined by which layer of the OSI model?

A

Physical

137
Q

A single RIP broadcast can contain no more than ____ routes.

A

25
RIP must generate additional packets if there are more than 25 routes in the computers routing table

138
Q

____ must generate additional packets if there are more than 25 routes in the computers routing table

A

RIP

139
Q

Which TCP header must you look for to determine whether the receiving host has successfully received the sending host’s data?

A

ACK

140
Q

The protocols on a typical network use MAC addresses to identify other computers on the network at which layer of the OSI model?

A

Data link

141
Q

Which two layers of the OSI apply to cabling and topology elements?

A

Physical and Data Link

142
Q

Which DNS resource record is used for reverse name resolution only?

A

PTR 179

143
Q

Which two protocols are used for IP address allocation?

A

DHCP and BOOTP

144
Q

Which protocol is used by computers on a TCP/IP network to resolve NAMES into IP addresses?

A

DNS (DomainNAMEservice)

145
Q

Which protocol carries information gathered by agents to a central management console?

A

SNMP (Simple network management protocol)

146
Q

Which layer of the OSI model controls dialogue between two communicating end systems?

A

Session

147
Q

An ethernet network interface adapter provides functions that span two layers of the OSI model, what are the two layers?

A

Physical and Data Link layer

148
Q

Which protocol does NOT operate on the network layer of the OSI model?

A

IMAP

149
Q

What mail protocol operates at the application layer of the OSI model?

A

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)

150
Q

What statement best describes the sub-netting process on a TCP/IP network?

A

You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier

151
Q

Which protocol provides connectionless delivery service at the transport layer of the OSI model?

A

UDP (User datagram protocol)

152
Q

The majority of new ethernet networks installed today use which of the following network topologies?

A

Hierarchical Star

153
Q

Which two layers of the OSI model do not have protocols in the TCP/IP suite exclusively dedicated to them?

A

Presentation and Session

154
Q

What is the range of IPv4 address assigned to DHCP clients that cannot access a DHCP server by APIPA?

A

169.254.0.0-169.254.255.255

155
Q

Which cabling topology did the first ethernet networks use?

A

Bus

156
Q

Which class’ IPv4 address is assigned to DHCP clients that cannot contact a DHCP server by APIPA?

A

Class B. Uses first 2 octects

157
Q

Which TCP/IP routing protocol uses the number of hops between the source and the destination to measure the efficiency of routes?

A

RIP (Routing information protocol)

158
Q

What is the primary application layer of protocol that web browsers use to communicate with web servers?

A

HTTP

159
Q

What is the coding language used to create web content?

A

HTML

160
Q

The IP address of the authoritative DNS servers for a particular zone are specififed by which domain system resource record type?

A

NS (Name Server)

161
Q

The offloading of excess traffic from private to public cloud resources to maintain satisfactory performance levels is known as _________…

A

Cloud BURSTING

162
Q

Which two network topologies will never experience interference from a 2.4Ghz wireless telephone?

A

IEEE 802.11ac and 802.11a

163
Q

What is CIDR(Classless Inter-Domain Routing)’s ability to create subnets using any number IP address bits, rather using 8 bit blocks?

A

VLSM (Variable-Length Subnet Masking)

164
Q

Which two layers of the OSI model are associated with network switching?

A

Data Link and Network

165
Q

What is the range for the first octet of a Class A address?

A

1-126

166
Q

What is the range for the first octet of a Class B address?

A

128-191

167
Q

What is the range for the first octet of a Class C address?

A

192-223

168
Q

What is the range for the first octet of a Class D address?

A

223-239

169
Q

Which network layer protocol locates routers, DNS servers, and other nodes on an IPv6 network by using ICMPv6?

A

NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

170
Q

What layer of the OSI model does NDP operate?

A

Network Layer

171
Q

Which two protocols geneterate messages carried directly within internet protocol (IP) datagrams without intervening the Transport Layer protocol?

A

IGMP and ICMP

172
Q

What is IGMP?

A

Internet Group Management Protocol

173
Q

what is ICMP?

A

Internet Control Message Protocol

174
Q

When two stations transmist at the same time, which CSMA/CD event occurs immediately on an ethernet network after the collision?

A

The two stations stop transmitting

175
Q

Which 3 IP address allocation methods does DHCP support?

A

Manual, Dynamic, and automatic

176
Q

Which tool integrates DHCP and DNS so that each is aware of the changes made by the other?

A

IPAM

177
Q

What is IPAM?

A

IP address management

178
Q

A client on a TCP/IP network wants to establish a session with a server. What is the correct order of TCP session establishment messages?

A

SYN, SYN/(then) ACK,ACK

179
Q

What is a dual stack?

A

A computer with two sets of networking protocols

180
Q

Which layer of the OSI model uses EBCDIC on the sending system to convert a text file encoded into ASCII code when the receiving system requires?

A

Presentation layer

181
Q

The address 127.0.0.1 is found in which IPv4 class?

A

None. it is classless

182
Q

What is the address 127.0.0.1 designated for?

A

Local Loopback

183
Q

Which DHCP option does NOT allow the client to transmit IP datagrams that circulate endlessly around the network?

A

Default IP TTL

184
Q

What is TTL?

A

Time To Live. determines the maximum amount of seconds or hops an ip datagrams is allowed before being removed from the network by a router

185
Q

Which service allows computers on a private IPv4 network to access the internet using a registered IP address?

A

NAT

186
Q

What happens when a DNS server receives an iterative name resolution query?

A

The DNS server responds immediately to query with the best information it has in its records/cache or, failing that, with an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name

187
Q

What is a Class E address used for?

A

Experimental

188
Q

Which IPv6 address type has the same function as an IPv4 APIPA address?

A

Link Local

189
Q

Which of the following layers of the OSI model translates and formats information?

A

Presentation

190
Q

Anna has created a new Windows Server 2016 virtual machine that uses remote controls from a cloud service provider on the internet. Which cloud architectures is she using?

A

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
Public Cloud

191
Q

Which device should be used to join two UTP installations into one LAN using the fiber optic run across space with a minimum cost?

A

Media Converter

192
Q

Which cable type is configured in a star topology, uses eight copper conductors arranged in four pairs, and uses a RJ-45 connector?

A

Twisted Pair, or UTP or STP

193
Q

What is the difference between a virtual switch and a physical switch?

A

Virtual switches have an unlimited number of ports, physical switches have a specified number

194
Q

Which devices are used to place calls on a VoIP (voice over IP) installation?

A

Terminal and Gateway

195
Q

What is a standard UTP termination?

A

T568A/B

196
Q

What kind of termination is used to create a cross over cable?

A

T568B->T568A

197
Q

Which cable type and connector attach a television set to a cable television (CATV) network? (Cable TV)

A

A coaxial cable and a F-Type connector

198
Q

What are the functions provided by a unified threat management(UTM) appliance?

A

VPN, Antivirus, Firewall

199
Q

Which remote access technology converts digital signals that a computer generates to analog signals carried over standard telephone wires?

A

Modem-to-Modem

200
Q

What signaling do ISDN,DSL, and cable broadband use?

A

Digital signaling from end to end

201
Q

Which device adds features like deep pack inspection(DPI) and an intrusion prevention system(IPS) to expand on the capabilities of the traditional firewall?

A

NGFW (Next Generation Firewall

202
Q

What is the method by which a firewall examines port numbers in transport layer protocol headers?

A

Service Dependent Filtering

203
Q

Which technology enables virtual private network clients to connect directly to each other and to the VPN server at the home site?

A

DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN)

204
Q

What is a multiport repeater?

A

HUB

205
Q

How many T-1 connections are equivalent to a T-3 leased line connection?

A

28 (T-3 connection channels are 28x24=672 channels, overall transfer rate of 44.73Mbps)

206
Q

How many channels does a T-1 connection consist of?

A

24 Channels

207
Q

Packet forwarding is associated with what network device?

A

Router

208
Q

Which type of switch immediately forwards frames after looking at only the destination address?

A

Cut-Through

209
Q

Which twisted pair cable type is rated for both a 10mbps data rate and a 100Mbps data rate?

A

Cat 3

210
Q

Which cable type is used for THICK ethernet network segments?

A

RG-8

211
Q

Which cable type is used for THIN ethernet segments?

A

RG-58

212
Q

What is a leased line subscription that consists of only part of a T-1?

A

Fractional T-1

213
Q

Which device is a VPN concentrator an advanced type of?

A

Router (VPN conectrator is a type of router)

214
Q

Electrical devices with no electronic intelligence are considered dumb. Which network device is considered dumb?

A

Hubs

215
Q

True or false:
STP compiles a database containing the IP addresses of connected devices.

A

FALSE

216
Q

Which type of device is a load balancer?

A

Router

217
Q

What is the function of the network medium?

A

The network medium provides the physical connection between networked computers

218
Q

True or False:
A VPN concentrator is a mechanism for distributing incoming network traffic among multiple servers.

A

False

219
Q

What is a collision domain?

A

A group of devices connected so that when two devices transmit at exactly the same time, a data collision occurs

220
Q

Which device provides the interface between a LAN and a WAN?

A

CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit)

221
Q

Which two devices enable user on the private networks to access the internet by substituting a registered IP address for their private IP addresses?

A

NAT Router and Proxy Server

222
Q

True or false, 110 blocks are used for telephone cable installations, not for data networking

A

false

223
Q

Which two remote access connection technologies support simultaneous transmission of voice and data traffic over the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)?

A

DSL and ISDN

224
Q

What two types of WAN connections use Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet(PPPoE)?

A

DSL and Cable broadband

225
Q

What is a multiport Bridge also called?

A

A Switch

226
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate on a storage area network (SAN)?

A

128Gbps

227
Q

Which WAN technology uses Analog signaling?

A

PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network)

228
Q

What is the function of a demarcation point or demarc?

A

The place where an outside service enters the building
(The point where the responsibility of the network admin ends. ISP is responsible for issues past the demarc)

229
Q

True or False:
The PPPoE connection process consists of two stages: negotiation and establishment

A

False

230
Q

True or False:
PPPoE requires a server on the Ethernet Network that functions as the middleman between the LAN and the Internet service provider’s network .

A

True

231
Q

Which technology can maintain an account database employed by multiple remote access servers to authenticate remote users?

A

Radius Server

232
Q

Which two coaxial cable types are still in general use?

A

RG-6 and RG-59

233
Q

You can split a large switched LAN into multiple broadcast domains by creating VLANs in the switches and ________

A

installing routers on the network

234
Q

What is a Modem?

A

A device that converts analog signals to digital signals and back again

235
Q

What is not a type of bridge in a local area networking?

A

Routing

236
Q

What does CIFS stand for?

A

Common Internet Files

237
Q

What does NFS stand for?

A

Network File System

238
Q

What does RDMA stand for?

A

Remote Direct Memory Access

239
Q

What is RDMA (Remote Direct Memory Access) used for?

A

Provides High speed network data transfers

240
Q

What application layer protocols are used by NAS (Network Attached Storage) devices to SERVE shared files to clients on the network?

A

CIFS, NFS, HTTP

241
Q

What can a firewall that supports stateful packet inspection do?

A

scan transort layer header fields for evidence of SYN floods

242
Q

What is the maximum transmission speed that a T4 line offers?

A

274.176 Mbps

243
Q

What connector types are associated with Ethernet network?

A

RJ45,BNC, and N-Type

244
Q

A N-Type connector is associated with what type of network?

A

Ethernet network

245
Q

a F-Type connector is associated with what type of installtion?

A

Cable tv installtion

246
Q

Which OSI layer protocols are included in a fibre channel packet?

A

None. Fibre has unique standards that does not correspond to OSI

247
Q

What 3 protocols are included in an iSCSI packet?

A

Ethernet, TCP, IP

248
Q

At which layer of the OSI reference model do proxy servers operate?

A

Application Layer

249
Q

Which WAN (wide are network) technology is both a packet-switched and a circuit-switched service?

A

ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)

250
Q

What does ATM stand for?

A

asynchronous transfer mode

251
Q

What type of device is required at the customer site to allow both voice and data traffic to be transmitted across the same DSL connection?

A

a splitter

252
Q

_____ are ____ layer devices that connect network devices in a star topology.

A

Hubs, physical

253
Q

What is not a type of bridge in local area networking?

A

Routing

254
Q

Which wide area network (WAN) technology is also called 2B+D?

A

ISDN&BRI
Integrated Services Digital Network & Basic Rate Interference

255
Q

What are 3 Fiber Optical Cable Connectors?

A

ST, LC, and MTRJ

256
Q

Which protocol uses jumbo frames to increase performance levels on storage area networks?

A

Ethernet

257
Q

A circuit switched connection that does not use packets or cells is known as a?

A

T-1

258
Q

Which WAN service uses uniformly sized, 53 byte packets called cells?

A

ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)

259
Q

What two constructs provide the same function for communication?

A

VoIP gateway and SIP trunk

260
Q

What is the process by which the STP on a switch evaluates the paths through the network and places each port in the forwarding or blocking state?

A

Convergence

261
Q

Which PPP authentication protocol allows users to utilize smartcards, finger prints, scanners, usernames, and passwords to authenticate?

A

EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

262
Q

Class __ Hubs perform signal translation

A

one

263
Q

Class __ Hubs do not perform signal translation

A

two

264
Q

What are class 3 and 4 hubs used for?

A

Nothing, they dont exist

265
Q

Which protocol allows computers on a home network to create individual connections to remote services via a broadband router?

A

PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet)

266
Q

What two terms refer to the area between two firewalls where web and email servers are found?

A

DMZ, and Perimeter Network

267
Q

Which device enables administrators of enterprise wireless networks to manage multiple access points from a central location?

A

Wireless Controller

268
Q

Which device provides authentication services for multiple remote access servers?

A

RADIUS Server

269
Q

What does CAPWAP stand for?

A

Control And Provisioning of Wireless Access Points protocol

270
Q

What does LWAPP stand for?

A

Lightweight Access Point Protocol

271
Q

Which two protocols use wireless controllers to communicate with the access points on a WLAN?

A

LWAPP and CAPWAP

272
Q

Which twisted pair cable types can be used to construct a 10gBase-T network with 100-meter segments?

A

Cat6a and Cat7

273
Q

What two types of services are offered by Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

A

BRI and PRI

274
Q

What does BRI stand for?

A

Basic Rate Interface

275
Q

What does PRI stand for?

A

Primary Rate Interface

276
Q

How many separate channels are provided by a T-3 lease line connection?

A

672 channels

277
Q

How many separate channels are provided by a t-1 line connection?

A

24

278
Q

How many t-1 connections would equal a single t-3 connection?

A

28

279
Q

What two types of circuits offer frame relay services?

A

PVC and SVC

280
Q

What does SVC stand for?

A

Switched Virtual Circuit

281
Q

What does PVC stand for?

A

Permanent Virtual Circuit

282
Q

Which virtual networking component has media access control (MAC) address assigned to them on an unmanaged network?

A

Virtual NICs (Network Interface Card)

283
Q

True or False:
NAS provides File-level storage access, whereas SAN provides block-level storage access.

A

True

284
Q

True or False:
NAS devices typically provide a file system, whereas SAN devices do not.

A

True

285
Q

You can create VLANs on which virtual networking component?

A

Virtual Switch

286
Q

True or False:
Bridges and switches are data link layer devices that use media access control (MAC) address to forward frames.

A

True

287
Q

True or False:
Each port on a bridge or switch defines a separate broadcast domain.

A

False

288
Q

Which storage area network (SAN) technology that supercomputers primarily use to provide a high speed, low latency connection between processors and storage systems?

A

Infini-Band

289
Q

What does DOCSIS stand for?

A

Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification

290
Q

A specification called DOCSIS applies to which internet connection type?

A

Cable Broadband

291
Q

Which 3 layers of the OSI model does a Multilayer Switch operate at?

A

Physical, Datalink, and network

292
Q

Which 1-Gigabit Ethernet specification calls for the use of copper cable?

A

10GBase-CX4

293
Q

What problems are prevented when using STP?

A

Bridging loops and Late collisions

294
Q

What issue does Bridging loops create?

A

packets that circulate endlessly around the network

295
Q

What is a broadcast storm?

A

The result of bridging loops. or
When a bridging loop occurs it floods the network with endless circulating packets.

296
Q

What is the European equivalent of the Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard in the US?

A

SDH Synchronous Digitial Hierarchy

297
Q

What is the function of a switch?

A

a multiport bridge

298
Q

Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the Jumbo Frame capability?

A

Data Link

299
Q

What DSL technology is based on line conditions to adjust its transmission speed?

A

RADSL

300
Q

What does RADSL stand for?

A

Rate Adaptive Digital Subscriber Line

301
Q

What are the layers of the Fibre Channel standard?

A

FC-0 - FC-4

302
Q

What two elements are used to identify devices in a particular VLAN?

A

Hardware Addresses and Switch Port Numbers

Net+ Exam (3 decks)

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