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CompTIA NET+ > NET+ ALL TOPICS > Flashcards

NET+ ALL TOPICS Flashcards

1
Q

Which OSI layer is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? A) Transport B) Network C) Presentation D) Session

A

A) Transport

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2
Q

Which of the following is a feature of VLANs that helps network administrators segment traffic based on business needs? A) Redundancy B) Security C) Speed D) Compression

A

B) Security

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3
Q

Which IPv4 subnet mask denotes a /24 prefix? A) 255.255.255.0 B) 255.255.0.0 C) 255.255.255.192 D) 255.255.255.248

A

A) 255.255.255.0

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4
Q

What type of attack involves intercepting legitimate communication and forging a fictitious response to the sender? A) DDoS B) Man-in-the-middle C) Phishing D) SQL Injection

A

B) Man-in-the-middle

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5
Q

Which command is used to display the IP address configuration of a Windows PC? A) show ip address B) ifconfig C) ipconfig D) netstat

A

C) ipconfig

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6
Q

In a wireless network, which IEEE standard operates at both 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequencies? A) 802.11g B) 802.11n C) 802.11b D) 802.11a

A

B) 802.11n

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7
Q

What type of DNS record is used to map domain names to the IP address of the mail server? A) MX B) CNAME C) PTR D) A

A

A) MX

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8
Q

Which protocol is used for securely accessing remote servers? A) HTTP B) HTTPS C) SSH D) FTP

A

C) SSH

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9
Q

What is the maximum distance for a single-mode fiber optic cable without needing a repeater? A) 10 km B) 40 km C) 100 km D) 500 km

A

B) 40 km

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10
Q

Which network topology is highly resilient and allows for easy expansion by adding new nodes? A) Ring B) Bus C) Star D) Mesh

A

D) Mesh

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11
Q

Which protocol is essential for automatically assigning IP addresses to devices on a network? A) DNS B) DHCP C) FTP D) SMTP

A

B) DHCP

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12
Q

Which type of cable is used to connect a cable modem to a wall outlet? A) Twisted pair B) Coaxial C) Fiber optic D) HDMI

A

B) Coaxial

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13
Q

What does the term ‘latency’ refer to in networking? A) The bandwidth of a network B) The error rate of a transmission C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination D) The amount of data that can be transmitted in a set amount of time

A

C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination

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14
Q

Which device acts as a gateway to connect different WLANs to a wired Ethernet? A) Modem B) Switch C) Router D) Access Point

A

C) Router

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the subnet mask in an IP address? A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion B) To encrypt the IP address for security purposes C) To indicate the class of the IP address D) To extend the length of the IP address

A

A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion

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16
Q

Which wireless encryption standard is currently the most secure? A) WEP B) WPA C) WPA2 D) WPA3

A

D) WPA3

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17
Q

In a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) network, what is the purpose of the Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)? A) To prevent routing loops B) To encrypt data C) To prevent broadcast storms D) To elect the root bridge

A

D) To elect the root bridge

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18
Q

What is the primary benefit of using cloud computing in networking? A) Lower hardware costs B) Higher data throughput C) Improved security D) Physical access to servers

A

A) Lower hardware costs

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19
Q

Which protocol is used for securely transferring files over the internet? A) HTTP B) FTP C) SFTP D) SMTP

A

C) SFTP

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20
Q

How does a switch learn the MAC address of devices connected to it? A) It is manually configured by a network administrator. B) It broadcasts a request for the MAC address to all devices. C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses. D) It contacts a central database to download a list of MAC addresses.

A

C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses.

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21
Q

Which OSI layer is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? A) Transport B) Network C) Presentation D) Sessio (variation 2).

A

A) Transport

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22
Q

Which of the following is a feature of VLANs that helps network administrators segment traffic based on business needs? A) Redundancy B) Security C) Speed D) Compressio (variation 2).

A

B) Security

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23
Q

Which IPv4 subnet mask denotes a /24 prefix? A) 255.255.255.0 B) 255.255.0.0 C) 255.255.255.192 D) 255.255.255.24 (variation 2).

A

A) 255.255.255.0

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24
Q

What type of attack involves intercepting legitimate communication and forging a fictitious response to the sender? A) DDoS B) Man-in-the-middle C) Phishing D) SQL Injectio (variation 2).

A

B) Man-in-the-middle

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25
Q

Which command is used to display the IP address configuration of a Windows PC? A) show ip address B) ifconfig C) ipconfig D) netsta (variation 2).

A

C) ipconfig

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26
Q

In a wireless network, which IEEE standard operates at both 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequencies? A) 802.11g B) 802.11n C) 802.11b D) 802.11 (variation 2).

A

B) 802.11n

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27
Q

What type of DNS record is used to map domain names to the IP address of the mail server? A) MX B) CNAME C) PTR D) (variation 2).

A

A) MX

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28
Q

Which protocol is used for securely accessing remote servers? A) HTTP B) HTTPS C) SSH D) FT (variation 2).

A

C) SSH

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29
Q

What is the maximum distance for a single-mode fiber optic cable without needing a repeater? A) 10 km B) 40 km C) 100 km D) 500 k (variation 2).

A

B) 40 km

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30
Q

Which network topology is highly resilient and allows for easy expansion by adding new nodes? A) Ring B) Bus C) Star D) Mes (variation 2).

A

D) Mesh

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31
Q

Which protocol is essential for automatically assigning IP addresses to devices on a network? A) DNS B) DHCP C) FTP D) SMT (variation 2).

A

B) DHCP

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32
Q

Which type of cable is used to connect a cable modem to a wall outlet? A) Twisted pair B) Coaxial C) Fiber optic D) HDM (variation 2).

A

B) Coaxial

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33
Q

What does the term ‘latency’ refer to in networking? A) The bandwidth of a network B) The error rate of a transmission C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination D) The amount of data that can be transmitted in a set amount of tim (variation 2).

A

C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination

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34
Q

Which device acts as a gateway to connect different WLANs to a wired Ethernet? A) Modem B) Switch C) Router D) Access Poin (variation 2).

A

C) Router

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35
Q

What is the purpose of the subnet mask in an IP address? A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion B) To encrypt the IP address for security purposes C) To indicate the class of the IP address D) To extend the length of the IP addres (variation 2).

A

A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion

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36
Q

Which wireless encryption standard is currently the most secure? A) WEP B) WPA C) WPA2 D) WPA (variation 2).

A

D) WPA3

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37
Q

In a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) network, what is the purpose of the Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)? A) To prevent routing loops B) To encrypt data C) To prevent broadcast storms D) To elect the root bridg (variation 2).

A

D) To elect the root bridge

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38
Q

What is the primary benefit of using cloud computing in networking? A) Lower hardware costs B) Higher data throughput C) Improved security D) Physical access to server (variation 2).

A

A) Lower hardware costs

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39
Q

Which protocol is used for securely transferring files over the internet? A) HTTP B) FTP C) SFTP D) SMT (variation 2).

A

C) SFTP

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40
Q

How does a switch learn the MAC address of devices connected to it? A) It is manually configured by a network administrator. B) It broadcasts a request for the MAC address to all devices. C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses. D) It contacts a central database to download a list of MAC addresses (variation 2).

A

C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses.

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41
Q

Which OSI layer is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? A) Transport B) Network C) Presentation D) Sessio (variation 3).

A

A) Transport

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42
Q

Which of the following is a feature of VLANs that helps network administrators segment traffic based on business needs? A) Redundancy B) Security C) Speed D) Compressio (variation 3).

A

B) Security

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43
Q

Which IPv4 subnet mask denotes a /24 prefix? A) 255.255.255.0 B) 255.255.0.0 C) 255.255.255.192 D) 255.255.255.24 (variation 3).

A

A) 255.255.255.0

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44
Q

What type of attack involves intercepting legitimate communication and forging a fictitious response to the sender? A) DDoS B) Man-in-the-middle C) Phishing D) SQL Injectio (variation 3).

A

B) Man-in-the-middle

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45
Q

Which command is used to display the IP address configuration of a Windows PC? A) show ip address B) ifconfig C) ipconfig D) netsta (variation 3).

A

C) ipconfig

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46
Q

In a wireless network, which IEEE standard operates at both 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequencies? A) 802.11g B) 802.11n C) 802.11b D) 802.11 (variation 3).

A

B) 802.11n

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47
Q

What type of DNS record is used to map domain names to the IP address of the mail server? A) MX B) CNAME C) PTR D) (variation 3).

A

A) MX

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48
Q

Which protocol is used for securely accessing remote servers? A) HTTP B) HTTPS C) SSH D) FT (variation 3).

A

C) SSH

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49
Q

What is the maximum distance for a single-mode fiber optic cable without needing a repeater? A) 10 km B) 40 km C) 100 km D) 500 k (variation 3).

A

B) 40 km

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50
Q

Which network topology is highly resilient and allows for easy expansion by adding new nodes? A) Ring B) Bus C) Star D) Mes (variation 3).

A

D) Mesh

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51
Q

Which protocol is essential for automatically assigning IP addresses to devices on a network? A) DNS B) DHCP C) FTP D) SMT (variation 3).

A

B) DHCP

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52
Q

Which type of cable is used to connect a cable modem to a wall outlet? A) Twisted pair B) Coaxial C) Fiber optic D) HDM (variation 3).

A

B) Coaxial

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53
Q

What does the term ‘latency’ refer to in networking? A) The bandwidth of a network B) The error rate of a transmission C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination D) The amount of data that can be transmitted in a set amount of tim (variation 3).

A

C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination

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54
Q

Which device acts as a gateway to connect different WLANs to a wired Ethernet? A) Modem B) Switch C) Router D) Access Poin (variation 3).

A

C) Router

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55
Q

What is the purpose of the subnet mask in an IP address? A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion B) To encrypt the IP address for security purposes C) To indicate the class of the IP address D) To extend the length of the IP addres (variation 3).

A

A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion

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56
Q

Which wireless encryption standard is currently the most secure? A) WEP B) WPA C) WPA2 D) WPA (variation 3).

A

D) WPA3

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57
Q

In a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) network, what is the purpose of the Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)? A) To prevent routing loops B) To encrypt data C) To prevent broadcast storms D) To elect the root bridg (variation 3).

A

D) To elect the root bridge

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58
Q

What is the primary benefit of using cloud computing in networking? A) Lower hardware costs B) Higher data throughput C) Improved security D) Physical access to server (variation 3).

A

A) Lower hardware costs

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59
Q

Which protocol is used for securely transferring files over the internet? A) HTTP B) FTP C) SFTP D) SMT (variation 3).

A

C) SFTP

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60
Q

How does a switch learn the MAC address of devices connected to it? A) It is manually configured by a network administrator. B) It broadcasts a request for the MAC address to all devices. C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses. D) It contacts a central database to download a list of MAC addresses (variation 3).

A

C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses.

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61
Q

Which OSI layer is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? A) Transport B) Network C) Presentation D) Sessio (variation 4).

A

A) Transport

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62
Q

Which of the following is a feature of VLANs that helps network administrators segment traffic based on business needs? A) Redundancy B) Security C) Speed D) Compressio (variation 4).

A

B) Security

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63
Q

Which IPv4 subnet mask denotes a /24 prefix? A) 255.255.255.0 B) 255.255.0.0 C) 255.255.255.192 D) 255.255.255.24 (variation 4).

A

A) 255.255.255.0

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64
Q

What type of attack involves intercepting legitimate communication and forging a fictitious response to the sender? A) DDoS B) Man-in-the-middle C) Phishing D) SQL Injectio (variation 4).

A

B) Man-in-the-middle

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65
Q

Which command is used to display the IP address configuration of a Windows PC? A) show ip address B) ifconfig C) ipconfig D) netsta (variation 4).

A

C) ipconfig

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66
Q

In a wireless network, which IEEE standard operates at both 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequencies? A) 802.11g B) 802.11n C) 802.11b D) 802.11 (variation 4).

A

B) 802.11n

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67
Q

What type of DNS record is used to map domain names to the IP address of the mail server? A) MX B) CNAME C) PTR D) (variation 4).

A

A) MX

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68
Q

Which protocol is used for securely accessing remote servers? A) HTTP B) HTTPS C) SSH D) FT (variation 4).

A

C) SSH

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69
Q

What is the maximum distance for a single-mode fiber optic cable without needing a repeater? A) 10 km B) 40 km C) 100 km D) 500 k (variation 4).

A

B) 40 km

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70
Q

Which network topology is highly resilient and allows for easy expansion by adding new nodes? A) Ring B) Bus C) Star D) Mes (variation 4).

A

D) Mesh

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71
Q

Which protocol is essential for automatically assigning IP addresses to devices on a network? A) DNS B) DHCP C) FTP D) SMT (variation 4).

A

B) DHCP

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72
Q

Which type of cable is used to connect a cable modem to a wall outlet? A) Twisted pair B) Coaxial C) Fiber optic D) HDM (variation 4).

A

B) Coaxial

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73
Q

What does the term ‘latency’ refer to in networking? A) The bandwidth of a network B) The error rate of a transmission C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination D) The amount of data that can be transmitted in a set amount of tim (variation 4).

A

C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination

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74
Q

Which device acts as a gateway to connect different WLANs to a wired Ethernet? A) Modem B) Switch C) Router D) Access Poin (variation 4).

A

C) Router

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75
Q

What is the purpose of the subnet mask in an IP address? A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion B) To encrypt the IP address for security purposes C) To indicate the class of the IP address D) To extend the length of the IP addres (variation 4).

A

A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion

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76
Q

Which wireless encryption standard is currently the most secure? A) WEP B) WPA C) WPA2 D) WPA (variation 4).

A

D) WPA3

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77
Q

In a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) network, what is the purpose of the Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)? A) To prevent routing loops B) To encrypt data C) To prevent broadcast storms D) To elect the root bridg (variation 4).

A

D) To elect the root bridge

How well did you know this?
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78
Q

What is the primary benefit of using cloud computing in networking? A) Lower hardware costs B) Higher data throughput C) Improved security D) Physical access to server (variation 4).

A

A) Lower hardware costs

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79
Q

Which protocol is used for securely transferring files over the internet? A) HTTP B) FTP C) SFTP D) SMT (variation 4).

A

C) SFTP

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80
Q

How does a switch learn the MAC address of devices connected to it? A) It is manually configured by a network administrator. B) It broadcasts a request for the MAC address to all devices. C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses. D) It contacts a central database to download a list of MAC addresses (variation 4).

A

C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses.

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81
Q

Which OSI layer is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? A) Transport B) Network C) Presentation D) Sessio (variation 5).

A

A) Transport

82
Q

Which of the following is a feature of VLANs that helps network administrators segment traffic based on business needs? A) Redundancy B) Security C) Speed D) Compressio (variation 5).

A

B) Security

83
Q

Which IPv4 subnet mask denotes a /24 prefix? A) 255.255.255.0 B) 255.255.0.0 C) 255.255.255.192 D) 255.255.255.24 (variation 5).

A

A) 255.255.255.0

84
Q

What type of attack involves intercepting legitimate communication and forging a fictitious response to the sender? A) DDoS B) Man-in-the-middle C) Phishing D) SQL Injectio (variation 5).

A

B) Man-in-the-middle

85
Q

Which command is used to display the IP address configuration of a Windows PC? A) show ip address B) ifconfig C) ipconfig D) netsta (variation 5).

A

C) ipconfig

86
Q

In a wireless network, which IEEE standard operates at both 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequencies? A) 802.11g B) 802.11n C) 802.11b D) 802.11 (variation 5).

A

B) 802.11n

87
Q

What type of DNS record is used to map domain names to the IP address of the mail server? A) MX B) CNAME C) PTR D) (variation 5).

A

A) MX

88
Q

Which protocol is used for securely accessing remote servers? A) HTTP B) HTTPS C) SSH D) FT (variation 5).

A

C) SSH

89
Q

What is the maximum distance for a single-mode fiber optic cable without needing a repeater? A) 10 km B) 40 km C) 100 km D) 500 k (variation 5).

A

B) 40 km

90
Q

Which network topology is highly resilient and allows for easy expansion by adding new nodes? A) Ring B) Bus C) Star D) Mes (variation 5).

A

D) Mesh

91
Q

Which protocol is essential for automatically assigning IP addresses to devices on a network? A) DNS B) DHCP C) FTP D) SMT (variation 5).

A

B) DHCP

92
Q

Which type of cable is used to connect a cable modem to a wall outlet? A) Twisted pair B) Coaxial C) Fiber optic D) HDM (variation 5).

A

B) Coaxial

93
Q

What does the term ‘latency’ refer to in networking? A) The bandwidth of a network B) The error rate of a transmission C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination D) The amount of data that can be transmitted in a set amount of tim (variation 5).

A

C) The time it takes for data to travel from source to destination

94
Q

Which device acts as a gateway to connect different WLANs to a wired Ethernet? A) Modem B) Switch C) Router D) Access Poin (variation 5).

A

C) Router

95
Q

What is the purpose of the subnet mask in an IP address? A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion B) To encrypt the IP address for security purposes C) To indicate the class of the IP address D) To extend the length of the IP addres (variation 5).

A

A) To differentiate the network portion of the address from the host portion

96
Q

Which wireless encryption standard is currently the most secure? A) WEP B) WPA C) WPA2 D) WPA (variation 5).

A

D) WPA3

97
Q

In a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) network, what is the purpose of the Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)? A) To prevent routing loops B) To encrypt data C) To prevent broadcast storms D) To elect the root bridg (variation 5).

A

D) To elect the root bridge

98
Q

What is the primary benefit of using cloud computing in networking? A) Lower hardware costs B) Higher data throughput C) Improved security D) Physical access to server (variation 5).

A

A) Lower hardware costs

99
Q

Which protocol is used for securely transferring files over the internet? A) HTTP B) FTP C) SFTP D) SMT (variation 5).

A

C) SFTP

100
Q

How does a switch learn the MAC address of devices connected to it? A) It is manually configured by a network administrator. B) It broadcasts a request for the MAC address to all devices. C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses. D) It contacts a central database to download a list of MAC addresses (variation 5).

A

C) It inspects incoming packets and records the MAC addresses.

101
Q

What does DHCP stand for? A) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol B) Data Handling Control Process C) Direct Hyper Control Protocol D) Dynamic HTTP Control Procedure

A

A) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

102
Q

The acronym ‘DNS’ stands for? A) Digital Network Service B) Domain Name System C) Data Network Solution D) Dynamic Name Service

A

B) Domain Name System

103
Q

What is the full form of ‘TCP’? A) Transmission Control Protocol B) Transfer Command Packet C) Telecommunication Computer Protocol D) Terminal Capture Program

A

A) Transmission Control Protocol

104
Q

What does ‘IP’ stand for in networking? A) Internet Protocol B) Internal Process C) Intelligent Performance D) Interconnect Port

A

A) Internet Protocol

105
Q

The term ‘SSL’ refers to which of the following? A) Secure Socket Layer B) Systematic Security Level C) Secure System Lock D) Socket Secure Link

A

A) Secure Socket Layer

106
Q

What does ‘NAT’ mean? A) Network Address Translation B) Non-Authoritative Tracking C) Network Allocation Table D) Non-Allocated Transmission

A

A) Network Address Translation

107
Q

‘ARP’ stands for? A) Address Resolution Protocol B) Application Response Procedure C) Advanced Routing Protocol D) Automatic Repeat reQuest

A

A) Address Resolution Protocol

108
Q

The acronym ‘VLAN’ refers to what? A) Virtual LAN B) Viable Link Access Network C) Virtual Link Aggregation Net D) Visual Local Area Network

A

A) Virtual LAN

109
Q

What is the full meaning of ‘OSI’? A) Open System Interconnection B) Operating System Interface C) Optical Service Implementation D) Organizational System Integration

A

A) Open System Interconnection

110
Q

‘RADIUS’ in networking technology stands for? A) Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service B) Rapid Access Dial Interconnect User Service C) Reliable Authentication Digital User System D) Remote Access Device User Service

A

A) Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

111
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM10’ stand for? A) Full Form A10 B) Full Form B10 C) Full Form C10 D) Full Form D10

A

A) Full Form A10

112
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM11’ stand for? A) Full Form A11 B) Full Form B11 C) Full Form C11 D) Full Form D11

A

A) Full Form A11

113
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM12’ stand for? A) Full Form A12 B) Full Form B12 C) Full Form C12 D) Full Form D12

A

A) Full Form A12

114
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM13’ stand for? A) Full Form A13 B) Full Form B13 C) Full Form C13 D) Full Form D13

A

A) Full Form A13

115
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM14’ stand for? A) Full Form A14 B) Full Form B14 C) Full Form C14 D) Full Form D14

A

A) Full Form A14

116
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM15’ stand for? A) Full Form A15 B) Full Form B15 C) Full Form C15 D) Full Form D15

A

A) Full Form A15

117
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM16’ stand for? A) Full Form A16 B) Full Form B16 C) Full Form C16 D) Full Form D16

A

A) Full Form A16

118
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM17’ stand for? A) Full Form A17 B) Full Form B17 C) Full Form C17 D) Full Form D17

A

A) Full Form A17

119
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM18’ stand for? A) Full Form A18 B) Full Form B18 C) Full Form C18 D) Full Form D18

A

A) Full Form A18

120
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM19’ stand for? A) Full Form A19 B) Full Form B19 C) Full Form C19 D) Full Form D19

A

A) Full Form A19

121
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM20’ stand for? A) Full Form A20 B) Full Form B20 C) Full Form C20 D) Full Form D20

A

A) Full Form A20

122
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM21’ stand for? A) Full Form A21 B) Full Form B21 C) Full Form C21 D) Full Form D21

A

A) Full Form A21

123
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM22’ stand for? A) Full Form A22 B) Full Form B22 C) Full Form C22 D) Full Form D22

A

A) Full Form A22

124
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM23’ stand for? A) Full Form A23 B) Full Form B23 C) Full Form C23 D) Full Form D23

A

A) Full Form A23

125
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM24’ stand for? A) Full Form A24 B) Full Form B24 C) Full Form C24 D) Full Form D24

A

A) Full Form A24

126
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM25’ stand for? A) Full Form A25 B) Full Form B25 C) Full Form C25 D) Full Form D25

A

A) Full Form A25

127
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM26’ stand for? A) Full Form A26 B) Full Form B26 C) Full Form C26 D) Full Form D26

A

A) Full Form A26

128
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM27’ stand for? A) Full Form A27 B) Full Form B27 C) Full Form C27 D) Full Form D27

A

A) Full Form A27

129
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM28’ stand for? A) Full Form A28 B) Full Form B28 C) Full Form C28 D) Full Form D28

A

A) Full Form A28

130
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM29’ stand for? A) Full Form A29 B) Full Form B29 C) Full Form C29 D) Full Form D29

A

A) Full Form A29

131
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM30’ stand for? A) Full Form A30 B) Full Form B30 C) Full Form C30 D) Full Form D30

A

A) Full Form A30

132
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM31’ stand for? A) Full Form A31 B) Full Form B31 C) Full Form C31 D) Full Form D31

A

A) Full Form A31

133
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM32’ stand for? A) Full Form A32 B) Full Form B32 C) Full Form C32 D) Full Form D32

A

A) Full Form A32

134
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM33’ stand for? A) Full Form A33 B) Full Form B33 C) Full Form C33 D) Full Form D33

A

A) Full Form A33

135
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM34’ stand for? A) Full Form A34 B) Full Form B34 C) Full Form C34 D) Full Form D34

A

A) Full Form A34

136
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM35’ stand for? A) Full Form A35 B) Full Form B35 C) Full Form C35 D) Full Form D35

A

A) Full Form A35

137
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM36’ stand for? A) Full Form A36 B) Full Form B36 C) Full Form C36 D) Full Form D36

A

A) Full Form A36

138
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM37’ stand for? A) Full Form A37 B) Full Form B37 C) Full Form C37 D) Full Form D37

A

A) Full Form A37

139
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM38’ stand for? A) Full Form A38 B) Full Form B38 C) Full Form C38 D) Full Form D38

A

A) Full Form A38

140
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM39’ stand for? A) Full Form A39 B) Full Form B39 C) Full Form C39 D) Full Form D39

A

A) Full Form A39

141
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM40’ stand for? A) Full Form A40 B) Full Form B40 C) Full Form C40 D) Full Form D40

A

A) Full Form A40

142
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM41’ stand for? A) Full Form A41 B) Full Form B41 C) Full Form C41 D) Full Form D41

A

A) Full Form A41

143
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM42’ stand for? A) Full Form A42 B) Full Form B42 C) Full Form C42 D) Full Form D42

A

A) Full Form A42

144
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM43’ stand for? A) Full Form A43 B) Full Form B43 C) Full Form C43 D) Full Form D43

A

A) Full Form A43

145
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM44’ stand for? A) Full Form A44 B) Full Form B44 C) Full Form C44 D) Full Form D44

A

A) Full Form A44

146
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM45’ stand for? A) Full Form A45 B) Full Form B45 C) Full Form C45 D) Full Form D45

A

A) Full Form A45

147
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM46’ stand for? A) Full Form A46 B) Full Form B46 C) Full Form C46 D) Full Form D46

A

A) Full Form A46

148
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM47’ stand for? A) Full Form A47 B) Full Form B47 C) Full Form C47 D) Full Form D47

A

A) Full Form A47

149
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM48’ stand for? A) Full Form A48 B) Full Form B48 C) Full Form C48 D) Full Form D48

A

A) Full Form A48

150
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM49’ stand for? A) Full Form A49 B) Full Form B49 C) Full Form C49 D) Full Form D49

A

A) Full Form A49

151
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM50’ stand for? A) Full Form A50 B) Full Form B50 C) Full Form C50 D) Full Form D50

A

A) Full Form A50

152
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM51’ stand for? A) Full Form A51 B) Full Form B51 C) Full Form C51 D) Full Form D51

A

A) Full Form A51

153
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM52’ stand for? A) Full Form A52 B) Full Form B52 C) Full Form C52 D) Full Form D52

A

A) Full Form A52

154
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM53’ stand for? A) Full Form A53 B) Full Form B53 C) Full Form C53 D) Full Form D53

A

A) Full Form A53

155
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM54’ stand for? A) Full Form A54 B) Full Form B54 C) Full Form C54 D) Full Form D54

A

A) Full Form A54

156
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM55’ stand for? A) Full Form A55 B) Full Form B55 C) Full Form C55 D) Full Form D55

A

A) Full Form A55

157
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM56’ stand for? A) Full Form A56 B) Full Form B56 C) Full Form C56 D) Full Form D56

A

A) Full Form A56

158
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM57’ stand for? A) Full Form A57 B) Full Form B57 C) Full Form C57 D) Full Form D57

A

A) Full Form A57

159
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM58’ stand for? A) Full Form A58 B) Full Form B58 C) Full Form C58 D) Full Form D58

A

A) Full Form A58

160
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM59’ stand for? A) Full Form A59 B) Full Form B59 C) Full Form C59 D) Full Form D59

A

A) Full Form A59

161
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM60’ stand for? A) Full Form A60 B) Full Form B60 C) Full Form C60 D) Full Form D60

A

A) Full Form A60

162
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM61’ stand for? A) Full Form A61 B) Full Form B61 C) Full Form C61 D) Full Form D61

A

A) Full Form A61

163
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM62’ stand for? A) Full Form A62 B) Full Form B62 C) Full Form C62 D) Full Form D62

A

A) Full Form A62

164
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM63’ stand for? A) Full Form A63 B) Full Form B63 C) Full Form C63 D) Full Form D63

A

A) Full Form A63

165
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM64’ stand for? A) Full Form A64 B) Full Form B64 C) Full Form C64 D) Full Form D64

A

A) Full Form A64

166
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM65’ stand for? A) Full Form A65 B) Full Form B65 C) Full Form C65 D) Full Form D65

A

A) Full Form A65

167
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM66’ stand for? A) Full Form A66 B) Full Form B66 C) Full Form C66 D) Full Form D66

A

A) Full Form A66

168
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM67’ stand for? A) Full Form A67 B) Full Form B67 C) Full Form C67 D) Full Form D67

A

A) Full Form A67

169
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM68’ stand for? A) Full Form A68 B) Full Form B68 C) Full Form C68 D) Full Form D68

A

A) Full Form A68

170
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM69’ stand for? A) Full Form A69 B) Full Form B69 C) Full Form C69 D) Full Form D69

A

A) Full Form A69

171
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM70’ stand for? A) Full Form A70 B) Full Form B70 C) Full Form C70 D) Full Form D70

A

A) Full Form A70

172
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM71’ stand for? A) Full Form A71 B) Full Form B71 C) Full Form C71 D) Full Form D71

A

A) Full Form A71

173
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM72’ stand for? A) Full Form A72 B) Full Form B72 C) Full Form C72 D) Full Form D72

A

A) Full Form A72

174
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM73’ stand for? A) Full Form A73 B) Full Form B73 C) Full Form C73 D) Full Form D73

A

A) Full Form A73

175
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM74’ stand for? A) Full Form A74 B) Full Form B74 C) Full Form C74 D) Full Form D74

A

A) Full Form A74

176
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM75’ stand for? A) Full Form A75 B) Full Form B75 C) Full Form C75 D) Full Form D75

A

A) Full Form A75

177
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM76’ stand for? A) Full Form A76 B) Full Form B76 C) Full Form C76 D) Full Form D76

A

A) Full Form A76

178
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM77’ stand for? A) Full Form A77 B) Full Form B77 C) Full Form C77 D) Full Form D77

A

A) Full Form A77

179
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM78’ stand for? A) Full Form A78 B) Full Form B78 C) Full Form C78 D) Full Form D78

A

A) Full Form A78

180
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM79’ stand for? A) Full Form A79 B) Full Form B79 C) Full Form C79 D) Full Form D79

A

A) Full Form A79

181
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM80’ stand for? A) Full Form A80 B) Full Form B80 C) Full Form C80 D) Full Form D80

A

A) Full Form A80

182
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM81’ stand for? A) Full Form A81 B) Full Form B81 C) Full Form C81 D) Full Form D81

A

A) Full Form A81

183
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM82’ stand for? A) Full Form A82 B) Full Form B82 C) Full Form C82 D) Full Form D82

A

A) Full Form A82

184
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM83’ stand for? A) Full Form A83 B) Full Form B83 C) Full Form C83 D) Full Form D83

A

A) Full Form A83

185
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM84’ stand for? A) Full Form A84 B) Full Form B84 C) Full Form C84 D) Full Form D84

A

A) Full Form A84

186
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM85’ stand for? A) Full Form A85 B) Full Form B85 C) Full Form C85 D) Full Form D85

A

A) Full Form A85

187
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM86’ stand for? A) Full Form A86 B) Full Form B86 C) Full Form C86 D) Full Form D86

A

A) Full Form A86

188
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM87’ stand for? A) Full Form A87 B) Full Form B87 C) Full Form C87 D) Full Form D87

A

A) Full Form A87

189
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM88’ stand for? A) Full Form A88 B) Full Form B88 C) Full Form C88 D) Full Form D88

A

A) Full Form A88

190
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM89’ stand for? A) Full Form A89 B) Full Form B89 C) Full Form C89 D) Full Form D89

A

A) Full Form A89

191
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM90’ stand for? A) Full Form A90 B) Full Form B90 C) Full Form C90 D) Full Form D90

A

A) Full Form A90

192
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM91’ stand for? A) Full Form A91 B) Full Form B91 C) Full Form C91 D) Full Form D91

A

A) Full Form A91

193
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM92’ stand for? A) Full Form A92 B) Full Form B92 C) Full Form C92 D) Full Form D92

A

A) Full Form A92

194
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM93’ stand for? A) Full Form A93 B) Full Form B93 C) Full Form C93 D) Full Form D93

A

A) Full Form A93

195
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM94’ stand for? A) Full Form A94 B) Full Form B94 C) Full Form C94 D) Full Form D94

A

A) Full Form A94

196
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM95’ stand for? A) Full Form A95 B) Full Form B95 C) Full Form C95 D) Full Form D95

A

A) Full Form A95

197
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM96’ stand for? A) Full Form A96 B) Full Form B96 C) Full Form C96 D) Full Form D96

A

A) Full Form A96

198
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM97’ stand for? A) Full Form A97 B) Full Form B97 C) Full Form C97 D) Full Form D97

A

A) Full Form A97

199
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM98’ stand for? A) Full Form A98 B) Full Form B98 C) Full Form C98 D) Full Form D98

A

A) Full Form A98

200
Q

What does ‘ACRONYM99’ stand for? A) Full Form A99 B) Full Form B99 C) Full Form C99 D) Full Form D99

A

A) Full Form A99

CompTIA NET+ (5 decks)

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