Nervous system overview Flashcards

lecture 1

1
Q

What are the parts of the CNS?

A

cerebrum
- cortex (outer layer of brain)
- internal structures
subcoritcal:

diencephalon
- thalamus
- hypothalamus
brainstem
- midbrain
- pons
- medulla oblongata

cerebullum
spinal cord

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2
Q

the words posterior and anterior are synonymous with what words?

A

posterior - dorsal
anterior - ventral

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3
Q
A
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4
Q

What is grey matter composed of? what is its function?

A

composed of the neurons and glia (cell bodies), and the connection between neurons

where info processing of the brain occurs

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5
Q

What is white matter composed of? What is its function?

A

composed of axons carrying info between parts of the nervous system

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6
Q

What is meningitis?

A

inflamed or infected meninges
- can be life threatening due to inflammatio nwithin the enclosed cranial cvity putting pressure on teh brain
- both viral and bacterial forms

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7
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

condition when the pathogen gets through the pia mater and infectsthe brain tissue directly (inflammed brain tissue)

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8
Q

What are the meninges?

A

dura mater (periosteal layer, meningeal layer)
arachnoid mater
pia mater

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9
Q

What does the word hematoma breakdown into meaning?

A

hemato - blood
oma - tumor/mass

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10
Q

what is a extradural/epidural hematoma?

lemon shaped

A

rapidy expanding hemorrage under arterial pressure peels the dura away from the inner surface of the skull, forming a lens shaped biconvex hematoma that often does not spread past the cranial sutures where the dura is tightly apposed to the skull

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11
Q

What is a subdural hematoma

cresent or banana shaped

A

subdural hematomas are typically crescent shaped and spread over a large area. density depends on the age of the blood. acute blood is hyperdense and bright on CT. after1-2 weeks the clot liquifies and may appear isodense

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12
Q

Where, in relation to the meingeal layers, is epidural anesthesia administered?

A

outside of dura –> not puncturing meninges

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13
Q
  • processes sensory info from the limbs, trunk and internal organs
  • controls body movemetns directly
  • regulates many visceral functions
  • conduit for the transmitting ascending sensory info and descending motor info to/from the brain
A

spinal cord (cns)

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14
Q

What is the PNS somatic nervous system composed of?

A

nerves and collections of cells within ganglia

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15
Q

What is peripheral neuropathy?
what are some causes and symptoms ?

A

sensory nerve damage:
- unusual sensations
- pain from light touch
- burning
- numbness
- tingling
- balance problems

motor nerve damage:
- muscle cramping
- twitching
- reflex abnormalities

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16
Q

roles of PNS somatic nervous system?

A
  • acts as the interface between teh CNS and the world in relation to the body
  • monitors the condition of the body internally and externally and affects behavioral changes in response to those conditions
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17
Q

roles of PNS autonomic nervous system?

A
  • regulates the visceral organs, vasculature and glands
  • consists of sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
  • division function in harmony
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18
Q

what are the two major cells types in the nervous system?

A
  1. neurons - signaling cells
  2. glia - support cells
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19
Q

What are the parts of a neuron?

A

cell body
axons
dendrites

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20
Q

roll of cell body, axons and dendrites (neurons)

A

cell body: receives many direct inputs
axons: transmit signals ;generate and conduct APs
Dendrites: receive inputs from axons via synapses

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21
Q

Where is a unipolar cell found ?

A

smooth muscle

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22
Q

where is a bipolar cell found?

A

retina

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23
Q

What is the role of a pseudo-unipolar cell?

A

some sensory info

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24
Q

what are the 3 types of multipolar cells?

A
  • motor neuron of spinal cord
  • pyramidal cells of hippocampus
  • purkinje cells of cerebellum
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25
Q

What are afferent signals?

A

sensory, dorsal

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26
Q

what are efferent signals?

A

motor, ventral

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27
Q

sensory neurons:
what is primary (1st order) neuron?
secondary (2nd order) neuron?
teritiary (3rd order) neuron?

A
  1. carry signals from the peripheral receptor to the spinal cord or medulla
  2. carry signals from the spina lcord or medulla to the thalamus
  3. carry signals from the thalamus to the primary seonsry cortex
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28
Q

where are upper motor neurons located?

A

completely in the central nervous system
- cell bodies in cortex or brainstem synapsewit hlower motor neurons

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29
Q

Where are lower motor neurons located?

A

part of neuron is in CNS and part is in the PNS
- cell bodies in the spinal cord or brainstem - axons form spinal and cranial nerves

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30
Q

What are the glia of the CNS?
what are the glia of the PNS?

A

CNS:
- astrocytes
- ependymal cells
- microglial cell
- oligodendrocyte

PNS:
- satellite cell
- schwann cell

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31
Q

functions of astrocyte:

remember connects cell body with blood vessel

A
  1. helps form the blood brain barriet (BBB)
  2. regulates interstitial fluid composition
  3. provides structural support and organization to the CNS
  4. assists with neuronal development
  5. replicates to occupy space of dying neurons
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32
Q

functions of epedymal cell

A
  1. lines centricles of brain and cenral canal of spinal cord
  2. assists in production and circulation of CSF
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33
Q

functions of microglial cell

A
  1. phagocytic cells that move through the cns
  2. protects the CNS by engulfing infectious agents and other potential harmful substances

  • phagyoctic cells = clean up duty; killing off bad stuff
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34
Q

functions of oligodendrocyte

A
  1. myelinates and insulates CNS axons
  2. allows faster action potential propagation along axons in the CNS
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35
Q

functions of satellite cell

A
  1. electrically insulates PNS cell bodies
  2. regulates nutrient and waste exchange for cell bodies in ganglia
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36
Q

functions of shwann cells

A
  1. surrounds and insulates PNS axons and myelinates those having large diameters
  2. allows for faster action potential propagation along an axon in the PNS
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37
Q

what is astrocytoma

A

type of cancer that can form in the brain or spinal cord; originates from astrocytes; most common adult brain tumors

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38
Q

what is glioblastoma

A

most malignant, aggressive and common form of astrocytoma; very abnormal-appearing cells, proliferation, areas of dead tissue and formation of new vessels, pronounced brain invasion and destruction, very fast progression

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39
Q

neuron classification by neurotransmitter

glutamatergic neurons

A
  • glutamate
  • majority produce an EXCITATORY response

so primary exictatory

both this and gabaergic neurons make about ~90% of NT in CNS

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40
Q

neuron classification by neurotransmitter

GABAergic neurons

A
  • y-aminobutyric acid
  • majority produce an inhibitory response

primary inhibitory

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41
Q

neuron classification by neurotransmitter

glycinergic neurons

A
  • glycine
  • majority produce an inhibitory response
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42
Q

neuron classification by neurotransmitter

cholinergic (acetylcholine)

A
  • can produce excitatory, inhibitory, or modulatory responses in CNS
  • excitatory neurontransmitter in the PNS
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43
Q

neuron classification by neurotransmitter

noradrenergic (norepinephrine)

A
  • can produce excitatory, inhibitory or modulatory responses in CNS
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44
Q

neuron classification by neurotransmitter

adrenergic (epinephrine)

A
  • can produce excitatory, inhibitory, or modulatory responses in CNS
45
Q

neuron classification by neurotransmitter

serotonerigc (serotonin)

A
  • can prodcue excitatory, nihibitory, or modulatory responses in CNS
46
Q

neuron classification by neurotransmitter

dompaminergic (dopamine)

A

can produce excitatory, inibitory, or modulatory responses in CNS (basal ganglia)

47
Q

neurotransmitter-drug therapies

drugs acting on the CNS primarily impact the synapse, increasing or decreasing ________ __________ or blocking reuptake of neurotransmitters into the synaptic terminal

A

neurotransmitter release

48
Q

example of neurotransmitter drug therapies

caffeine increases _______ levels inthe brain, promoting alertness

49
Q

example of neurotransmitter drug therapies

benzodiazepines and barbiturates enhance _______ receptor function, causing sedation

50
Q

example of neurotransmitter drug therapies

locally injected botox blocks the release of ________ to reduce the muscles ability to contract

A

achetylcholine

51
Q

ventricular system/CSF

What are ventricles?
how many are there?

A
  • labrynth of CSF-filled cavities that serve various supportive functions

how many?
- 2 lateral ventricles, one in each cerebral hemisphere
- third ventricle in the diencephalon
- fourth ventricle between brainstem and cerebellum

52
Q

ventricular system/CSF

what is CSF?

A

clear, colorless fluid; a mixutre ofwater, proteins (at low concentrations), ions, neurotransmitters and glucose

53
Q

ventricular system/CSF

where is CSF found?

A

occupies ventricular system, the cerebral and spinal subarachnoid spaces and the perivascular spaces in the CNS

54
Q

ventricular system/CSF

what does CSF do?

A

serves to support the CNS (cushion and protect it from physical shock and trauma)
helps remove waste and deliver nutrients

55
Q

ventricular system/CSF

What produces CSF?

A

choroid plexus

56
Q

ventricular system/CSF

what is a modified vascular structure, that produces CSF and is present in each of the 4 ventricles

A

choroid plexus

57
Q

ventricular system/CSF

what is the bulk flow of CSF

A

lateral ventricles –> 3rd and 4th ventricles, outward from teh basal foramina, upward around brainstem –> both the convexities of the hemispheres are downward to spinal subarachnoid space

all in subarachnoid space

58
Q

ventricular system/CSF

how can CSF be used diagnostically?

A
  • sinces it “bathes” the CNS, CSF can pick up chemicals and impurties in the brain and spinal cord
  • analyizing it for bacteria, WBC count, glucose levels, protein or abnomral cells can help identify specific diseases in the CNS
  • a spinal tap/lumbar puncture is a procedure that removes a sample of CSF
58
Q

ventricular system/CSF

What is hydrocephalus

A

break down of word: water/brain

  • inability of the body to absorb cerebrospinal fuids correctly; can also be a result of a narrow channel between ventricles which hinders the proper flow of the fluid.

enlarges ventricles puts a lot of pressure on brain

a symptoms of this could be a headache…what other symtpoms/signs could be present?

59
Q

ventricular system/CSF

waht is a procedure that could be done for hydrocephalus?

A

ventriculoperitoneal shunt

59
Q

knowledge check

what is the name of the passageway between the 3rd and 4th ventricle?

A

the cerebral aqueduct

60
Q

arterial system

what disorders consitutues a major class of nervous system disease?

A

brain vasculature
(like a stroke)

61
Q

arterial system

the principle source of nourishment for the CNS is ________, and _________ is necessary for cell funcion

A

glucos, and oxygen

62
Q

arterial system

brain functions become severely disrupted when?

A

the blood supply of the CNS is interrupted, even briefly

63
Q

arterial system

brain vasculature is closely related to?

A

the ventricular system and CSF
- most CSF is produced continually by the choroid plexus via secretion of ions from blood plasma

64
Q

arterial system

to maintain a constant brain volume, CSF is returned to the blood through?

A

valves between the subarachnoid space and dural sinuses

65
Q

arterial system

What are the 2 arterial systems?

A
  1. anterior (carotid) circulation
  2. posterior (vertebral-basilar) circulation
66
Q

arterial system

the anterior (carotid) circulation is fed by what arteries?

A

internal carotid arteries

67
Q

arterial system

the posterior (vertbral basilar) circulation is fed by what arteries?

A

vertebral arteries

68
Q

arterial system

the diencephalon, midbrain and cortical surface receive blood from?

A

anterior and posterior circulations (cerebral arteries)

69
Q

arterial system

where does teh brainstem receive blood from?

A

only from the posterior circulation

the brain stem namely is the cerebellum, pons, medulla

70
Q

arterial system

why is the brainstem a compromised place?

A

only receives blood supply from the posterior cerebral artery circulation. no anastomosis connected here so if blood supply is losed the brainstem is compromised

70
Q

arterial system

the spinal cord receives blood from?

A

vertebral arteries and systemic circulation (which also supplies muscle, skin and bones)

72
Q

circle of willis

what areas of the circle of willis are at higher risk/severity of a lesion? label them on the circle of wilis

A

places that receive less blood supply.

73
Q

based on the blocked artery, which deficits do you expect to see/which clinical tests would you do?

A

go over circle of willis

74
Q

main parts of the human CNS

what are the two parts of the prosencephalon (forebrain)?

A
  • telencephalon
  • diencephalon
75
Q

what structures make up the telencephalon?

A
  • cerebral hemispheres
  • cerebral cortex
  • subcoritical white matter
  • basal gangalia
  • basla forebrain nuclei
76
Q

What structures make up the diencephalon?

A
  • thalamus
  • hypothalamus
  • epithalamus
77
Q

What structures make up the mesencephalon (midbrain)?

A
  • cerebral peduncles
  • midbrain tectum
  • midbrain tegmentum
78
Q

What are the two parts that make up the rhombencephalon (hindbrain)?

A
  • metencephalon (forms into pons and cerebellum)
  • myelencephalon (forms into medulla oblongata)
79
Q

What structures are apart of the metencephalon (hindbrain)?

A
  • pons
  • cerebellum
80
Q

What structure makes up the myelencephalon?

81
Q

overall embryology

the body and all its structures arise from waht three embryonic tissue layers?

A
  • endoderm
  • mesoderm
  • ectoderm
82
Q

embryology

What is formed from the ectoderm line?

A
  • skin
  • neurons
83
Q

nervous system development

talk about the development of the nervous system starting with the neural plate

A
  • the neural plate is developed from a specialized portion of ectoderm
  • the neural plate then forms a tubelike structure - the NEURAL TUBE- which the neurons and glial cells are derived
  • the neural tube walls form teh CNS adn teh cavity forms the ventricular system which contains CSF
84
Q

nervous ssytem development

the peripheral nervous system is formed from?

A

the neural crest

85
Q

spinal cord development

what stimulates formation of the neural plate?

86
Q

spinal cord development

a specialized set of neurons differentiatse into the ________ ________ _________, which will generate the neurons of the PNS

A

neural crest cells

87
Q

spinal cord development

what closes forming the neural tube?

A

neural groove

88
Q

spinal cord development

once the neural groove closes and forms the neural tube, the nueral crest cells have differentiated into sensory cells of what?

A

of the dorsal root ganglia

89
Q

spinal cord development

tissue around the dorsla root ganglia form the __________, whichh will differentiate into what 2 things?

A
  • somites
  • differentiate into muscles and bones
90
Q

spinal cord development

differentiation of the neural tube creates a dorsal sensory region, the _____ _______; and a ventral, motor region the ________ ________

A

alar plate
basal plate

91
Q

spinal cord development

what differentiates into gray matter?
what is composed of axons/white matter?

A
  • cells in the mantle differentiate into gray matter
  • the marginal layer is composed of axons/white matter
93
Q

what are the 4 different neural tube defects?

A
  • anencephaly
  • hydranencephaly
  • encephalocele
  • spina bifida

A = without Cephalo = brain/head. hydr(o) = water
cele = tumor/swelling

94
Q

cranial neural tube defects

What is anencephaly?

A
  • serious birth defect in which a baby is born without parts of the brain and skull
95
Q

cranial neural tube defects

what is hydranencephaly?

A

serious birth defect in which the brain’s cerebral hemispheres are absent to a great degree and the remaining cavity are filled with CSF

96
Q

cranial neural tube defects

what is encephalocele?

A

smaller skull defect with partial protrusion of the brain, typically in the frontal or occipital region

hydrocephalus is a frequent comorbidity

97
Q

neural tube defects

what is spina bifida

A

a congenital neural tube defect of the spine in which part of the spinal cord and its meninges are exposed through a gap in the backbone

  • spina bifida is the most common of the 4 neural tube defects
97
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

A

incomplete vertebral arch
- no lamina or spinous process; psinal cord, meninges, and CSF are contained inthe spinal canal; skin covering the defect and may be a dimple, a small patch of hair

98
Q

What is meningocele?

A

no lamina or spinous process
- spinal cord is still within the spina lcanal, but there is a protrusion of the meninges and CSF outside of the spinal canal

99
Q

What is myelomeningocele?

A

proturding sac contains components of the spinal cord, meninges and cerebral spinal fluid outside of the spinal canal

100
Q

What are the two malformations associated with hydrocephalus?

swollen ventricles (fluid in the brain)

A
  • chiari type I malformation: herniation of inferior cerebellar vermis
  • chiari type II malformation: caudal herniation
101
Q

disorders of forebrain development

what is holoprosencephaly?
what are risk factors?

A
  • malformation resulting from abnormal gorwth and separation of the developing forebrain

3 types:
- alobar
- semi lobar
- lobar

risk factors:
- maternal DM
- fetal alcohol syndrome
- congenital infections
- trisomy 13
- genetic mutations

102
Q

disorders of neuronal migration?

what is agyria?

A

the brain is virtulaly devoid of surface convolutions expected for age (smooth brain, no sulci/gyri)

103
Q

disorders of neuronal migration

what is pachygyria

pach = thick

A

reduced number of gyri, and gyri present abnormally broad

104
Q

disorders of neuronal migration

What is polymicrogyria

A

numerous abnormally ocnvoluted gyri

105
Q

what deficits if any would be seen in those with agyria? pachygyria? polymicrogyria?

A

agyria:
pachygyria:
polymicrogyria: