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Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of the anatomical position?

A

SHAFT (Standing erect, head facing forward, arms at the side with palm facing forward, feet slightly apart, toes facing forward)

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2
Q

State the layers of the scalp (from superficial to deep)

A

SCALP (Skin, connective tissues, aponeurosis, loose areolar, pericranium)

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3
Q

What are the 8 cranial bones? (PT FOES)

A

PT FOES (parietal, temporal); (frontal, occipital, ethmoid, sphenoid)

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4
Q

What are the paired cranial bones?

A

parietal and temporal

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5
Q

What are the unpaired cranial bones?

A

frontal, occipital, ethmoid, and sphenoid

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6
Q

How many cranial bones are there?

A

There are 8 cranial bones

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7
Q

What are the sutures?

A

This separates one part of the cranial bone from another

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8
Q

This separated two parietal bones.

A

Saggital suture

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9
Q

This separates the frontal from parietal bone.

A

Coronal suture

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10
Q

This separates parietal bones to occipal bone.

A

Lamboidal suture

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11
Q

This separates the parietal and temporal bone.

A

Squamosal suture

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12
Q

What are the facial bones?

A

Vomer, Maxilla, Mandible, Nasal bone, inferior nasal conchae, zygomatic bone, lacrimal bones, palatine

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13
Q

State the paired and unpaired facial bones.

A

Paired: Maxilla, nasal bone, inferior nasal conchae, zygomatic bone, lacrimal bone, palatine bones
Unpaired: Mandible, vomer

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14
Q

This is the moveable and strongest part of the facial bone.

A

Mandible

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15
Q

How many facial bones are there?

A

14

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16
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 pairs

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17
Q

What do you call the nerves attached to the spinal cord?

A

spinal nerves

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18
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs

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19
Q

How many nerves are there that are associated to the PNS?

A

86

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20
Q

What is the function of the somatic nervous system?

A

This is the fight or flight response

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21
Q

What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Rest and digest

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22
Q

Known as the flight or fight response

A

Somatic

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23
Q

Known as the “rest and digest” nervous system.

A

Autonomic

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24
Q

What are the embryonic divisions?

A

ProMeRho (Procencephalon, Mesencephalon, Rhombencelon)

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25
Q

What are the subdivisions of the prosencephalon? How many are there?

A

Telencephalon, diencephalon

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26
Q

This embryonic division is your forebrain.

A

Procencephalon

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27
Q

This embryonic division is your midbrain

A

Mesencephalon

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28
Q

This is the most inferior part of the ebryonic division

A

Rhombencephalon

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29
Q

What are the subdivision/s of mesencephalon? How many are there?

A

Mesencephalon. 1

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30
Q

What are the secondary division/s of the rhombencephalon? How many are there?

A

Metencephalon
Myelencephalon
There are 2

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31
Q

What are the adult structures of telencephalon? How many are there. State what embryonic division is this.

A

BGCH (Basal ganglia, cerebrum, hipocampus)

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32
Q

What are the adult structures of diencephalon? How many are there? State the embryonic division.

A

SHET PI (Subthalamus, Hypothalamus, Epithalmus, Thalamus, Pituitary gland, infindibulum

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33
Q

What are the adult structures of mesencephalon?

A

TT CC (tectum, tegmentum, crus cerebri)

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34
Q

What are the subdivisions of the metencephalon?

A

pons, cerebellum

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35
Q

What are the subdivisions of the myelencephalon?

A

medulla oblongata, spinal cord

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36
Q

What is the largest part of the brain?

A

cerebrum

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37
Q

What are the two parts of the cerebrum?

A

left and right hemisphere

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38
Q

What does the left hemisphere control?

A

logic, language, numbers,

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39
Q

When this hemisphere is damaged, the person may have dyscalculia/acalculia or may have aphasia. What hemisphere is this?

A

left hemisphere

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40
Q

Difference of ideomotor and ideational apraxia

A

ideomotor (can do automatic tasks howere is unable to do command tasks), ideational (cannot do command and automatic tasks)

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41
Q

The patient has difficulty with dressing and undressing. What hemisphere is affected?

A

right hemisphere

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42
Q

The patient has difficulty with automatic and command tasks. What hemisphere is damaged and state the kind of apraxia.

A

Ideational apraxia. Left hemisphere

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43
Q

PART 2

A
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44
Q

What are the four lobes?

A

Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital

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45
Q

What is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A

Motor, language, procedural memory, analytical thinking, behavior, emotions, cognition, judgement, intelligence, personality

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46
Q

What is the parietal lobe responsible for?

A

sensation and perception

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47
Q

What is the temporal lobe responsible for?

A

hearing, smelling, and memory

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48
Q

What is the occipital lobe responsible for?

A

vision

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49
Q

What is the name and function of the BA4? What happens if there is a lesion?

A

Primary motor; this executes the movement. Lesion in this area may lead to flaccidity

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50
Q

What is the name of BA6? What happens if there is a lesion in BA6?

A

Premotor cortex; problems with movements, such as modifications of movement. Lesion in this area may lead to spasticity

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51
Q

What is BA8? What happens if there lesion there?

A

Frontal eyefield. Problems in this area may lead to frontal gaze palsy

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52
Q

What is BA9-12? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

Prefrontal. There will be behavioral changes.

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53
Q

What is BA44? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

Broca’s area. Broca’s aphasia

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54
Q

What are the Brodmann Areas that are under the frontal lobe area?

A

BA 4 & 6, BA 8, BA 9-12, BA 44

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55
Q

What are the Brodmann areas in the parietal lobe?

A

BA 3, 2, & 1, BA 5 & 7, BA 39, BA 40, BA 43

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56
Q

What is BA 3, 1, 2? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

primary somatosensory area; difficulties with sensation–it will lead to hemianesthesia

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57
Q

What is BA 5, 7? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

secondary somatosensory area; there will be inability to know the real sensory stimuli–tactile agnosia

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58
Q

What is BA39? What happens if there is a lesion in that area?

A

Angular gyrus; Gertsmann Syndrome

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59
Q

What is BA40? What happens if there is a lesion in that area?

A

Supramarginal gyrus. It may lead to ideomotor apraxia, somatoagnosia (soma meaning body, may problem with identifying body parts)

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60
Q

What is BA43? What happens if there is a lesion in that area?

A

Gustatory area. If there is lesion it will lead to aguesia (loss of taste)

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61
Q

What are the BA’s area in the temporal lobe?

A

Wernicke’s (22), primary auditory and secondary auditory brodmann areas (41 & 42)

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62
Q

What is BA 41? What happens if there is lesion in this area?

A

Primary auditory, deafness

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63
Q

What is BA 42? What happens if there is lesion in this area?

A

secondary auditory, difficulty with processing the hearing also known as secondary dysprosody

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64
Q

What is BA 22? What happens if there is lesion in this area?

A

Wernicke’s, Wernicke’s aphasia

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65
Q

What are the Brodmann area’s of the occipital lobe?

A

BA 17, 18, 19

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66
Q

What brodmann area is the primary visual? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

BA 17. Blindness

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67
Q

What is brodmann area 18 and 19? What happens if there is lesion in this area?

A

Visual association; it will lead to visual hallucination, visual agnosia if both hemisphere

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68
Q

What are the commissural fiber?

A

This connects corresponding regions of two hemispheres

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69
Q

This structure of the brain is considered as the greatest commissure.

A

Corpus callosum

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70
Q

This connects various cortical regions within the same hemisphere.

A

Association fiber

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71
Q

This structure is the greatest association fiber.

A

Arcuate fasciculus

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72
Q

This connects the cerebral hemisphere with interior structures–distant connection

A

Projection fibers

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73
Q

______ are considered as projection fibers.

A

Tracts

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74
Q

What are the anatomical structures of the basal ganglia?

A

CPG (caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, putamen)

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75
Q

This composes of the CPG (caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, putamen)

A

Corpus striatum

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76
Q

What is under neostriatum?

A

Caudate nucleus, putamen

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77
Q

What is under lentiform?

A

Putamen, Globus pallidus

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78
Q

This is the other name of globus pallidus

A

Paleostriatum

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79
Q

What are the excitatory neurotransmitters? (AGE)

A

Acetycholine, Glutamate, Epinepherine/norepinephrine

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80
Q

What are the inhibitory neurotransmitters? State the areas of which they are most concentrated in.

A

GABA, dopamine, glycine
GABA is most concentrated on cerebral cortex
Glycine is most concentrated on spinal cord
Dopamine is most concentrated on corpus striatum

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81
Q

What is the function of the subthalamus?

A

Motor control

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82
Q

What is the function of the suprachiasmatic nucleus?

A

Circadian rhythm–sleep-wake cycle

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83
Q

What is the function of preoptic medial nucleus?

A

sex drive and libido

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84
Q

What is the function of anterior of posterior hypothalamus?

A

regulates the temperature; anterior - removes the heart, posterior - puts heat inside

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85
Q

What is the function of lateral hypothalamus?

A

“l” for laklak, also the hunger and thirst center

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86
Q

What is the function of medial hypothalamus?

A

“musog” for satiety

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87
Q

What are the two components of the epithalamus?

A

Pineal gland and habenular nuclei

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88
Q

What is the function of the pineal gland?

A

Secretes melatonin–induces sleep

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89
Q

What is the function of the habenular nuclei?

A

Responsible for sensation such as olfaction (smell)

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90
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Responsible for the sensory relay center except for olfaction

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91
Q

This structure is also known as the little brain, located at the posterior aspect of the skull.

A

cerebellum

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92
Q

What is the difference between cerebrum and cerebellum?

A

The cerebrum controls the contralateral side of the body while the cerebellum controls the ipsilateral (same side)

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93
Q

What are the main functions of cerebellum?

A

coordination, balance, and muscle tone

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94
Q

What is the function of the brainstem?

A

Bridge all tracts and is considered as the reflex center. Cranial nerves III-XII are found here.

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95
Q

What cranial nerves are found in the midbrain?

A

CN III, IV

96
Q

What cranial nerves are found in the pons?

A

CN V, VI, VII, VIII

97
Q

What cranial nerves are found in the medulla oblongata?

A

CN IX-XII

98
Q

What separates the medulla oblangata?

A

foramen magnum

99
Q

This is where the spinal cord tapers off (it is where the spinal cord is fading)

A

conus medullaris

100
Q

This is the prolongation of the pia mater; attached to the coccyx

A

filum terminale

101
Q

What is the Bell Magendie Law

A

Ventral & Dorsal
Ventral/Anterior - efferent (motor)
Dorsal - afferent (sensory)

102
Q

Px has ventral spinal cord lesion, what happens to the patient?

A

motor problems

103
Q

Px has dorsal spinal cord lesion, what happens to the patient?

A

sensory problems

104
Q

PART 3

A
105
Q

What are meninges?

A

These are the layers of the brain

106
Q

What are the three layers of the meninges?

A

DAP (Dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater)

107
Q

What is the outermost aka pachymeninx?

A

Dura mater

108
Q

It is the middle part of the meninges

A

arachnoid

109
Q

What is the inner most layer of the meninges?

A

pia mater

110
Q

What are leptomeninges?

A

pia mater + arachnoid

111
Q

What are ventricles?

A

cavities that contain the CBF

112
Q

What is the function of the cerebrospinal fluids (csf)? (PINCH)

A

Protection, Intracranial pressure regulation, Nutrition, Cushion, Homeostasis

113
Q

What is the choroid plexus?

A

Main producer of the CBF

114
Q

What is the biggest ventricle?

A

Lateral ventricles

115
Q

What is the interventricular foramen?

A

foramen monroe

116
Q

State the CSF Flow

A

Choroid plexus, lateral ventricles, intraventricular foramen (foramen monroe), third ventricle, cerebral aqueduact of sylivus, 4th ventticle, openings (foramen magendie, foramen luschka), central canal, subarachnoid space, arachnoid villi

117
Q

What are the main arteries?

A
  • Internal carotid artery (OAMPoC)
  • Basilar artery (A Pon Las Po)
  • Vertebral artery (Men PAMP)subarachnoid space (10) arachnoice villi
118
Q

What are the branches of ICA?

A

Opthalmic, Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA), Medial Cerebral Artery, Posterior Communicating Artery (PCA)

119
Q

What happens if there is lesion in the ACA?

A

Problems with LE > UE

120
Q

What does the ACA supply?

A

Supplies corpus callosum and Basal Ganglia

121
Q

This is the largest branch or terminal branch of ICA, and supplies mostly the lateral portion of the cerebral cortex. This is also the most common stroke.

A

MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery)

122
Q

When a person has MCA, which is the most affected?

A

CVA affectations: UE x Face > LE; aphasia, dysphagia

123
Q

This connects anterior and posterior circulation and junction between 2 ICA and terminal branches of basilar artery.

A

Posterior communication artery

124
Q

This is the 1st branch of the basilar artery. This supplies pons and cerebellum.

A

Anterior Inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)

125
Q

Supplies the pons and is found in basilar artery

A

Pontine Artery

126
Q

This supplies internal ear

A

Labrynthine artery

127
Q

Supplies the midbrain

A

Superior cerebellar artery (SCA)

128
Q

This is the terminal branch of the basilar artery. It supplies the thalamus and subthalamus. CVA affectation would be vision.

A

Posterior cerebral artery

129
Q

What are the branches of Vertebral artery?

A

Men PAMP (Meningeal artery, posterior spinal artery, anterior spinal artery, medullary artery, pica (posterior inferior cerebellar artery)

130
Q

This branch supplies the meninges

A

Meningal artery

131
Q

This supplies posterior 1/3 of spinal cord

A

Posterior spinal artery

132
Q

This supplies anterior 2/3 of spinal cord

A

Anterior spinal artery

133
Q

Supplies medulla oblongata

A

Medullary Artery

134
Q

Considered as the brainstem stroke

A

PICA (Posterior inferior cerebellar artery)

135
Q

This kind of stroke has greater affectations in the upper extremeties and face. Contralateral hemiplegia.

A

MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery)

136
Q

What are the symptoms of people with MCA?

A

Aphasia, dysphagia, contralateral hemiplegie (UE and face > LE) contralateral hemianesthesia UE x Face > LE, Frontal gaze palsy, contralateral hemianopsia, aphasia/aprosodia, apraxia,

137
Q

State what kind of stroke. Inability to stand and walk and has no to little reaction.

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery

138
Q

May exhibit primitive reflexes and may have disconnection apraxia. The person may also exhibit uninhibited neurogenic bladder.

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery

139
Q

Kind of stroke that has frontal gaze palsy. Apraxia and dysphagia.

A

MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery)

140
Q

Has gegenhalten and pseudobulbar affect

A

Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

141
Q

Visual impairment and ballint’s syndrome

A

Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

142
Q

Hemisensory deficit or thalamic pain

A

Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

143
Q

What is the Ballint’s syndrome? What kind of stroke will the patient have?

A

PCA. Symptoms include the following:
* Optic apraxia
* Oculomotor apraxia
* Simultagnosia -> inability to know the general picture

144
Q

This is filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It only extends inferiorly as far as the second sacral vertebral and contains cerebral arteries, veins, and cranial nerves.

A

subarchnoid space

145
Q

PART 4

A
146
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 pairs

147
Q

What cranial nerves are sensory?

A

CN I, CN II, CN VIII (3)

148
Q

What cranial nerves are motor?

A

CN 3, 4, 6, 11, 12

149
Q

What cranial nerves are mixed?

A

CN V, CN VII, CN IX, CN X

150
Q

Where is the exit point of CN I? State the name of this CN.

A

Olfactory Nerve. Cribriform Plate

151
Q

Where is the exit point of CN II? State the name of this CN.

A

Optic Nerve. Exit point: Optic Canal

152
Q

Where are the exit points of CN III, IV, CN V - V1 (Opthalmic division), CN VI?

A

CN III Oculomotor, CN IV Trochlear, CN V Trigeminal (V1 - Opthalmic Division), CN VI Abducens; Exit: Superior Orbital Fissure

153
Q

This CN has three branches. What CN is this? What is V1, V2, V3 of this CN?

A

CN V Trigeminal Nerve
V1 - Opthalmic
V2 - Maxillary
V3 - Mandibular

154
Q

Where is the exit point of V2 of Trigeminal Nerve?

A

Foramen rotundum

155
Q

Where is the exit point of V3 of Trigeminal Nerve?

A

Foramen ovale

156
Q

Where is the exit point of CN VII and VIII?

A

Internal Acoustic Meatus

157
Q

Where are the exit points of CN IX, CN X, CN XI?

A

Jugular Foramen

158
Q

Where is the exit point of CN XII?

A

Hypoglossal Canal

159
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin in the diencephalon?

A

CN II

160
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin in the telencephalon?

A

CN I

161
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin at midbrain?

A

CN III, CN IV

162
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin at pons?

A

CN V, VI, VII, VIII

163
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin at the medulla oblongata

A

CN IX - CN XII

164
Q

What is the general function of the CN I? Lesion in this area will lead to what?

A

Smell. Anosmia

165
Q

What is the function of CN II?

A

Sight

166
Q

What is the function of CN III?

A

Constrict pupils, accomodates, moves eyes

167
Q

What is the function of CN IV and VI?

A

Eye movement

168
Q

What is the function of CN V?

A

Chewing, sensation of the front of the face

169
Q

What is the function of CN VII?

A

Movement of facial features, taste, salivation, crying

170
Q

What is the function of CN VIII?

A

Hearing and balance

171
Q

What is the function of CN IX?

A

Taste, salivation, swallowing, monitors carotid body and sinus

172
Q

What is the function of CN X?

A

Taste, swallowing, lifts palate, supplies at the thorax and abdomen

173
Q

What is the function of CN XI?

A

Turns head and lifts shoulder

174
Q

What is the function of CN XII?

A

Tongue movement

175
Q

How many pairs does spinal nerves have?

A

31 pairs

176
Q

What are the plexuses?

A

cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

177
Q

State the lesion given the following:

A
178
Q

Hypertonia

A

UMNL

179
Q

Hypotonio

A

LMNL

180
Q

Flaccidity

A

LMNL

181
Q

Hyperreflexia or Increased deep tendon reflex

A

UMNL

182
Q

Atrophy (disused) - what you do not use, you will loose

A

UMNL

183
Q

Atrophy (denervated); severe muscle wasting

A

LMNL

184
Q

Pathologic reflexes

A

UMNL

185
Q

Spontaneous muscle activity: fasciculation, fibrillation, and muscle cramps

A

LMNL

186
Q

Hyporeflexia or decreased deep tendon reflex

A

LMNL

187
Q

Affected structures are corticospinal tract and corticobulbar tracts

A

UMNL

188
Q

Cranial nerve lesion and spinal nerve lesion

A

LMNL

189
Q

Contralateral lower quadrant palsy of face

A

UMNL

190
Q

Ipsilateral half palsy of face

A

LMNL

191
Q

Pseudobulbar palsy, pseudobulbar affect and emotional incontinence

A

UMNL

192
Q

Bulbar palsy

A

LMNL

193
Q

A 55-year-old male presents with progressive weakness, stiffness, and spasticity in his legs.
He has difficulty walking and complains of muscle cramps.
Where is the potential lesion? UMN or LMN?

A

UMNL

194
Q

A 25-year-old female experienced a sudden onset of facial droop, difficulty speaking, and weakness in her right arm.Symptoms have worsened over the past hour.

A

UMNL

195
Q

A newborn infant is noted to have difficulty feeding, weak cry, and decreased muscle tone. On examination, there is tongue fasciculation and absent reflexes.

A

LMNL

196
Q

It is the smalled functional element controlled by the motor control system

A

Motor unit

197
Q

POST-LECTURE QUIZ

A
198
Q

It supplies the entire lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere except for the narrow strip, occipital pole, and inferolateral surface of the hemisphere.

A

MCA (Middle cerebral artery)

199
Q

The space that is entered during a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid sample is the:

A

Subarachnoid space

200
Q

The arcuate fasciculus connects regions in the temporal lobes with regions in the frontal lobes and is one type of fiber tract.

A

Association

201
Q

Brodmann area 44, or the _____ area, is an important area in spoken language.

A

Broca’s

202
Q

A short tube joining the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle in the midbrain:

A
203
Q

State the correct cerebrospinal fluid flow from formation, circulation to absorption.

A

Choroid plexus, lateral ventricles, foramen monro, third ventricle, sylvian aquedact, fourth ventricle, openings, foramen of magendie, foramen of luschka, subarachnoid space, arachnoid villi, superior sagittal sinus

204
Q

This _____ is the basic unit of the nervous system

A

neuron

205
Q

What is the deepest brain covering?

A

Pia mater

206
Q

Main site of absorption of the CSF flow

A

arachnoid villi

207
Q

CBF is formed primarily by specialized tissue in the ventricles called

A

choroid plexus

208
Q

Executive functions such as reasoning, planning, and problem solving are associated with the operation of the _____ lobe

A

Left

209
Q

Carries impulses to the brain

A

afferent fibers

210
Q

In the cranial cavity, this structures act as the outermost covering for the brain, but also as the lining membrane on the inner surfaces of the bones. It also gives valuable support to the brain, the partitions preventing shifting thereby safeguarding the brain against injury.

A

Dura mater

211
Q

The CBF serves as the following functions

A

PINCH (Protection, Intracranial pressure regulation, Nutrition, Buoyancy for the brain serving as a mechanical cushion, Preserves homeostasis in the nervous system)

212
Q

Junction formed by the terminal branches of the basilar artery and the two internal carotid arteries:

A

Posterior communicating arteries

213
Q

Which of the following statements concern the subarachnoid space?
a. It is filled with cerebrospinal fluid
b. It extends inferiorly as far as the fourth sacral vertebra
c. The cerebral arteries and veins are not located in subarachnoid space
d. The cranial nerves lie outside the subarachnoid space in sheaths derived from the dura mater

A

a. It is filled with CBF

Explanation: The subarachnoid space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It only extends inferiorly as far as the second sacral vertebral and contains cerebral arteries, veins, and cranial nerves.

214
Q

Ataxic dysarthria is related to a lesion of ________

A

Cerebellum

The cerebellum serves a comparator function during motor control and helps coordinate all movements underlying an action. Focal lesions to the cerebellar cortex result in articulatory overshoot or undershoot, dyscoordination, and degraded.

215
Q

Gertsmann syndrome is characterized by agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and left-right disorientation. This occurs as a result of injury to which lobe of the brain?

A

Parietal

216
Q

Discrete muscle movements relating to
swallowing, chewing and facial movement are
elicited more readily from stimulation of which part
of the Primary motor area?

A

Lateral

217
Q

Cranial nerve responsible for salivation via parotid gland

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve

218
Q

Cranial nerve affected supplies the stylopharyngeus

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve

219
Q

Cranial nerve responsible for taste sensation of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve

220
Q

All of the following are characteristics of the accessory nerve except?
a.) Divided into cranial accessory and spinal accessory nerves
b.) in charge of movement of tongue
c.) elevates shoulders, rotates and flexes the neck
d.) only has motor function

A

b.) in charge of movement of the tongue

221
Q

Cranial nerve responsible for the sensation of the face

A

Trigeminal Nerve CN V

222
Q

The human peripheral nervous system is composed of _______.
I. 10 pairs of cranial nerves
II. 12 pairs of cranial nerves
III. 31 pairs of spinal nerves
IV. 33 pairs of spinal nerves

A

12 pairs of cranial nerves

223
Q

How many facial bones do we have?

A

14

224
Q

Cranial bones consist of how many bones?

A

8

225
Q

Only unpaired bones in the facial bones

A

Vomer
Mandible

226
Q

Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
a.) Parietal
b.) Nasal
c.) Maxillae
d.) Zygomatic
e/) Palatine

A

A.) Parietal

It is a cranial bone

227
Q

Aponeurosis is more superficial than loose connective tissue? True or False

A

True

228
Q

The following are muscles of forced expiration except:
a.) Innermost intercostals
b.) Transversus thoracis
c.) Pectoralis major
d.) Transeversus abdominis

A

Pectoralis major is an accessory muscle of inspiration

229
Q

It is the volume of air exchanged in one respiratory cycle

A

Vital capacity

230
Q

The facial muscle constricts oral opening

A

Orbicularis oris

231
Q

The terminal branch of the internal carotid artery

A

Middle cerebral artery

232
Q

An important structure adjacent to the brainstem
that contains the hypothalamus (which controls
emotions) and the thalamus (which relays sensory
impulses to various portions of the cerebral cortex)
is called the

A

Diencephalon

233
Q

Cavities within the brain and are filled with CBF

A

Ventricles

234
Q

Occlusion of the main trunk of the MCA produces the following except:
a.) Aphasia if occlusion in the dominant hemisphere
b.) Decreased sensation in the same regions
c.) Paralysis of the opposite side of the body
d.) Paralysis of the same side of the body

A

d.) Paralysis of the same side of the body

235
Q

The corpus striatum is composed of three nuclear masses, which are the

A

Caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus

236
Q

The structure that regulates body posture, equilibrium, and coordinated fine motor movements is the

A

Cerebrum

SLP (3 decks)

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