Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

Astrocyte

A

Ensheath synapses, regulate excitability, synaptic transmission, secretes ECM, involved in neurogenesis and cell migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Microglia

A

Highly motile phagocytic scavenger, responsive to injury, infection, and electric activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ependymal cell

A

lining on the ventricles and central canal, production of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), rich in mitochondria and microvilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Oligodendrocyte

A

provides myelin, exert axonal metabolic support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Satellite

A

assist in regulating the external chemical environment, synaptic transmission, and excitability, secrete ECM, involved in cell migration, are very sensitive to injury and may exacerbate pathological pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Schwann cell

A

provides myelin, axonal metabolic support, axonal pathfiniding during nerve development and regeneration, production of the ECM that forms the endoneurium, modulation of neuromuscular synaptic activity, and presentation of antigens to T-lymphocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unipolar associates with…

A

Sensory ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Unipolar structure

A

Has a round soma and one single neurite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bipolar structure

A

Has oblong soma and two neurites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Afferent/Sensory Division and Function

A

Somatic vs. Visceral
Transmits AP from the periphery (body) to the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Efferent/Motor Division and Function

A

Carries action potentials away from the CNS towards the periphery (body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

Subdivision of efferent motor involuntary control: sympathetic and parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sympathetic

A

Process the body’s fight-or-flight response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Parasympathetic

A

Process the body’s “rest-and-digest” response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe neurons

A
  • Long axons
  • Vertebrate axon are insulated with myelin composed of oligodendrocytes in CNS and Schwann cells in PNS
  • Rapid conduction of electrical signals
  • Unidirectional manner
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe neuronal synapses
(Pre/Post/Space)

A
  • Presynatic axonal terminal has membrane vesicles containing neurotransmitters.
  • Postsynaptic dendrites in form of dendritic spines containing receptors.
  • Aqueous space in between allow diffusion of water soluble neurotransmitter.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe neuronal spines

A

Composed of:
- receptors of neurotransmitters and neuromodulators (NMDAR, AMPAR)
- Proteins stabilize synaptic architect
- Postsynaptic density has signaling proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Neutro:astrocytes ratio?

A

1:1 - 1:4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

From glycolysis, what product is the key intermediate metabolite to make glutamate?

A

alpha-ketoglutarate from Krebs cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can alpha-KG convert to glutamate?

A

By putting in NH2 which is a by-product when alanine is converted to pyruvate (which is for Krebs cycle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What can glutamate converted into?

A
  • alpha-KG (by GDH)
  • vesicular glutamate (VGLUT)
  • GABA
  • Glutathione/protein
  • Glutamine* (form loop to convert back to glutamate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Difference between glutamate and GABA

A

Glutamate is excitatory, GABA is inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What amino acids glutamate derived from?

A

Glucose, alanine, and glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe nerve terminal in glutamate neurotransmission?

A
  • Composed of synaptic vesicles with glutamate transporters; mitochondria with glutaminase (break down glutamine to form glutamate); metabotropic glutamate receptor (to enhance neurotransmission); glutamate transporter (EAAT2); glutamine transporter (SA).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What components are on dendritic spine in glutamate neurotransmission? (receiving end)

A
  • Glutamate receptors (AMPA and NMDA)
  • Glutamate transporters (EAAT 3/4)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe surrounding astrocyte in glutamate neurotransmission?

A
  • Glutamate (EAAT 1 and 2) and Glutamine (SN) transporter.
  • Glutamate converted to glutamine before exiting astrocytes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe biophysical properties of synaptic AMPA and NMDA receptors
(Think of the wave graph)

A

EPSC = brief fAst AMPA + prolonged slow NMDA
(EPSC = excitatory postsynaptic currents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Compare ionotrophic vs. metabotrophic of glutamate signaling

A
  • Iono: NMDA, AMPA, Kainate = ligand-gated ion channels
  • Meta: IP3 + CA2+ for excitatory; cAMP for inhibitory = G-coupled proteins.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe GABA shunt

A
  • GABA-T (t = transaminase) removes GABA by directly forming succinic samialdehyde (SSA) via transamination with alpha-KG, which also reforms glutamate.
  • GAD + glutamate produces GABA and CO2
  • Succinic (SSA) is oxidized by nad AND SSA dehydrogenase (SSADH) to NADH+ and succinate (re-enter Krebs cycle).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe donut model of GABA(A)

A
  • Five subunit (alpha-beta-alpha-beta-gamma)
  • Five subunit interfaces (1-5)
  • Ligand binding pockets for GABA and benzodiazepine
  • Peptide loops (A-E) at subunit interfaces allowing GABA to bind.
  • Pore in the center represents Cl- channel.
  • Loops are homologous
  • Requires GABA binds first, then BZ facilitates/enhances the effect.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe function of GABA(b) receptors

A
  • Metabotropic receptors with STRONG dimers.
  • Stimulate opening of K+ channels for K+ to flow OUT (post-synaptic)
  • Cause HYPERpolarizing of neurons.
  • PREVENT opening of sodium channel and calcium channels (VDCC) [in presynap] and ultimately firing AP.
  • Stop neurotransmitter release
  • Decrease cAMP activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Difference dorsal root ganglion vs. Ventral root?

A

Sensory goes dorsal, motor goes ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Principle of divergence?

A

1 neuron to communicate with many other neurons .
- Parasympathetic: 1:4
- Sympathetic: 1:20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Principle of convergence?

A

1 neuron to RECEIVE input from many neurons
- Sympathetic > Parasympathetic

34
Q

What’s tonic control?

A
  • State of continuous activity. Both divisions are active.
  • Effector organ receive competing inputs from sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
35
Q

What does visceral sensory neurons do?

A

They respond to stretching, temperature, chemical changes, irritation and pain (from viscera, glands, blood vessels)

36
Q

What route does visceral sensory neurons transmit information through?

A

general visceral afferent

37
Q

Collections of nerve cell bodies inside the PNS are called

A

ganglia

38
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system influences function in all of these organs except? (adrenal glands, heart, pupillary smooth muscles, salivary glands)

A

Adrenal gland (remember, adrenaline!)

39
Q

Paravertebral or sympathetic chain ganglia contain the cell bodies of what kind of neurons?

A

Sympathetic postganglion neurons

40
Q

Some of the nerves that innervate the lymph nodes have been determined to be adrenergic suggesting that the ______ may influence lymph node activity.

A

Sympathetic system

41
Q

Prevertebral ganglia contain the cells bodies of which kind of neurons?

A

Postganglion sympathetic neurons

42
Q

The synapse between the preganglionic and postganglionic neuron in the parasympathetic nervous system is found in …?

A

Terminal or intramural ganglia

43
Q

Mydriasis is the physiological action of dilation of the pupil which is under the control of ____ inervation.

A

Sympathetic

44
Q

Autonomic innervation of the heart

A

The heart is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems and they have opposite effects on the heart.

45
Q

The autonomic outflow from the lumbar segments of the spinal cord contains ____ neurons whereas the sacral spinal cord contains ____ neurons.

A

Sympathetic preganglionic // Parasympathetic preganglionic

46
Q

Sequence of a typical reflex arc?

A

Receptor – afferent neurons — interneurons – efferent neurons – effector (tough a hot plate!)

47
Q

Activity of facial nerves (#7)

A

salivation, lacrimation

48
Q

Activity of glossopharyngeal nerve (#9)

A

chemoreception, baroreception, swallowing and salivation

49
Q

Activity of oculomotor (#3)

A

Pupillary constriction and accommodation

50
Q

Activity of sacral

A

Bladder constriction, erection of external genitalia

51
Q

Activity of vagus (#10)

A

visceral sensation, chemoreception, baroreception, control of parasympathetic centers

52
Q

A state of continuous activity is referred as

A

Tonic

53
Q

The secretion of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of the ______.

A

sympathetic stimulation

54
Q

Where would you not find a cholinergic nicotinic receptor?

A

Parasympathetic target organs (because it has mAChR)

55
Q

Effects of the sympathetic division (FIGHT AND FLIGHT!) include all EXCEPT

A

increase motility of the viscera

56
Q

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the _____.

A

Hypothalamus

57
Q

Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ____.

A

NE and epinephrine are secreted into the bloodstream

58
Q

The route of MAJOR parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the _____.

A

vagus nerve

59
Q

Alpha and beta receptors are classes of ______ receptors.

A

adrenergic

60
Q

Cholinergic receptors are either nicotinic or ______.

A

Muscarinic

61
Q

The parasympathetic division uses only ______ as a neurotransmitter.

A

acetycholine

62
Q

NE and epinerphrine are ______ secreted by the medulla of the adrenal glands.

A

catecholamines

63
Q

The _____ respond to stretching, temperature, chemical changes, irritations and pain from viscera, glands, and blood vessels.

A

visceral sensory neurons

64
Q

The response of the visceral reflex arc is produced by preganglionic fibers emerging from spinal cord’s _____.

A

Lateral horn

65
Q

Autonomic ganglia are ____ ganglia made up of cell bodies of multipolar neurons, whereas dorsal root ganglia are ____ ganglia of unipolar neurons.

A

motor (efferent) /// sensory (afferent)

66
Q

The _____ ganglia are located within the walls of the target organ.

A

intramural

67
Q

What is RAS?

A

Reticular Activating System - important for complex network of interconnected nuclei throughout the brainstem that govern basic functions of somatic (premotor), cardiovascular, pain, sleep, habituation.

68
Q

Components of meninges

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater (with trabeculae, space and villi), pia mater

69
Q

CSF production

A

Choroid plexus

70
Q

Location of CSF circulation?

A

subarachnoid space

71
Q

CSF absorption

A

Venous sinuses, arachnoid villi

72
Q

Pathway of CSF circulation

A

Lateral ventricle - foramen monro (4 mens in a row) - 3rd ventricle - aqueduct of Sylvius (thin woman named Sylvia) - 4th ventricle - Median Magendie to Central canal to subarachnoid OR Lateral Luschka to subarachnoid space - arachnoid villi - dorsal sagittal sinus

73
Q

Hydrocephalus (congenital)

A

Malformations interfere with CSF flow causing expansion of ventricular system. Most common stenosis of aqueduct of Sylvius.

74
Q

Hydrocephalus (acquired)

A
  • Neoplasia
  • Inflammation (FIP)
  • Dural fibrosis
  • Occipital bone hypoplasia
75
Q

Characteristics of CSF
(High/low values)

A

High % of water and Cl- value; equal Na+ and Osmolarity, the rest is low.

76
Q

Ependymocytes

A
  • Rich in mitochondria
  • Linked to by desmosomes
  • Apical microvilli and cilia
  • Basal membrane infoldings
77
Q

Tanycytes

A
  • Located at 3rd ventricles
  • Linked by tight junctions
  • Apical microvilli, one or no cillium
  • Basal membrane protrusions contact blood vessels and hypothalamic neurons
78
Q

Blood-CSF barrier. Location? Ultrafiltration? Clinical implication?

A

1) L: choroidal epithelial cells, pial endothelium and basal membrane
2) U: restrictive passage from blood to CSF.
3) C: higher protein content

79
Q

Arachnoid-CSF barrier. Location? Ultrafiltration? Clinical implication?

A

L: arachnoid villi and venous sinus.
One-way valve, flow from arachnoid space to venous sinus
Clinical: external hydrocephalus

80
Q

Blood brain barrier. Location? Ultrafiltration? Clinical implication?

A

L: neurovascular unit brain microvascular endothelium, pericyte, astrocytic end-feet and basal lamina
C: antibodies, antibiotics, many drugs and contrast agent cannot cross BBB.

81
Q

What is the cortex?

A

The outer zone of neural tissue that contains neuronal cell bodies or somata, organized in layers of laminae - cerebral and cerebellar

82
Q

What is nucleus? nuclei?

A

Cluster of neuron (gray matter) with similar or related function located deep into cerebral hemispheres and brainstem.

83
Q

Tract or fibers

A

Bundles of axons