nephro condensed Flashcards

1
Q

drug causes of acute interstitial nephritis

A

penicillin
rifampicin
NSAIDs
allopurinol
furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

non drug causes of acute interstitial nephritis

A

sarcoid
SLE, sjogrens
Hanta virus
staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

features of acute interstitial nephritis

A

fever, rash, arthralgia
eosinophilia
HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pre-renal uraemia biochemistry

A

sodium is retained to maintain intravascular volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SGLT2 inhibitor mechanism

A

inhibits glucose and sodium reabsorption at PCT
causes natiuresis
Increases sodium reaching macula densa which normalises tubuloglomerular feedback and reduces intraglomerular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treating ADPKD

A

tolvaptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HLADR2 associated with

A

anti GBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pulmonary haemorrhage associated with

A

anti GBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AL amyloidosis features

A

macroglossia, periorbital eccymosis
nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

causes of AL amyloidosis

A

myeolma
waldrenstrom
MGUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causes of hyperchloraemic acidosis

A

GI loss
renal tubular acidosis
acetazolamide
Addisons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

features of calciphylaxis

A

painful necrotic lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

precipitants of calciphylaxis

A

ESRF
warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

managing proteinuria

A

ACEi/ARB
SGLT2i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

testing for cystinuria

A

cyanide nitroprusside test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cystinuria genetics

A

recessive
chromo 2 SLC3A1
chromo 19 SLC7A9
COLA defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

managing cystinuria

A

D penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

demeclocycline
high calcium
low potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

managing nephrogenic DI

A

thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

kimmelstiel wilson

A

stage 4 diabetic nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

causes of fanconi

A

cystinosis
sjogrens
myeloma
wilsons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

causes of diffuse proliferative GN

A

post strep
SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

causes of membranoproliferative GN

A

1: cryoglobulinaemia, hep c
2: lipodystrophy
3: hep b/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tram track appearance

A

membranoproliferative GN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
c3b
type 2 membranoproliferative GN
26
causes of minimal change disease
hodgkin, thymoma NSAIDs EBV rifampicin
27
causes of membranous GN
malignancy infection rheumatoid drugs (gold, penicillamine, NSAIDs)
28
spike and dome
membranous GN
29
mesangial hypercellularity
IgA nephropathy
30
IgA nephropathy is associated with what conditions?
coeliac dermatitis herpetiformis alcoholic cirrhosis
31
low complement GN
post strep bacterial endocarditis SLE membranoproliferative type 2
32
managing HURS
plasma exchange if not associated with diarrhoea eculizimab C5i
33
what drug can cause crystal obstruction?
indinavir
34
hyperkalaemia ECG changes
tall Ts no P broad QRS
35
what drug can cause hyperkalaemia?
ACEi
36
antiphospholipase A2 is associated with what?
membranous GN
37
string of beads appearance
fibromuscular dysplasia
38
causes of papillary necrosis
sickle cell TB DM pyelonephritis
39
abx for dialysis
vanc + cefotaxime vanc + cipro
40
post strep antibodies
IgG, IgM, C3
41
starry sky, lumpy deposits
post strep GN
42
alkaptonuria
increase homo acid black urine, pigmented sclera
43
managing alkaptonuria
vit D reduced phenylalanine and tyrosine diet
44
bicalutamide
non steroidal anti androgen
45
cyproterone acetate
anti androgen stops DHT binding
46
abiratone
prevents androgen synthesis
47
docetaxel
chemo agent for prostate ca
48
renal cell ca originates where?
PCT epithelium
49
renal cell ca endocrine
EPO PTHrP renin ACTH raised IL6
50
renal cell ca gastro effects
hepatomegaly cholestasis
51
causes of retroperitoneal fibrosis
inflammatory AAA riedels thyroiditis sarcoid radiotherapy methyserigide
52
what drugs can cause calcium stones?
loop diuretics steroids acetazolamide theophylline
53
ciclosporin mechanism
inhibits calcineurin prevents T cell activation
54
mycophenolate mofetil mechanism
inhibits IMPDH inhibits purine synthesis and B and T cell proliferation
55
sirolimus mechanism
inhibits IL2 receptor and t cell proliferation
56
monoclonal ab mechanism for immunosuppresion
IL2 receptor antagonist
57
IL2 receptor antagonists
daclizumab basiliximab
58
features of rhabdo
CK 5x upper limit hypocalcaemia hyperphosphataemia, hyperkalaemia
59
why is calcium low in rhabdo?
raised myoglobin which binds calcium
60
AFP and bHCG are raised in what?
non seminoma
61
LDH is raised in what types of testicular ca?
GCT
62
foamy macrophages
xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
63
Wilm's tumour associations
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome WAGR syndrome (aniridia, genitourinary malformations, LDs) hemihypertrophy
64
Wilm's tumour genetics
1/3 are associated with loss of function mutation WT1 gene on chromo 11
65
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
organomegaly, macroglossia, abdo wall defects Wilm's tumour neonatal hypoglycaemia
66
stages of SLE kidney disease
I: normal II: mesangial glomerulonephritis III: focal segmental proliferative GN IV: diffuse proliferative GN V: diffuse membranous GN VI: sclerosing GN class 4 is most common and most severe
67
diffuse proliferative GN microscopy findings
Gomeruli have endothelial and mesangial proliferation 'wire-loop' appearance subendothelial immune complex deposits granular appearance on immunofluorescence
68
treatment for class 3 and 4 SLE nephritis
glucocorticoids and mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide
69
70
AKI criteria
increase in creatinine by 26 in 48h 50% increase in creatinine in 7 days < 0.5ml /kg/hr urine over 6 h